Hip injuries include dislocations and fractures of the hip. Why is dislocation of a hip considered a medical emergency
Answer: Avascular necrosis can result from the dislocation.
Explanation:Hoped I helped :)
The band of high frequency of cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease in the south east is known as the:
Answer: Stroke belt.
The nurse is teaching a client about sexually transmitted infections. The nurse determines the teaching was successful when the client makes which statement
There are different types of sexually transmitted infections. The nurse determines the teaching was successful when the client says STIs can affect anyone if exposed to the infectious organism.
An STI can pass on to others through skin contact with infected person, genitals, mouth, rectum, or body fluids.
Sexually transmitted diseases (STD are often said to be an infection acquired by sexual contact.
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the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct is the
Distal convoluted tubule located in the cortical labyrinth is the tube that is part of the nephron that connects to the collecting duct.
Distal tubule begins where the thickness of the thin portion of the loop of Henle increases in its ascending segment and leading to the cortex, it is located at the entrance to the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle of the nephron that belongs to it.
In this place, some cells of its wall will constitute the macula densa, which is part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.Subsequently, the tubule makes a series of tortuosities, to form the convoluted portion (distal convoluted tubule), which empties into the collecting duct.Therefore, we can conclude that the distal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct.
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the fact that someone with a high risk of medical problems is likely to buy a large amount of health insurance is an example of
Answer:
to take treatment that doctor gave you
Refers to the transfer of genes from donor to recipient microorganisms, where the recipient strain shows a change in genetic makeup at the end.
The mechanism by which genes are transferred from a donor to a recipient microorganism is called TRANSDUCTION. After transduction, the genetic makeup of the recipient cell is different.
Transduction refers to the genetic recombination mechanism by which bacteria can transfer fragments of DNA by using bacteria-infecting viruses called bacteriophages.
During transduction, a bacterial cell interacts by a conjugal bridge through which fragments of DNA are transferred to a suitable (host) recipient cell.
This mechanism (transduction) changes the genome of the host cells by generating genetic recombinants when the bacteriophages initiate a new cycle of infection.
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Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she prescribe for mary?.
Answer:
oestrogen
Explanation:
because the lack of oestrogen can cause menopause and the development of osteoporosis
While preparing some chicken wings for cooking you observe white fibers connecting the bones and the muscles to bone. What type of fibers are these?.
These fibres are called the connective tissue fibres.
Connective tissues bind structures together, form framework and support for organs and the body as a whole.
It is characterized by an abundance of intercellular matrix with relatively few cells.
There are different types of connective tissue which include:
loose connective tissue,adipose tissuefibrous connective tissueelastic connective tissuecartilage,osseous tissue and blood.The specific type of connective tissue that connects bones to bones and muscles to bones is the fibrous connective tissue. Example is the tendons.
Therefore, the white fibres are called connective tissue fibres.
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Emmanuel already knows that fats are important and necessary to absorb other nutrients, such as vitamins. What four vitamins are considered fat-soluble vitamins and need dietary fat to be absorbed
What client information does a nurse need to assess prior to initiating medication therapy with phenelzine.
the most powerful and abundant form of vitamin e is:
Answer:
Tocopherols
Explanation:
Which of the following is a relay station for all the information that travels to and from the cortex? (It's not B)
Select one:
a.
cerebellum
b.
midbrain
c.
thalamus
d.
forebrain
what are the 4 main body parts in the excretory system
Answer: the kidneys, large intestine, liver, skin, and lungs.
Explanation: Organs of excretion make up the excretory system. They include the kidneys, large intestine, liver, skin, and lungs. The kidneys filter blood and form urine. They are part of the urinary system, which also includes the ureters, bladder, and urethra.
The four main part of excretory system are lungs, kidneys, skin, large intestine and lungs.
What is excretory system?Excretory system is the system of the body help in excretion or discharge or help to remove wastes products from the body. The excretory system remove undigested or unwanted substances the body does not need which can be toxic to the body.
Therefore, The four main part of excretory system are lungs, kidneys, skin, large intestine and lungs.
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i just need help on plants
Answer:
there are 390,900 plants in the world
there are 57 genera of flowering plants
there are 452 plant families
there are 14 plant phyla
People who suffer from schizophrenia have, among other things, an excess of dopamine. Therefore, medications used to treat this disorder are dopamine _____.
Answer:
antagonists
Explanation:
Psych 201
Which part of a vertebra is known as the centrum?.
Answer:
Central Part
Explanation:
The central part of the vertebrae is known as the centrum.
What is a vertebra?The 33 distinct bones that connect to one another to construct the spinal column are known as vertebrae. The areas of the vertebrae—cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx—are identified by numbers (Fig. 2). The sacrum and coccyx vertebrae are fused; just the top 24 bones are mobile. Each region's vertebrae have certain characteristics that aid in carrying out their primary responsibilities.
The cervical spine's primary function is to carry the pressure of the head (about 10 pounds). Numbered C1 to C7, the cervical vertebrae are seven in number.
