Which of the following is NOT a solution to the
inequality |-3x + 3) > 6?
A. -4
B. -3
C. -2
D. 3
E. 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]6 \cos {}^{2} (x) + 4 \sin {}^{2} (x) = 5[/tex]

[tex]6(1 - sin {}^{2} x) + 4 \sin {}^{2} (x) = 5[/tex]

[tex]6 - 6 \sin {}^{2} (x) + 4 \sin {}^{2} (x) = 5[/tex]

[tex]6 - 2 \sin { }^{2} (x) = 5[/tex]

[tex] - 2 \sin {}^{2} (x) = - 1[/tex]

[tex] \sin {}^{2} (x) = \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

[tex] \sin(x) = \frac{1}{ \sqrt{2} } [/tex]

Take the arc Sine of the function

[tex]arcsin( \frac{1}{ \sqrt{2} } ) = \frac{\pi}{4} [/tex]

Finally, Sine is a periodic function so it has two answers within the interval (0, 2 pi)

Use the identity

[tex] \sin(x) = \sin(x + \pi) [/tex]

We know that

[tex] \sin( \frac{\pi}{4} ) = \frac{1}{ \sqrt{2} } [/tex]

so using the identity

[tex] \sin( \frac{\pi}{4} + \pi ) = \sin( \frac{5\pi}{4} ) [/tex]

So we have two answers.

[tex]( \frac{\pi}{4} )[/tex]

[tex]( \frac{5\pi}{4} )[/tex]

Answer: c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

what you need to know is all lines equal up to 180

so basically it's 180 - 115

which is 65

comment down below if you need more explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Below in bold.

Step-by-step explanation:

g(12) = √12 + 4

so f(g(12))

= 3(√12 + 4) + 5(√12 + 4)

=  8(√12 + 4)

= 59.71 to nearest hundredth.

Answer:

  (b)  y -4 = 3(x -2)

Step-by-step explanation:

You are given the form

  y -y1 = m(x -x1)

and the values

  y1 =4, m =3, x1 =2

Putting these in their places gives ...

  y -4 = 3(x -2)

Answer:

Brainly.com

Question

Match each expression to the correct verbal description.

Answer · 12 votes

(7x)3+8 8 added to the cube of 7x(7x+8)3 The cube of the sum of 7x and 87(x+8)3 7 times the cube of the sum of x and 87x3+8 8 added to 7 and x cubed

Answer:

The answer is I don't know

Answer:

Here you go

Step-by-step explanation:

24 original width

49 original length

Answer:

30 hours 48 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the relationship

average speed = [tex]\frac{distance}{time}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{375}{15}[/tex] = 25 Km / hour

Then

time = [tex]\frac{distance}{speed}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{770}{25}[/tex] = 30.8 hours = 30 hours 48 minutes

Answer:

30.8 or 30 hours and 48 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

375 km > 15 Hours

Divide 375 and 15, equals to 25.

So, to proof that 375 is equals to 15 hours, divide 375 and 25 then you will get the answer 15. :)

Now, divide 770 and 25 to get the time taken to travel 770km.

And the answer is 30.8 hrs or... 30hrs and 48mins

Welcome ;)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2005 AMC 8 Problems/Problem 20

Problem

Alice and Bob play a game involving a circle whose circumference is divided by 12 equally-spaced points. The points are numbered clockwise, from 1 to 12. Both start on point 12. Alice moves clockwise and Bob, counterclockwise. In a turn of the game, Alice moves 5 points clockwise and Bob moves 9 points counterclockwise. The game ends when they stop on the same point. How many turns will this take?

$\textbf{(A)}\ 6\qquad\textbf{(B)}\ 8\qquad\textbf{(C)}\ 12\qquad\textbf{(D)}\ 14\qquad\textbf{(E)}\ 24$

Solution

Alice moves $5k$ steps and Bob moves $9k$ steps, where $k$ is the turn they are on. Alice and Bob coincide when the number of steps they move collectively, $14k$, is a multiple of $12$. Since this number must be a multiple of $12$, as stated in the previous sentence, $14$ has a factor $2$, $k$ must have a factor of $6$. The smallest number of turns that is a multiple of $6$ is $\boxed{\textbf{(A)}\ 6}$.

See Also

2005 AMC 8 (Problems • Answer Key • Resources)

Preceded by

Problem 19 Followed by

Problem 21

1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 • 16 • 17 • 18 • 19 • 20 • 21 • 22 • 23 • 24 • 25

All AJHSME/AMC 8 Problems and Solutions

The problems on this page are copyrighted by the Mathematical Association of America's American Mathematics Competitions.

Answer:

y= 32

Step-by-step explanation:

HOPE THIS HELPS :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Rule: the largest angle is ALWAYS opposite the longest side, and the converse is also true: the longest side is always opposite the largest angle. So the largest side is E which is B

Answer:

  A, D, F

Step-by-step explanation:

It is convenient to let a calculator or spreadsheet evaluate the function for you. Reflection over the y-axis means x is replaced by -x in the original function definition.

The values that show up on the reflected graph are ...

  (-7, -10.206)

  (0.5, -0.221)

  (9, -0.003)

Rectangular Poster:

Length = 9

Width = 3

Rectangular Banner:

Length = 10

Width = 2

Hope this is helpful!

Answer:One minute is 60 times as long as one hour i guess?

Hey there!

Guide to follow

“Difference” means subtract

“Is” means equal to

“Product” means multiply

“Quotient” means divide

“Sum” means add

Answering your question….

