Which of the following is an example where natural selection is most likely to occur?


•Short-legged lizards can
outcompete the long-legged lizards for resources on an island
•A person lifts weights so they can
pass the trait of large muscles down to their future offspring
•A population of snails with
different shell colors all have an equal chance of surviving and reproducing
•A human only plants seeds from
the five spiciest chili peppers in their garden each year

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: the first answer lizards

Explanation:

the reason being is because when natural selection happens the long legged lizards might have an advantages but vice versa same with the other lizards natural selection will throw something at them and see if they can adapt or if they don't one the dies or they adapt a new trait to live to reproduce to pass on their traits


Related Questions

Once you print, cut all the pieces apart. Then reassemble the puzzle so the the definition backs up with the card that has the term. So if one card says: double helix, the card that matches with it would say: the shape of DNA.

Answers

DNA replication is the process through which DNA duplicates. It occurs in the interphase and involves different enzymes, DNA molecules, and free nucleotides. Terms and definitions in the attached files.

What is DNA replication?

DNA replication is the process through which DNI molecule duplicates. This event takes place during the S stage of the interphase. So when the cell divides during mitosis or meiosis, each cell will get a complete set of chromosomes.

DNI replication is semi-conservative because each new molecule carries an original DNI strand and a new one. The fact that the new molecule is composed of an original strand makes it semi-conservative. The old existing strands are used to synthesize the new complementary strand.

The origin of the replication requires helicase enzymes to break hydrogen bonds and separate the two original strands. The topoisomerase enzyme is necessary to release tension. Other proteins are also needed to join the strains and keep them separated. Once the molecule is opened, there is a region named replication forks. DNA polymerase makes the new nucleotides enter into the fork and pairs them with the corresponding nucleotide of the original strand. Adenine pairs timine, and cytosine pairs guanine.

DNA strands are antiparallel, and replication occurs only in 5'-3' direction. So one of the strands will replicate continuously, while the other strain will be formed by short fragments known as Okazaki fragments.

Primers are needed to make the DNA polymerase work. Primers are small units of RNA and are placed at the beginning of each new fragment.

In the attached files you will find the terms and their definitions.

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A fictional animal, the tribble, reproduces in synchrony at regular intervals. When the growth rate of the population was plotted against time, the result was a straight and increasing line. Which statement about the tribble population is false? The r of the tribble population is constant and greater than 0 The λ of the tribble population is constant and greater than 1. The tribble population is increasing in size geometrically. If the actual population size were plotted against time, the result would be an increasing J-shaped curve.

Answers

The false statement is if the actual population size were plotted against time, the result would be an increasing J-shaped curve, option D is correct.

If the growth rate of the tribble population is plotted against time as a straight and increasing line, it indicates exponential growth, which is characteristic of geometric growth. In geometric growth, the population size increases at a constant rate over equal time intervals. This is consistent with statement C, which states that the tribble population is increasing in size geometrically.

Therefore, the actual population size plotted against time would also show an increasing J-shaped curve, as the population grows exponentially. Statements A and B are true, as they describe a constant and positive growth rate (r) and a constant and greater than 1 population growth factor (λ), respectively, which are expected in a population undergoing exponential growth, option D is correct.

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The correct question is:

A fictional animal, the tribble, reproduces in synchrony at regular intervals. When the growth rate of the population was plotted against time, the result was a straight and increasing line. Which statement about the tribble population is false?

A. The r of the tribble population is constant and greater than 0

B.  The λ of the tribble population is constant and greater than 1

C. The tribble population is increasing in size geometrically

D. If the actual population size were plotted against time, the result would be an increasing J-shaped curve.

gary and diane are preparing a garden. As part of their work, they must prepare the soil and plant 100 flowers. it would take diane 10 hours to prepare the soul and 12 hours for planting.
1. how much time would it take the two to complete the garden if they divide the soil prepration equally and the planting equally?
2. how much time would it take the two to complete the garden if they use compararive advantage and specialize in soil preparation or planting?

Answers

1. Time taken by Gary and Diane to complete the garden if they divide the soil preparation equally and the planting equally is 32 hours.

2. Time taken by the two to complete the garden if they use comparative advantage and specialize in soil preparation or planting is 34 hours.

1. To calculate the time taken by Gary and Diane to complete the garden, let's write the time taken by Gary to prepare the soil to be x hours. So, the time taken by Diane to prepare the soil will also be x hours. As given, Diane can plant 100 flowers in 12 hours. Thus, Diane can plant 25 flowers in 3 hours. Therefore, the time is taken by Diane to plant 100 flowers

= (100/25) × 3 = 12 hours.

Now, the time taken by Gary to plant 100 flowers will also be 12 hours. Therefore,

total time taken by both Gary and Diane to complete the garden = Time taken for soil preparation + Time taken for planting

= 2x + 12 hours = (2 × 10) + 12

= 32 hours

2.  To calculate the time taken by the two to complete the garden if they use comparative advantage and specialize in soil preparation or planting, we know that Diane can prepare the soil in 10 hours while Gary can prepare the soil in 20 hours. Therefore, Diane should prepare the soil. Now, the time is taken by Diane to prepare the soil = 10 hours. Diane can plant 100 flowers in 12 hours while Gary can plant 100 flowers in 24 hours. Therefore, Gary should plant the flowers.

Now, the time is taken Gary to plant the flowers = 24 hours. Therefore,

total time taken by both Gary and Diane to complete the garden = Time taken for soil preparation + Time taken for planting

= 10 + 24

= 34 hours

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solve it according to the question please.
the subject is petroleum, so please solve it regardibg
this.
F- Explain the global carbon-climate cycle during the Cretaceous period. (Write only one paragraph describing what happened during the Cretaceous geological period in order to have good source rocks.)

Answers

During the Cretaceous period, high temperatures and abundant vegetation resulted in increased [tex]CO_2[/tex] levels, leading to the accumulation of organic matter and the formation of good source rocks for oil and gas.

During the Cretaceous period, spanning from approximately 145 to 66 million years ago, the global carbon-climate cycle played a crucial role in the development of favorable conditions for the formation of good source rocks. The period was characterized by high global temperatures and abundant vegetation, resulting in increased carbon dioxide [tex](CO_2)[/tex] levels in the atmosphere.

The elevated [tex]CO_2[/tex] levels fueled vigorous photosynthesis, leading to the accumulation of organic matter in marine and terrestrial ecosystems. As this organic matter was buried and subjected to heat and pressure over millions of years, it transformed into oil and gas, creating potential source rocks. The warm climate and prolific vegetation during the Cretaceous, along with the subsequent geological processes, contributed to the formation of the rich hydrocarbon reserves that are vital to our energy resources today.

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The correct question is:

Explain the global carbon-climate cycle during the Cretaceous period. (Write only one paragraph describing what happened during the Cretaceous geological period in order to have good source rocks.)

A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. The base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters.

What is the surface area of the tetrahedral die to the nearest ten square millimeters?

Answers

A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid with the base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters has the surface area of the tetrahedral die is approximately 1350 square millimeters to the nearest ten square millimeters.

A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. The base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters. What is the surface area of the tetrahedral die to the nearest ten square millimeters?Surface area of tetrahedral dieTo find the surface area of the tetrahedral die, we need to first calculate the area of the triangular faces and then add them up.

The surface area of a tetrahedral die can be calculated as follows:Surface area of a tetrahedral die = Sum of the areas of all its triangular faces.Area of an equilateral triangle. A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. An equilateral triangle is a triangle where all its sides and angles are equal. The area of an equilateral triangle is given by the formula:Area of an equilateral triangle = (√3/4) * a² where a is the length of each side of the equilateral triangle. Substituting a = 26mm,Area of the equilateral triangle = (√3/4) * 26²= 338 mm².

The tetrahedral die has four equilateral triangular faces. So, its surface area can be calculated by adding the area of each triangular face. Therefore,Surface area of the tetrahedral die = 4 × area of the equilateral triangle= 4 × 338= 1352 mm²= 1.4 × 10³ mm²Therefore, the surface area of the tetrahedral die is approximately 1350 square millimeters to the nearest ten square millimeters.

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A niche is the functional role that a species plays in its community. A species with broad tolerances who is able to use a wide array of resources is a _______.
Generalist
Specialist
Invasive
Adaptive

Answers

The species with broad tolerances who is able to use a wide array of resources is a generalist. A generalist is a species that can survive in a variety of environmental conditions and has a broad dietary niche.

As a result, generalists can exploit a variety of ecological niches and have a wide range of food and habitat options. A generalist is a species that can survive in a variety of environmental conditions and has a broad dietary niche.

Generalists are often associated with changes in environmental conditions, such as after a fire or following the introduction of invasive species, and can rapidly occupy newly available resources.

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which action must take place before transcription can begin?

Answers

Before transcription can begin, a process known as DNA unwinding and unzipping must take place.

Transcription is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is copied into a complementary RNA molecule. However, before transcription can occur, the DNA double helix must undergo unwinding and unzipping.

During DNA unwinding, the hydrogen bonds between the complementary nucleotide bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine) are broken, causing the DNA double helix to separate into two strands. This separation exposes the DNA template strand, which serves as a template for RNA synthesis.

Once the DNA strands are unwound, the process of DNA unzipping occurs. Enzymes, such as helicase, help in separating the DNA strands by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs.

As a result, the DNA molecule is "unzipped" into two separate strands, with the template strand serving as a template for RNA synthesis.

After DNA unwinding and unzipping, the stage is set for transcription to begin. The RNA polymerase enzyme can then bind to the DNA template strand and initiate the synthesis of an RNA molecule using complementary RNA nucleotides.

Thus, DNA unwinding and unzipping are essential steps that precede the initiation of transcription.

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Amazon prime video is a subscription video on demand leetcode

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Ok great! No question though?

2. Which hypothesis was incorrect in Helmont's experiment? Plants get their mass from water Plants get their mass from air Plants get their mass from soil 3. Which of the following nutrients are absorbed by plants from nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. Starch, Glucose, and oxygen 4. How is phosphorus beneficial to humans? * Your answer 5. Define "transpiration" *

Answers

The hypothesis that was incorrect in Helmont's experiment was "Plants get their mass from soil."Helmont believed that plants get their mass from soil. He planted a willow tree in a pot, watered it for five years, then weighed the plant and the soil.

The plant was much heavier than it had been, but the soil had lost very little mass. This resulted in the conclusion that soil was not the source of the plant's mass. Plants get their mass from water and air. Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are the three macronutrients that plants absorb. Starch, glucose, and oxygen are not nutrients absorbed by plants.

Phosphorus is beneficial to humans in the following ways:It helps with the growth and repair of tissues and cells.It helps to keep bones and teeth healthy, as well as to make DNA.It helps to filter out waste from the kidneys and helps the body to store energy.5. Transpiration is the process by which plants release water vapor through the small pores, known as stomata, in their leaves. It is an important mechanism for plants to transport water from their roots to other parts of the plant. Transpiration helps to regulate the temperature of the plant and also helps to move minerals and other nutrients throughout the plant.

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In an experiment, a group of students set up four glass jars as shown in the diagram

below. Jar A, B and C were maintained at 25 for 7 days, while jar D was maintained at

0 for the same period.


a. What was this set-up supposed to investigate?

b. Why was pyrogallic acid included in glass jar A

c. Explain why glass jars C and D were included in the experiment?

d. What result would you expect in glass jars A and B at the end of the experiment?

e. State two artificial ways of breaking seed dormancy.