The major job of the thoracic (middle back) spine is to support the rib cage and safeguard the heart and lungs. T1 through T12 represents the thoracic vertebrae. The thoracic spine has a restricted range of motion.
The lumbar (low back) spine's primary job is to support the body's weight. L1 through L5 represent the lumbar vertebrae.
The sacrum's primary job is to link the spine to the hip bones. There are five fused sacral vertebrae in total. They make into a ring known as the pelvic girdle along with the iliac bones.
Ligaments and muscles of the pelvic floor are attached to the four fused coccyx or tailbone bones in the coccyx area.
Therefore, the central region of the vertebrae is known as the centrum.
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#SPJ2
For what purpose(s) might a karyotype be prepared?.
Answer:
Karyotyping might be prepared for examining chromosomes inside the body.
Explanation:
Doctors use this process to decide if there are any abnormalities or issues within the chromosomes.
How to do head to toe exams
Answer:
General Status. Vital signs. ...
Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, Throat. Observe color of lips and moistness. ...
Neck. Palpate lymph nodes. ...
Respiratory. Listen to lung sounds front and back. ...
Cardiac. Palpate the carotid and temporal pulses bilaterally. ...
Abdomen. Inspect abdomen. ...
Pulses. ...
Extremities.
Explanation: You can search it up too if you'd like :)
Which hormone promotes protein catabolism?.
Answer:
glucagon, glucocorticoids and adrenaline Explanation:
Bright yellow urine usually is indicative that someone is supplementing with ________. nutrition
where do most second-order somesthetic neurons synapse with third-order neurons?
Answer:
Thalamus
Explanation:
The thalamus receives signals from second order neurons, and relays them through third-order neurons to the POSTcentral gyrus of the cerebrum.
How to determine basal metabolic rate vs resting metabolic rate.
Answer:
Resting metabolic rate is a measurement of the number of calories that your body burns at rest. Resting metabolic rate is usually measured in the morning before you eat or exercise and after a full night of restful sleep. Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is a measurement of the number of calories needed to perform your body’s most basic ( basal) functions, like breathing, circulation and cell production.
A client is being prepared for intrauterine (artificial) insemination. Which finding is the most suggestive to determine if the client is ovulating
Given what we know about uterine changes during ovulation, we can confirm that the most suggestive option to determine if the client is ovulating is the change in the cervical mucus.
During ovulation, many changes occur in the uterine in preparation for the possible fertilization of the egg and its subsequent implantations into the uterine wall. Of these changes, the most useful is the change to the mucus of the endometrium.
The endometrium is the outermost layer of the uterine wall, therefore, it is where the glands that will secrete hormones are located. During ovulation, the changes to this layer are clear and can provide unmistakable evidence of ovulation. One such evidence is the secretion of hormones specific to this stage in the menstrual cycle.
This was answered based on the complete question found online which states:
A client is being prepared for artificial insemination. Which finding is the most suggestive to determine if the client is ovulating?
A) slight weight gain
B) change in the cervical mucus
C) abdominal cramps
D) fall in body temperature
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The nurse is teaching the pregnant woman about nutrition for herself and her baby. Which statement by the woman indicates that the teaching was effective
Answer:
she needs to know that she must take iron even if she is not anemic
An experiencing LPN/LVN under the supervision of the team leader RN, is assigned to provde nursing care for a client with respiratory problem. Which actions are appropriate to the scope of practice of an experienced
The following actions are appropriate:
Auscultating breath sounds
Administering medications via metered-dose inhaler (MDI)
Checking oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry
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When administering benazepril with spironolactone, the nurse should be aware that which electrolyte imbalance may occur?.
When administering benazepril with spironolactone, the nurse should be aware of HYPERKALEMIA. This condition occurs when the potassium level is higher than normal.
Potassium is an essential micronutrient that is required during muscle (heart) contraction, to maintain fluid balance and normal blood pressure.
Hyperkalemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs when the potassium level in the blood is higher than normal.
Benazepril is a medicament used for the treatment of hypertension, which has been associated with hyperkalemia.
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Your client Mrs. Young, age 64, is here to see you because she has pain in her left breast. She reports no pain in her right breast and no noted lesions or masses on breast self-exam, which she performs monthly. You know that:
Answer:She must be sent for a mammogram as soon as possible.
Explanation:
A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for many months. What statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the client has a good understanding of the use of this therapy
Answer:I have no clue sorry....
Explanation:
A woman's baby is HIV positive at birth. She asks the nurse if this means the baby will develop AIDS. Which statement would be the nurse's best answer
Answer:HIV can pass through the placenta and infect the fetus.
Explanation:he baby may be exposed to the virus in the mother's blood and other fluids.
REALLY HOPE this helps!:)
Which disorder is treated by restricting milk in the diet? question 10 options: phenylketonuria cystic fibrosis galactosemia tay-sachs disease.
Answer: galactosemia
Explanation: hope this helps