“The [QUOTIENT] of [-4] and [y]

Remember we said “quotient” means divide

So we’re dividing -4 from y and that will be your answer.

Answer

-4 ÷ y

Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!

~Amphitrite1040:)

The geometric series that converges from the listed option is [tex]1+\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} ,...[/tex] Option B is correct.

The nth term of a geometric sequence is expressed as;

[tex]a_n=ar^{n-1}[/tex]

For a geometric sequence to converge, the modulus of its common ratio must be less than 1 (|r| < 1), otherwise, it diverges.

For the first series given as [tex]\frac{1}{81} + \frac{1}{27} +\frac{1}{9} +\frac{1}{3}+ ,...[/tex]

[tex]r = \frac{1}{27} \div \frac{1}{81}\\r=\frac{1}{27} \times 81\\r=\frac{81}{27} \\r=3 > 1[/tex]

Since the common ratio of the sequence is greater than 1, hence the series diverges.

For the series [tex]1+\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} ,...[/tex]

[tex]r=\frac{1/2}{1} =\frac{1/4}{1/2} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Since the common ratio of the sequence is less than 1, hence the series converges.

Learn more on convergence of series here: https://brainly.com/question/14294471

Answer:

9 lol

Step-by-step explanation:

comming from a highscholer its 12% of 12 =9

hope this helps

Answer:

B 71 & 71

Step-by-step explanation:

OP is an angle bisector

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Since angles MOP and NOP are both labeled as 2x+1, they must both be equivalent. The only answer choice which shows them to be equivalent is B.

Verification:

(2x+1)+(2x+1)=142

4x=140

x=35

(substitution)

2(35)+1 = 71

Answer:lol

Step-by-step explanation:

x = -7

hope this helps!

This is the number 80 thousand

==========================================================

Explanation:

1/2, aka 2/4, of the original fund was given to his wife and 1/4 was given to his son. That totals 3/4 since 2/4+1/4 = (2+1)/4 = 3/4.

In short, 3/4 of the fund is distributed between the wife and son. That leaves 1/4 of the fund for the two brothers to share equally.

Imagine a cake cut into quarters. Then cut each slice in half to get eighths, i.e. there are 8 equal slices. This means each brother gets 1/8 of the fund.

Since each brother got Rs 10000, this must mean the original fund is worth 8*10000 = 80000

Taking 1/8 of Rs 80000 will get us Rs 10000 for each brother.

----------------------------------

Checking the answer:

original fund amount = 80000

1/2 of 80000 = 40000 is the amount the wife gets

1/4 of 80000 = 20000 is the amount the son gets

That totals 40000+20000 = 60000 leaving 80000-60000 = 20000 leftover for the two brothers to share. Cut that 20 thousand figure in half to arrive at Rs 10000 for each brother. These steps help confirm the answer.

----------------------------------

Another method using algebra:

x = original amount of the fund

W = x/2 = 2x/4 = half of the fund = amount wife gets

S = x/4 = quarter of the fund = amount the son gets

W+S = (2x/4) + (x/4) = (2x+x)/4 = 3x/4

W+S represents the sum of the wife's and son's amounts.

We'll subtract this from the original amount x to find out what's left

x - (W+S) = x - (3x/4) = (4x/4) - (3x/4) = (4x-3x)/4 = x/4

This shows that 1/4 of the fund is left over after distributing to the wife and son.

The amount x/4 is then cut in half to get x/8 to represent the amount each brother gets. We're told that amount is Rs 10000

So,

x/8 = 10000

x = 8*10000

x = 80000

The original fund is worth Rs 80000

Answer:

The test  has 10 3-point questions and 14 5-point questions.

Step-by-step explanation:

x + y = 24

3x + 5y = 100

From the first equation:

3x + 3y = 72

Subtracting:

3x - 3x + 5y - 3y = 100 -72

2y = 28

so y = 14

x + 14 = 24 so x = 10.

10*3 + 5*14

= 30 + 70 = 100 points.

The equation of the line for the graph that has y-intercept (0, 6) and contains the point (2, 1) is; y = -2.5x + 6

The general form of the equation of a Line in Slope Intercept form is;

y = mx + c

where;

m is slope

c is y-intercept

We are told that the graph has the points (0, 6) and (2, 1). Thus, the formula for slope is;

m = (y₂ - y₁)/(x₂ - x₁)

m = (1 - 6)/(2 - 0)

m = -5/2

m = -2.5

Now, since the y-intercept is at (0, 6), then it means that;

c = 6

Thus, the equation of the line is; y = -2.5x + 6

Read more about slope intercept form at; https://brainly.com/question/1884491

#SPJ1

Based on his score last week and his score this week, we can say that Jacob increased his score by 180%

Jacob scored 25 in his test last week and then this week scored 70.

The increase can be found as:

= (New score - Old score) / Old score x 100%

Solving gives:

= (70 - 25) / 25 x 100%

= 180%

In conclusion, Jacob increased by 180%

Find out more at https://brainly.com/question/22444616.

Answer: Friday, 1.25 more per hour

Step-by-step explanation: if we take the inches it snowed and divide it by the hours, we get the rate of snowfall for one hour. 15/6=2.5 and 30/8=3.75

To get how much more we take the bigger snowfall per hour minus the smaller snowfall per hour 3.75-2.5=1.25

Answer:

(12 x 12) - 44 = 100

Step-by-step explanation: