Cooper wrote checks on his checking account for $20 and $35. He also deposited $63 in the account. Which number describes the change in the balance of his account? A.$12 B.$8 C.$15​

Answer:

the perimeter is 25.

Step-by-step explanation:

have a nice day!

Answer:

[tex]B + G \leq 15[/tex]

[tex]6B + 10G \geq 90[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Represent Babysitting with B

Represent Gas Station with G

Total workhours = At most 15

Earnings = At least $90

First, we need to represent the work hours as inequality

B + G  = At most 15

At most 15 means less than or equal to 15.

So, we have:

[tex]B + G \leq 15[/tex]

Next, we represent the earnings as inequality.

6 hours of babysitting is: 6B

10 hours at gas station is: 10G

So:

6B + 10G is at least 90

At least 90 means greater than or equal to 90

So, we have:

[tex]6B + 10G \geq 90[/tex]

Answer:

eighty-nine and thirty-six hundredths

or, simpler:

eighty-nine point thirty-six

or, even simpler:

eighty-nine point three six

Answer:

eighty-nine and thirty-six hundredths

Step-by-step explanation:

===================================================

Explanation:

We are given that AB is parallel to DC.

This allows us to say that angle BAC = angle DCA because they are alternate interior angles.

We have one pair of congruent angles, but we don't have a second pair of congruent angles. So we cannot use ASA.

We can't use SAS either since we only have information about one pair of congruent sides (AC = AC). We don't know anything about the other sides.

AA is not a congruence theorem. Instead it's a similarity theorem. So we can rule this out as well.

The only thing left is choice D. We don't have enough information. We need to know if AD is parallel to BC, so we can show that angle BCA = angle DAC, which is the other angle pair to use ASA. Or if we knew that AB = CD, then we could use SAS to prove the triangles congruent. Unfortunately we don't have this information.

Answer:

P(X ≥ 3) = 0.94538

Step-by-step explanation:

When flipping a coin, probability of getting a tail is p= 0.5.

Number of times flipped; n = 10

Now, this is a binomial probability distribution problem with the formula;

P(X = x) = C(n, r) × p^(x) × (1 - p)^(n - x)

Probability of getting at least 3 tails is;

P(X ≥ 3) = P(3) + P(4) + P(5) + P(6) + P(7) + P(8) + P(9) + P(10)

P(3) = C(10, 3) × 0.5³ × (1 - 0.5)^(10 - 3)

P(3) = 0.1172

P(4) = C(10, 4) × 0.5⁴ × (1 - 0.5)^(10 - 4)

P(4) = 0.2051

From online binomial probability calculator, we have the remaining as;

P(5) = 0.2461

P(6) = 0.2051

P(7) = 0.1172

P(8) = 0.0439

P(9) = 0.0098

P(10) = 0.00098

Thus;

P(X ≥ 3) = 0.1172 + 0.2051 + 0.2461 + 0.2051 + 0.1172 + 0.0439 + 0.0098 + 0.00098

P(X ≥ 3) = 0.94538

Answer:

mistake in step 2 forgot to subtract from end

Step-by-step explanation:

An equation is formed when two equal expressions. The value of x is 24 and Jake made a mistake in step 2. The correct option is A.

An equation is formed when two equal expressions are equated together with the help of an equal sign '='.

The given equation 1/3x + 7 = 15 can be solved as shown below.

Step 1.) 1/3x + 7 = 15

Step 2.) Subtract 7 from both the sides of the equation,

1/3x + 7 - 7 = 15 - 7

Step 3.) 1/3x = 8

Step 4.) Multiply both the sides of the equation by 3,

3 • 1/3x = 3 • 8

Step 5.) x = 24

Hence, the value of x is 24. And Jake made a mistake in step 2.

Learn more about Equation here:

https://brainly.com/question/14686792

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Answer:

I think the answer is B.

Answer:

1.- 4/5 + 5/12= 1  and 13/60

2.- 5/6 + 6/12= 1 and 1/3

3.- 1/3 + 2/6= 2/3

4.- 7/8 + 8/10=  1 and 27/40

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▹ Answer

$1.30

▹ Step-by-Step Explanation

To find the price per pound, you have to divide the total amount of money by the amount of pounds:

$7.80/6 lbs = $1.30

Hope this helps!

CloutAnswers ❁

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Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

C

i don't get the first slide

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

 A

 C

What is the 1st one?? i don't get it.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6797999012

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. a = 5400

2. r = 0.96

3. Percentage decrement = 65.4%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

N = ar^t

Solving (a): Write down the value of a

a implies the first term

And from the question, we understand that the initial number of trees is 5400.

Hence,

a = 5400

Solving (b): Show that r = 0.96

Using

N = ar^t

When a = 5400, t = 1 i.e. the first year and N = 5184

Substitute these values in the above expression

5184 = 5400 * r¹

5184 = 5400 * r

5184 = 5400r

Solve for r

r = 5184/5400

r = 0.96

Solving (c): Show that the trees has decreased by over 65% in 2040

First, we need to calculate number of years (t) in 2040

t = 2040 - 2014

t = 26

Substitute 26 for t, 5400 for a and 0.96 for r in N = ar^t to get the number of trees left

N = 5400 * 0.96^26

N = 1868.29658019

N = 1868 (approximated)

Next, we calculate the percentage change as thus:

%Change = (Final - Initial)/Initial * 100%

Where the initial number of trees =5400 and final = 1868

%Change = (1868 - 5400)/5400 * 100%

%Change = -3532/5400 * 100%

%Change = -3532%/54

%Change = -65.4%

The negative sign indicates a decrements or reduction.