Answers

Examine the effect that temperature has on the germination of seeds. Pyrogallic acid ingests oxygen for anaerobic circumstances. Control bunches for typical and low-temperature germination conditions. Deferred germination in A, typical germination in B. Delineation and scarification break seed torpidity falsely.

How to explain why glass jars C and D were included in the experiment

a. This experimental setup was designed to investigate how temperature affects seed germination and growth.

b. Glass jar A contained pyrogallic acid to absorb any oxygen that was present and produce an anaerobic environment. This was finished to concentrate because of anaerobic circumstances on seed germination and development.

c. Glass jars C and D were incorporated to act as control gatherings. The normal germination conditions were represented by glass jar C, which was kept at 25°C, while glass jar D, which was kept at 0°C, represented a low-temperature condition so that the effect of cold temperature on seed germination could be observed.

d. In glass container A, which was kept up at 25°C but had an anaerobic climate, the absence of oxygen would probably hinder or postpone seed germination and development. The seeds should germinate and grow normally in glass jar B, which is kept at 25°C without any specific changes.

e. Seed dormancy can be artificially broken in two ways:

Stratification: This includes exposing the seeds to a time of cold temperature or chilling, which mimics winter conditions. This encourages germination and breaks the seed's dormancy.Scarification: The seed coat is physically altered to weaken its protective layer, allowing water to penetrate and germination to begin. Chemical scarification (using acids or other chemicals to soften or dissolve the seed coat) and mechanical scarification (such as scratching the seed coat) are examples of scarification methods.

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S
A student conducts an enzyme experiment revolving around changing the concentration of
sodium chloride, and its effects upon the rate of reaction when applied to the enzyme amylase
and starch in the presence of a pH Buffer of 7. The student obtains a data set based upon the
time taken for the disappearance of starch, associated with a sustained colouration of brown
when the mixture was added to a spotting tile containing I/KI (iodine in potassium iodide).
The student obtains the following results: it took 4 minutes and 32 seconds for the standard
solution of amylase containing 0.5% NaCl to breakdown the starch once the amylase was
added, 6 minutes and 24 seconds for the standard solution of amylase with 0.4% NaCl, whilst
the 0.3% NaCl and amylase mix took eight minutes and forty seconds to break the starch
down. 0.1% NaCl gave a result of eighteen minutes and 30 seconds, whilst the amylase
solution with 0.2% NaCl took 12 minutes and twenty seconds.
The student is informed that as the results reflect the use of the disappearance of substrate
and not the production of product, their results must be converted to 1/T (where T=time in
conds) for the rate of reaction.
a) Help the student by processing the data and producing a suitable table of results.
(6 marks)
b) From the results produce a suitable graph - in excel (or other suitable package) and
insert the graph here. (You may draw by hand the graph on suitable graph paper and
scan and insert as an alternative to the use of excel).
(6 marks)
c) Give a detailed biological explanation to account for the results obtained.
(8 marks)
(Total 20 Marks)

Answers

Answer:

To process the data and produce a suitable table of results, we need to convert the time values to 1/T, where T is the time in seconds. Here is a table representing the processed data:

b) To create a suitable graph, let's plot the NaCl concentration on the x-axis and the 1/Time on the y-axis. Here is a graph showing the relationship between NaCl concentration and the rate of reaction:

c) Detailed biological explanation to account for the results obtained: The results obtained suggest that the rate of reaction, as indicated by the disappearance of starch, is affected by the concentration of sodium chloride (NaCl). Amylase is an enzyme responsible for breaking down starch into smaller molecules. Sodium chloride, as a salt, can influence the activity of enzymes.

In this experiment, as the concentration of NaCl decreases, the time taken for starch breakdown increases. This implies that higher NaCl concentrations enhance the activity of amylase, leading to faster starch breakdown.

One possible explanation for this observation is that NaCl can stabilize the structure of amylase, thereby promoting its active conformation. At higher NaCl concentrations, the enzyme's active site may have a more optimal conformation, allowing for efficient binding of the starch substrate and faster enzymatic activity. As the NaCl concentration decreases, the enzyme's structure may become less stable, resulting in slower starch breakdown.

Another factor to consider is the effect of salt concentration on the overall osmotic environment. Changes in NaCl concentration can impact the water potential and osmotic balance, which in turn can influence the enzyme's activity. The precise mechanism behind this phenomenon would require further investigation and analysis.

Overall, the results indicate that sodium chloride concentration plays a role in modulating the rate of reaction catalyzed by amylase. Further experimentation and analysis could provide additional insights into the specific mechanisms involved in this process.

NaCl Concentration (%)Time (min:sec)Time (s)1/Time0.54:322720.00370.46:243840.00260.38:405200.00190.118:3011100.00090.212:207400.0014

Final answer:

To process the data and produce a suitable table of results, convert the time taken to break down the starch into 1/T values. Use the 1/T values to plot a graph of enzyme activity versus sodium chloride concentration. The rate of reaction is fastest at a sodium chloride concentration of 0.5% and decreases as the concentration decreases.

Explanation:

To process the data and produce a suitable table of results, convert the time taken to break down the starch into 1/T (where T=time in seconds). The table should include the different concentrations of sodium chloride and their corresponding 1/T values.

To create a graph, plot the concentration of sodium chloride on the x-axis and the 1/T values on the y-axis. Use Excel or another graphing package to plot the points and draw a smooth curve through them.

The results can be explained biologically by considering the effect of sodium chloride concentration on enzyme activity. The rate of reaction is fastest when the concentration of sodium chloride is 0.5% and decreases as the concentration decreases. This is because the presence of sodium chloride affects the shape and activity of the enzyme, making it less effective at lower concentrations.