Hence, percentage decrement = 65.4% and this is over 65%

Answer:

He lost 29 points

Step-by-step explanation:

He lost 29 points. He lost 5 points for each of the 8 questions so -5 x 8 = -40 points, then add 11 = -29

Answer:

He would end up with 71 points

Step-by-step explanation:

You start with 100 hundred points then you have to multiply 8 times 5 which you get 40 so then you have to  subtract 100 -40 to get 60 then you add the extra 11 points andyou get 71 points

Answer:

It would be CB, BA, AC

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

peepeepoopoo check

Step-by-step explanation:

It is 3 73/99

I just used a fraction calculator lol

Answer:

It is 3 73/99

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

Inverse it To verify:

0/1=0+9=9

Answer:

66.6666

Step-by-step explanation

This is the answer because I found it up here and I got the answer right.

Answer: E(X) = 30; Var[X] = 180

Step-by-step explanation: This is a Bernoulli Experiment, i.e., the experiment is repeated a fixed number of times, the trials are independents, the only two outcomes are "success" or "failure" and the probability of success remains the same, So, to calculate Expected Value, which is the mean, in these conditions:

[tex]E(X)=\frac{r}{p}[/tex]

r is number of times it is repeated

p is probability it happens

Solving:

[tex]E(X)=\frac{5}{1/6}[/tex]

E(X) = 30

Variance is given by:

[tex]Var[X]=\frac{r(1-p)}{p^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]Var[X]=\frac{5(1-1/6)}{(1/6)^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]Var[X]=5.\frac{5}{6}.6^{2}[/tex]

Var[X] = 180

Expected Value and Variance of the number of times one must throw a die until 1 happens 5 times are 30 and 180, respectively.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

A P E X

If you wanted a smaller interval, you could (c)  Increase the sample size to 100

The confidence interval is given as:

CI = 95%

The sample standard deviation is given as:

σ = 9

The sample size is given as:

n = 36

In a test of hypothesis, the higher the sample size, the smaller the confidence interval.

This means that an increase in the sample size from 36 would decrease the confidence interval

Hence, if you wanted a smaller interval, you could (c)  Increase the sample size to 100

Read more about confidence intervals at:

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6 - 3(x + 1) = 18 ⇔ 3 - 3x = 18 ⇒ x = 5

y - 6 = 17 ⇒ y = 23

z - 3 = 4z ⇒ z = - 1

18 - 3(0) = 9w ⇒ w = 2

========================

I'm going to solve for you some another question you asked, I did not see the right answer...  :)

There are two scenarios, because the expression under the module can be positive and can be negative: | 3x + 2| - 2 > 3 ⇔  | 3x + 2| > 5

(1). If (3x + 2) is positive then

3x + 2 > 5 ⇒ x > 3

(2). If (3x + 2) is negative then

- (3x + 2) > 5

- 3x - 2 > 5

- 3x > 7 ⇒ x < - [tex]\frac{7}{3}[/tex]

The final answer is x < - 2.3 or x > 1

.....*+*Kill me*+*.....

*+*.......................*+*

*+*.......................*+*

Answer:

1. Yes 2. No 3. No

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:

Let x be the unknown angle we want to find.

Let y be adjacent and supplementary to x. This means x+y = 180

Let z also be adjacent and supplementary to x. So x+z = 180 also

Subtracting the two equations leads to y-z = 0 and y = z. So effectively we've proven the vertical angle theorem.

Since the supplementary angles to x add to 100, we know that y+z = 100. Plug in y = z and solve for z

y+z = 100

z+z = 100

2z = 100

z = 100/2

z = 50

Therefore,

x+z = 180

x+50 = 180

x = 180-50

x = 130

Answer:

130°

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the unknown angle we want to find.

Let y be adjacent and supplementary to x. This means x+y = 180

Let z also be adjacent and supplementary to x. So x+z = 180 also

Subtracting the two equations leads to y-z = 0 and y = z. So effectively we've proven the vertical angle theorem.

Since the supplementary angles to x add to 100, we know that y+z = 100. Plug in y = z and solve for z

y+z = 100

z+z = 100

2z = 100

z = 100/2

z = 50

Therefore,

x+z = 180

x+50 = 180

x = 180-50

x = 130

Answer:

3 + 0.7 + 0.06 + 0.001

Answer:3+ 0.7+ 0.06+ 0.001= 3.761

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hey there! Thanks for asking your question.

We can multiply the numerators and denominators by any number.

Either way, you will have the same equivalent fraction.

Let's do a practice problem:

[tex]\frac{1}{2} = ?[/tex]

We can multiply the numerator & denominator by 2.

We get the number [tex]\frac{2}{4}[/tex].

So, [tex]\frac{1}{2} = \frac{2}{4}[/tex].

Best of Luck!