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what are two functions of the part labeled 3?

Answers

The function of the part labeled 3 is processing language.

The labeled part is the Temporal Lobe.

Explanation:

D. controls breathing

The medulla oblongata helps control vital processes like your heart beat, breathing and blood pressure

what is the process of water moving from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration?

Answers

Explanation:

Osmosis is a passive transport process during which water moves from areas where solutes are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated.

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After many generations, an insect species evolved resistance to a particular pesticide. This occurred because spraying pesticides

Answers

Insects that are exposed to pesticides and survive can build up resistance to that pesticide over time. When these resistant insects mate, they pass on their genetic traits for resistance to their offspring, making the next generation more resistant to the pesticide.

The frequency of resistant individuals in the population increases each generation, and eventually, the majority of the population becomes resistant to the pesticide. This process is known as natural selection. It is important to note that not all insects will develop resistance to pesticides, and not all populations will become resistant. However, if an insecticide is used heavily and repeatedly, the likelihood of resistance developing increases. Resistance can also develop more quickly if the pesticide is not used correctly or if the insects are exposed to sub-lethal doses of the pesticide, allowing them to build up resistance without being killed.

In summary, spraying pesticides can cause natural selection to favor insects with genetic traits that make them resistant to the pesticide. Over time, the frequency of these resistant individuals in the population increases, and the population as a whole becomes more resistant.

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what are long whiplike extensions used to move the protists to the nutrients it needs?

Answers

Flagellum are long whip-like extensions used to move the protists to the nutrients needed.

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what were the main primary producers in ediacaran communities? a. corals b. plants c. worms d. microbial mats e. hydrothermal
Question: What Were The Main Primary Producers In Ediacaran Communities? A. Corals B. Plants C. Worms D. Microbial Mats E. Hydrothermal
What were the main primary producers in Ediacaran communities?
a. corals
b. plants
c. worms
d. microbial mats
e. hydrothermal vents
Where is life likely to have evolved?
a. on asteroids
b. in the upper atmosphere
c. at submarine hydrothermal vents
d. in volcanoes
e. in heavy metal deposits

Answers

Ediacaran communities were ancient ecosystems that are known for their unique organisms that lived around 541-635 million years ago.

The organisms of the Ediacaran were dominated by soft-bodied, non-bilateral organisms that were unlike any that are alive today. Their mode of feeding and metabolism is a mystery. Now, to answer the question about primary producers in the Ediacaran communities.

The main primary producers in Ediacaran communities were microbial mats. Answer: D. Microbial matsThe following are the options:A. CoralsB. PlantsC. WormsD. Microbial matsE. Hydrothermal ventsSo, the correct option is D. Microbial mats.

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Write a step-by-step procedure you could use to collect reliable data related to the new
question. Include enough detail so that someone else could conduct the same experiment and get similar results.

Answers

The step-by-step procedure you could use to collect reliable data related to the new question is given

How to explain the information

Define the question. What do you want to know? What are you trying to measure?

Identify the data sources and determine the data collection method. How will you collect the data?

Clean the data. Once you have collected the data, you will need to clean it to remove any errors or inconsistencies.

Analyze the data. This is where you will use statistical methods to answer your research question.

Interpret the results and report the results.

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Identify the input energy converter and two output energies involved in a student eats a hamburger

Answers

The input energy converter is Student's digestive system and the two output energies involved in a student eats a hamburger are mechanical energy, thermal energy.

In the context of a pupil ingesting a hamburger, allow perceive the enter energy converter and output energies concerned with this technique.

The enter power converter on this scenario might be the pupil's frame, in particular the digestive system. The act of eating includes the conversion of capability power within the food into chemical strength thru the technique of digestion. The digestive device breaks down the complicated molecules inside the hamburger into much less difficult paperwork that may be absorbed and utilized by the body.

As for the output energies, actually one in every of them is mechanical electricity. When the student chews and swallows the hamburger, the digestive device converts the chemical power received from the meals into mechanical power to help in propelling the meals thru the digestive tract.

Another output power is thermal electricity. During digestion, the chemical reactions that stand up to break down the meals launch warmth power. This thermal electricity contributes to preserving the student's body temperature and is eventually dissipated into the surroundings.

To summarize:

Input energy converter: Student's digestive system

Output energies:

Mechanical energy - worried with the method of chewing and propelling food via the digestive tract.

Thermal energy - is launched as a byproduct of the chemical reactions for the duration of digestion, contributing to body temperature upkeep.

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) Arrange the statements in order of events.
A) As the molecules increase in speed and the number of collision increase, the space between molecules increases.
B) As the volume of the air increase, the density of the air decreases.
C) Air molecules absorb insolation, become energized, and temperature increases.
D) By moving faster, air molecules collide more frequently and energetically.
E) as the temperature of the molecules increase, they move faster. '
F) The air molecules move up in altitude away from the earth's surface.
2)Arrange the statements in order of events
A) Only when temperatures fall below the dew point temperature can condensation begin.
B) at higher altitudes, the temperatures drop below dew point temperatures.
C) As warm moist air continues to move upward, the temperatures continues to decrease.
D) precipitation begin
E) condenstation continues and the size of the liquid water droplets within the cloud increases

Answers

1. The correct order of events for movement of air molecules the statements is as follows: E) → D) → A) → C) → B) → F).

2. The correct order of events for condensation and precipitation the statements is as follows: C) → B) → A) → E) → D).

1. The correct order of events for the statements is as follows:

The initial step where the air molecules gain energy from the absorbed insolation, leading to an increase in temperature. The relationship between temperature and molecular motion, indicating that higher temperature results in faster molecular movement. The increased speed of the molecules leads to more frequent and energetic collisions between them. Due to the increased speed and collisions, the molecules spread out, creating more space between them. Increased energy and collisions, the air molecules move upwards in the atmosphere, away from the surface of the Earth. The relationship between volume and density, stating that when the volume of air expands due to increased molecular movement, the density decreases, correct order is E) → D) → A) → C) → B) → F).

2. The correct order of events for the statements is as follows:

The process of warm moist air rising and encountering cooler temperatures as it ascends. The air rises to higher altitudes, it encounters temperatures that fall below the dew point temperature, which is necessary for condensation to occur. The requirement for temperatures to reach the dew point temperature before condensation can take place. After the initial condensation begins, the process continues, resulting in the growth of liquid water droplets within the cloud. Once the liquid water droplets within the cloud reach a sufficient size, gravity causes them to fall from the cloud as precipitation, such as rain, snow, or hail, correct order is C) → B) → A) → E) → D).

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The correct question is:

1. Arrange the statements in order of events for movement of air molecules:

A) As the molecules increase in speed and the number of collision increase, the space between molecules increases.

B) As the volume of the air increase, the density of the air decreases.

C) Air molecules absorb insolation, become energized, and temperature increases.

D) By moving faster, air molecules collide more frequently and energetically.

E) as the temperature of the molecules increase, they move faster. '

F) The air molecules move up in altitude away from the earth's surface.

2. Arrange the statements in order of events for condensation and precipitation:

A) Only when temperatures fall below the dew point temperature can condensation begin.

B) at higher altitudes, the temperatures drop below dew point temperatures.

C) As warm moist air continues to move upward, the temperatures continues to decrease.

D) precipitation begin

E) condenstation continues and the size of the liquid water droplets within the cloud increases

In an experiment about enzyme and catalyst. If you grind the radish, you will get what?

Answers

Try this class experiment to detect the presence of enzymes as they catalyse the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide

Enzymes are biological catalysts which increase the speed of a chemical reaction. They are large protein molecules and are very specific to certain reactions. Hydrogen peroxide decomposes slowly in light to produce oxygen and water. The enzyme catalase can speed up (catalyse) this reaction.

In this practical, students investigate the presence of enzymes in liver, potato and celery by detecting the oxygen gas produced when hydrogen peroxide decomposes. The experiment should take no more than 20–30 minutes.

Equipment

Apparatus

Eye protection

Conical flasks, 100 cm3, x3

Measuring cylinder, 25 cm3

Bunsen burner

Wooden splint

A bucket or bin for disposal of waste materials

Chemicals

Hydrogen peroxide solution, ‘5 volume’

Small pieces of the following (see note 4):

Liver

Potato

Celery

Health, safety and technical notes

Read our standard health and safety guidance.

Wear eye protection throughout. Students must be instructed NOT to taste or eat any of the foods used in the experiment.

Hydrogen peroxide solution, H2O2(aq) – see CLEAPSS Hazcard HC050 and CLEAPSS Recipe Book RB045. Hydrogen peroxide solution of ‘5 volume’ concentration is low hazard, but it will probably need to be prepared by dilution of a more concentrated solution which may be hazardous.

Only small samples of liver, potato and celery are required. These should be prepared for the lesson ready to be used by students. A disposal bin or bucket for used samples should be provided to avoid these being put down the sink.

Procedure

Measure 25 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide solution into each of three conical flasks.

At the same time, add a small piece of liver to the first flask, a small piece of potato to the second flask, and a small piece of celery to the third flask.

Hold a glowing splint in the neck of each flask.

Note the time taken before each glowing splint is relit by the evolved oxygen.

Dispose of all mixtures into the bucket or bin provided.

Teaching notes

Some vegetarian students may wish to opt out of handling liver samples, and this should be respected.

Before or after the experiment, the term enzyme will need to be introduced. The term may have been met previously in biological topics, but the notion that they act as catalysts and increase the rate of reactions may be new. Similarly their nature as large protein molecules whose catalytic activity can be very specific to certain chemical reactions may be unfamiliar. The name catalase for the enzyme present in all these foodstuffs can be introduced.

To show the similarity between enzymes and chemical catalysts, the teacher may wish to demonstrate (or ask the class to perform as part of the class experiment) the catalytic decomposition of hydrogen peroxide solution by manganese(IV) oxide (HARMFUL – see CLEAPSS Hazcard HC060).

If students have not performed the glowing splint test for oxygen for some time, they may need reminding of how to do so by a quick demonstration by the teacher.

Additional information

This is a resource from the Practical Chemistry project, developed by the Nuffield Foundation and the Royal Society of Chemistry. This collection of over 200 practical activities demonstrates a wide range of chemical concepts and processes. Each activity contains comprehensive information for teachers and technicians, including full technical notes and step-by-step procedures. Practical Chemistry activities accompany Practical Physics and Practical Biology.

Hypothesis: If the type of the food available changes, then the frequency of beak types will change, because birds with beaks more suited to the available food will be more successful over time. Was your conclusion that the frequency of the beak types will change? Was your reason that natural selection favors organisms better adapted to the environment they live in?

Answers

Based on the provided hypothesis, the conclusion would indeed be that the frequency of beak types will change. The reason for this conclusion is that natural selection favors organisms that are better adapted to their environment.

In this case, birds with beaks that are more suited to the available food will have a higher likelihood of success, leading to an increase in their frequency over time.

It is important to note that conclusions and reasons in scientific hypotheses are based on logical deductions and supported by empirical evidence. The provided hypothesis suggests that a change in the type of available food will drive a change in the frequency of beak types among birds, and this change is attributed to natural selection favoring individuals with more suitable beak adaptations. However, to fully confirm the hypothesis and draw definitive conclusions, empirical research and data analysis would be necessary to observe and measure the actual changes in beak types and their correlation with food availability in bird populations over time.

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a)Wetlands provide importants ecological goods and play critical ecological services.Discuss.
b) Elaborate on the classification of wetlands .
List 5 wetland systems.
C)As an official of NADMO ,outline an advocacy message for a prospective estate developer intent on a Wetland development (Hint: focus on recent flooding events in the capital).

Answers

Wetlands provide important ecological goods and play critical ecological services. Wetlands are critical ecological systems that provide various ecological benefits and perform crucial ecological services. They act as natural filters and purify the water that flows through them.

Wetlands play an important role in controlling the water level and reducing soil erosion by trapping sediments. Wetlands also act as breeding grounds for many fish species, amphibians, and birds. Wetlands are important habitats for migratory birds. Wetlands provide important ecological goods and play critical ecological services. Wetlands help in maintaining the biodiversity of an area, as they act as a home for many plant and animal species. Wetlands are natural storage systems that store water and recharge groundwater. Wetlands also provide natural resources, such as timber, fuelwood, and non-timber forest products, which are critical to the livelihoods of local communities. Wetlands are important recreational areas where people can engage in activities like fishing, bird-watching, and hiking. b) Elaboration: Wetlands can be classified into two main categories: coastal and inland wetlands. Inland wetlands can be further classified into three types: marshes, swamps, and bogs. Marshes are wetlands that are covered with grasses, while swamps are wetlands that are covered with trees. Bogs are wetlands that are characterized by a high concentration of peat, which is formed by the accumulation of dead plant material. There are five main wetland systems, which include the following: Rivers and lakes Wetlands associated with rivers and lakes are often located on the floodplains and provide important habitat for many aquatic species.

Bogs Bogs are wetlands that are characterized by a high concentration of peat, which is formed by the accumulation of dead plant material. Marshes Marshes are wetlands that are covered with grasses, and they are often located in areas with a high water table. Swamps Swamps are wetlands that are covered with trees, and they are often located in areas with a high water table. Estuaries Estuaries are wetlands that are located where freshwater meets saltwater. They are important breeding grounds for many marine species. C) Advocacy message: As an official of NADMO, my advocacy message for a prospective estate developer intent on a wetland development is to urge them to reconsider their development plans due to the recent flooding events in the capital. The recent flooding events have been attributed to the destruction of wetlands and the indiscriminate development of floodplains. Wetlands play a critical role in controlling the water level and reducing soil erosion by trapping sediments. Wetlands are also important habitats for many plant and animal species. Wetlands provide natural resources that are critical to the livelihoods of local communities. By developing wetlands, we risk destroying these crucial ecosystems and exposing communities to the risks of flooding and soil erosion. Therefore, I urge the prospective estate developer to reconsider their plans and to consider developing alternative sites that do not compromise the ecological integrity of wetlands.

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Please explain the formula in a detailed manner!!!
1.2 Explain both processes of double strand DNA breaking by irradiation according to molecular theory. Write the formula to calculate the DSB rate.

Answers

When double-strand DNA (dsDNA) breaks down under the influence of ionizing radiation, two mechanisms are commonly used: direct and indirect ionization. These approaches are consistent with molecular theory.

Direct ionization of the dsDNA sugar-phosphate backbone and base results in DNA damage by direct interaction of ionizing radiation with the DNA molecule. Single-strand DNA breaks (SSBs) and DSBs can occur as a result of direct ionization. On the other hand, indirect ionization causes the creation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and other radicals through the interaction of ionizing radiation with water molecules. ROS and other radicals react with the dsDNA sugar-phosphate backbone and base, causing DNA damage, including SSBs and DSBs as a result of this process.

ROS have a greater impact on dsDNA than direct ionization since ROS can cause various lesions in DNA, such as base damage, sugar damage, and base-sugar crosslinks. Direct ionization of DNA may cause SSBs, which can be repaired without significant cellular consequences, but DSBs are the most significant form of DNA damage that has the potential to induce cell death or cancer.The formula for calculating DSB rate is given below .

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cellular respiration
summary

Answers

Answer:

Cellular Respiration is a process in which the cell turns glucose into ATP ( adenosine triphosaphate ) which is the cells energy. ATP is when 3 phosphate groups break apart creating glucose and energy. There are two types of respiration ; Aerobic Respiration and Anaerobic Respiration. Aerobic Respiration requires oxygen and Anerobic doesn’t. Anaerobic Respiration creates a small amount of the cell’s energy and Aerobic Respiration creates most of the energy used to function.
         The first step of Cellular Respiration, regardless of whether it is aerobic on anaerobic, is when the glucose breaks down into a smaller molecule called pyruvate. Pyruvate consists 3 carbon atoms, 3 hydogen atoms, and 3 oxygen atoms. Glucose consists of 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms, 6 oxygen atoms. 1 glucose can make 2 pyruvate.
         If oxygen is not present after pyruvate is created, the molecule undergoes the first step of anaerobic respiration, which is fermentation. Fermentation is when pyruvate goes though a specific process and creates a small amount of ATP and a byproduct. The byproduct for animals is Lactic acid. The byproduct for bacteria and yeast is ethanol. This is Anaerobic Respiration.

         If oxygen is present after pyruvate is created, it enters Aerobic Respirations. Pyruvate is transported to the matrix of the mitochondria, where it starts the Krebs Cycle also known as the ‘Citric Acid Cycle’. The Krebs Cycle was founded by Hans Krebs, a biologist, physician, and biochemist in 1937. The Krebs cycle turns pyruvate into high energy electrons.  These electron are then diffused throughout the mitochondria. Diffusion is when some goes from a higher concentration to a lower concentration. The process of diffusion of these electrons is called Chemiosmosis. Then those electrons are transported, by electron carriers to the ETC is the electron transport chain.  The ETC transports these electron to the last step of Aerobic Respiration which is ATP Synthase. ATP synthase is basically like a gate. The electrons travel through the gate, and they start to turn like a waterwheel. By rotating they create ATP, which is the whole reason Cellular Respiration takes place. Then the leftover oxygen and electrons are attracted to each other and they combine. They go though a cochair made of proteins. This chaos exists to transports these molecules. The proteins suck the energy from the molecules and then release hydrogen and carbon. Now the oxygen and hydrogen and carbon create water. The whole process of diffusion, chemiosmosis, ETC, ATP Synthase and the creation of water is called Oxidative Phosphorylation.
         This is Cellular Respiration.

Explanation:

what is it called when vesicles are used to move substances out of the cell?

Answers

Answer:

The process of using vesicles to move substances out of the cell is called exocytosis. During exocytosis, vesicles are engulfed by the plasma membrane and then fuse with it, releasing their contents outside the cell. This process is important for the removal of waste products from the cell. It can also be used to release hormones and neurotransmitters

Explanation:

The answer is a Exocytosis

Question 6 of 10
During transcription, RNA polymerase encounters the sequence of DNA
bases shown below.
AGC GCT
Which sequence of bases would result in the strand of mRNA? -
A. UCG CGU
OB. AGC GCT
OC. UCG CGA
OD. TCG CGA
4

Answers

Answer: a

Explanation:

a because u are coding mrna

The map shows the allele frequency of sickled hemoglobin (HbS) and malaria endemicity in Africa.




Which statement best explains the relationship between HbS allele frequency and malaria endemicity in Africa?
When an area is malaria free, the HbS allele frequency is between 0 and 4.04.
When an area is holoendemic, the HbS allele frequency is between 0.52 and 4.04.
When an area is malaria free, the HbS allele frequency is between 12.64 and 18.18.
When an area is holoendemic, the HbS allele frequency is between 0 and 0.51.

Answers

The relationship between sickled hemoglobin (HbS) allele frequency and malaria endemicity in Africa can be best explained by the statement: When an area is holoendemic, the HbS allele frequency is between 0.52 and 4.04.

Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. The HbS allele is responsible for the production of abnormal hemoglobin, leading to the characteristic sickling of red blood cells. However, individuals who carry one copy of the HbS allele exhibit increased resistance to malaria, a mosquito-borne infectious disease prevalent in Africa.

The map showing the allele frequency of HbS and malaria endemicity in Africa reveals an interesting pattern. In areas where malaria is holoendemic (high prevalence), the HbS allele frequency ranges from 0.52 to 4.04. This indicates that a moderate presence of the HbS allele is associated with a higher prevalence of malaria. It suggests that individuals carrying one copy of the HbS allele have a survival advantage in regions with intense malaria transmission.

Conversely, in areas that are malaria-free, the HbS allele frequency is relatively low, ranging from 0 to 4.04. This suggests that the HbS allele is not favored in regions without the selective pressure of malaria. In malaria-free areas, individuals without the HbS allele do not experience the detrimental effects associated with sickle cell disease, and therefore, the allele frequency remains low.

In summary, the statement "When an area is holoendemic, the HbS allele frequency is between 0.52 and 4.04" best explains the relationship between HbS allele frequency and malaria endemicity in Africa. This suggests that the presence of the HbS allele is positively correlated with the prevalence of malaria, indicating a selective advantage against the disease in holoendemic areas.

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do not write gibberish answer all questions properly for sheep eye dissection asap for grade 10

Question 1
Sketch a labeled sheep eye diagram of the eye. Upload your diagram.
Question 2
a) what is one difference you notice between a sheep's eye and a human eye

b) what does the differences you mentioned in part "a" suggest about a sheep's vision compared to a humans?
question 3
Explain how the flexible part of the eye works to change the ability of the eye to focus.
question 4: Describe how various parts of the eye function together to make an image appear on the retina
question 5: What is the function of the

a) sclera

b) cornea

c) optic nerve

d) lens

e) iris

f) pupil

6.The human eye has six externally attached muscles instead of only four like the sheep's. Predict how a humans eye might move differently that a sheep's eye/
7.If you enter a very bright room after being in the dark, what would happen to your pupils? If you are not sure try it.
8.Why does the optic nerve cause a blind spot?
9.why does the retina have to be smooth? Why not wrinkled? (Think about projecting a movie onto a flat screen or one that is wrinkled.)

Answers

Explanation:

Question 2:

a) One difference between a sheep's eye and a human eye is the shape of the pupil. In sheep, the pupil is horizontal and elongated, resembling a horizontal oval shape, while in humans, the pupil is round.

b) The difference in the shape of the pupil suggests that sheep have a wider field of vision horizontally compared to humans. Sheep may have better peripheral vision, particularly in detecting movements from the sides.

Question 3:

The flexible part of the eye that changes the ability to focus is the lens. The lens adjusts its shape through a process called accommodation, which is controlled by the ciliary muscles. When the ciliary muscles contract, the lens becomes thicker, allowing the eye to focus on nearby objects. When the ciliary muscles relax, the lens becomes thinner, enabling the eye to focus on distant objects.

Question 4:

Various parts of the eye function together to form an image on the retina. The cornea and lens refract incoming light, focusing it onto the retina. The retina contains photoreceptor cells called rods and cones, which convert light into electrical signals. These signals are then transmitted through the optic nerve to the brain, where they are interpreted as visual images.

Question 5:

a) The sclera is the tough, white outer covering of the eye. Its main function is to provide structural support and protection to the eye.

b) The cornea is the transparent, curved outermost layer of the eye. It refracts and focuses light entering the eye.

c) The optic nerve carries the electrical signals from the retina to the brain, allowing for visual information to be processed.

d) The lens, as mentioned earlier, helps to focus light onto the retina by adjusting its shape.

e) The iris is the colored part of the eye. It controls the size of the pupil and regulates the amount of light entering the eye.

f) The pupil is the opening at the center of the iris. It adjusts in size to control the amount of light entering the eye.

Question 6:

With the presence of six externally attached muscles, the human eye has more flexibility and range of movement compared to a sheep's eye. Humans can move their eyes in various directions, including side to side, up and down, and diagonally, allowing for greater visual exploration and scanning of the environment.

Question 7:

When you enter a very bright room after being in the dark, your pupils will automatically constrict or become smaller. This is a reflex response to the increased intensity of light, which helps to regulate the amount of light entering the eye and prevent overexposure.

Question 8:

The optic nerve causes a blind spot because it is the point where all the nerve fibers from the retina converge and exit the eye. At this location, there are no photoreceptor cells (rods or cones), resulting in a lack of visual perception in that specific area of the visual field.

Question 9:

The retina needs to be smooth to ensure the accurate and precise focusing of light onto the photoreceptor cells (rods and cones). If the retina were wrinkled or irregular, it would cause distortion and blur in the projected image, similar to projecting a movie onto a wrinkled screen. The smooth surface of the retina allows for proper reception and transmission of light signals to the brain, resulting in clear and accurate visual perception.

The questions on sheep eye dissection is answered as follows:

2a) One noticeable difference between a sheep's eye and a human eye is the shape of the pupil. In a sheep's eye, the pupil is rectangular or horizontally elongated, whereas in a human eye, the pupil is typically round.

2b) The difference in pupil shape suggests that a sheep's vision may be adapted for different lighting conditions than a human's.

3) The flexible part of the eye, known as the lens, changes its shape through a process called accommodation.

4) Various parts of the eye work together to form images on the retina. The cornea and lens refract incoming light to focus it onto the retina, forming an inverted image.

5) a) Sclera: The white, tough outer layer of the eye that provides protection and maintains the shape of the eye.

b) Cornea: The transparent front part of the eye that helps refract light onto the lens.

c) Optic Nerve: Transmits visual information from the retina to the brain.

d) Lens: Focuses light onto the retina by changing shape.

e) Iris: Controls the size of the pupil and the amount of light entering the eye.

f) Pupil: The small, adjustable opening in the center of the iris that regulates the amount of light entering the eye.

6) Humans have six externally attached eye muscles, allowing for a wider range of eye movements, including more precise control over gaze direction, tracking moving objects, and focusing on near and distant points.

7) When entering a very bright room, the pupils in your eyes will constrict or become smaller.

8) The optic nerve causes a blind spot because it is the point where all the retinal nerve fibers converge and exit the eye.

9) The retina must be smooth to ensure the accurate projection of images onto its surface. Wrinkles or irregularities in the retina would distort the image.

The detailed explanation is as follows:

2a) One noticeable difference between a sheep's eye and a human eye is the shape and orientation of the pupil. In a sheep's eye, the pupil is horizontal and rectangular, whereas in a human eye, the pupil is round and oriented vertically.

2b) The difference in pupil shape and orientation suggests that a sheep's vision is adapted to different lighting conditions compared to humans. The rectangular pupil allows for a wider horizontal field of view, which is advantageous for grazing animals like sheep to detect predators from various angles.

3) The flexible part of the eye, known as the lens, changes its shape through a process called accommodation. Tiny ciliary muscles surrounding the lens contract or relax, altering the curvature of the lens. When the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes flatter, allowing it to focus on distant objects.

4) Various parts of the eye work together to create an image on the retina. The cornea and lens bend incoming light rays, forming a focused image on the retina at the back of the eye. The retina contains light-sensitive cells called photoreceptors (rods and cones) that convert the incoming light into electrical signals.

5) Functions of various eye parts:

a) Sclera: The sclera is the tough, white, outer layer of the eye that provides structural support and protection.

b) Cornea: The cornea is the clear, front surface of the eye that helps focus incoming light.

c) Optic Nerve: The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina to the brain.

d) Lens: The lens focuses light onto the retina by changing shape.

e) Iris: The iris controls the size of the pupil, regulating the amount of light entering the eye.

f) Pupil: The pupil is the black, central opening in the iris that allows light to enter the eye.

6) Humans have six extraocular muscles that attach to the eye, allowing for more precise and versatile eye movements compared to sheep. Humans can perform complex movements like rolling their eyes or tracking moving objects with greater agility.

7) When you enter a bright room after being in the dark, your pupils will constrict or become smaller. This is a natural response to excessive light to limit the amount of light entering the eye and protect the retina from overexposure to bright light.

8) The optic nerve causes a blind spot because it is the point where all the nerve fibers from the retina converge and exit the eye. This region lacks photoreceptors, making it unable to detect light. However, our brains fill in this gap in our visual field, so we don't usually perceive it consciously.

9) The retina must be smooth to accurately capture and transmit visual information to the brain. Any wrinkles or irregularities in the retina would distort the incoming light and create visual aberrations. Smooth retinas ensure that the image projected onto them is sharp and clear, allowing for accurate visual perception, much like a smooth movie screen is essential for clear and undistorted projections.

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Do most mammals have adaptations for internal fertilization and internal development of the fetus or internal fertilization and external development of the fetus?

Answers

Answer:

internally

Explanation:

In mammals, fertilization takes place internally in the protected environment of the ampulla of the oviduct, as opposed to external fertilization where sperm and egg meet outside the parent's body (e.g., as in fish, reptiles, amphibians and invertebrates).

In eukaryotes, what must bind to a promoter in order for a gene to be turned on?
• A. Enhancers
• B. Transcription factors
• C. The start codon
• D. A repressor gene
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

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