Answer: FR901228
Explanation:
(I don't know if this will help, as I don't know what the original options were.) One example of a novel histone deacetylase inhibitor (HDACi) is FR901228.
The trichostatin A structural analogue Suberoylanilide hydroxamic acid (SAHA) has shown promise in cancer therapy. It was the first approved HDAC inhibitor for clinical treatment by the FDA
What is inhibitor?
Substances known as inhibitors lower the frequency of chemical reactions like corrosion. They might be talking about corrosion inhibitors, which help extend the life of materials by reducing corrosion progression rates.
Another name for an inhibitor is a corrosion inhibitor or a rust inhibitor.
Treatment for inhibitors can be expensive and complicated, and each case is unique. Inhibitors can appear and vanish in response to therapy, and occasionally they can vanish on their own (known as "transient inhibitors"). The presence of inhibitors can be decreased through the use of therapies such immune tolerance induction (ITI) therapy, bypassing drugs, and high-dose clotting factor concentrates. Treatment for inhibitors can be expensive and complicated, and each case is unique. Inhibitors can appear and vanish in response to therapy, and occasionally they can vanish on their own (known as "transient inhibitors").
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the supervisor is performing a chart review. the nurse can be held legally liable for which documentation?
Answer: Any and all documentation that is listed under the nurses name
a patient is hospitalized with possible syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (siadh). the patient is confused and reports a headache, muscle cramps, and twitching. the nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include:
The nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include decreased serum sodium.
Why decrease in serum sodium takes place in SIADH patient?When water is retained, serum sodium falls below normal, causing the clinical symptoms described by the patient. Haematocrit decreases due to dilution due to water retention. Urine is more concentrated and has a higher specific gravity. Serum chloride concentrations usually decrease with sodium levels.
urine has a lot of waste products and not a lot of water. Because your body doesn't excrete the normal amount of water in your urine, you have too much water in your blood. It dilutes many substances in your blood, such as sodium (salt).
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Which of the following is not a function of fat in the human body?
1) cushions the internal organs from physical shock
2) carries the water-soluble nutrients
3) protects the body from extreme cold temperatures
4) provides the major material from which cell membranes are made
Answer:
2) Carries the water soluble nutrients
Explanation:
Water soluble nutrients can't dissolve in fat so they cannot be carried by fat in the human body
the nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock in an critical care unit and the family is asking about the intra-aortic balloon pump (iabp). what will the nurse explain is the premise of using iabp?
The premise of using Iabp is to reduce the workload of the heart during the shock period.
The IABP decreases the workload of the heart by reducing left ventricular afterload. Additionally, it improves coronary artery blood flow by increasing coronary artery perfusion pressure.
The IABP does not perform the work of the heart. The IABP does not directly circulate oxygen or keep the kidneys working.
To provide the heart with oxygen, blood flows into coronary arteries. Your coronary arteries can receive blood more freely thanks to an IABP. Each time your heart contracts, it helps the heart pump more blood.
Severe peripheral vascular disease, aortic regurgitation, dissecting, or aneurysm are all contraindications to IABP. IABP's potential advantages and drawbacks must be examined carefully.
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a nurse is auscultating the fetal heart rate of a woman in labor. to ensure that the nurse is assessing the fhr and not the mother's heart rate, which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to do?
The nurse's best course of action would be to simultaneously palpate the mother's radial pulse.
The greatest technique for auscultation would be to palpate the radial pulse rate since it allows you to sporadically hear the fetal heartbeat. With electronic fetal monitoring, devices are utilized to continually record the fetus' heartbeat and the woman's uterus' contractions throughout delivery.
Either wrist can be used to take the radial pulse. Feel the pulse throughout the radial artery between the wrist bone & the tendon just on the thumb side of your wrist with the tips of your other hand's index and third fingers. Just enough pressure should be applied so you can feel each heartbeat.
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a client with hypertension has been able to maintain a blood pressure of 130/70 mm hg for 1 year while reducing dietary sodium and taking hydrochlorothiazide (hctz) and atenolol. what treatment plan will the nurse educate the client about?
To treat high blood pressure, atenolol is used alone or in combination with other medications (such as hydrochlorothiazide).
what are the use of atenolol ?To treat high blood pressure, atenolol is used alone or in combination with other medications (such as hydrochlorothiazide). High blood pressure makes the heart and arteries work harder. If it persists for an extended period of time, the heart and arteries may cease to function properly.
This can cause damage to the blood vessels in the brain, heart, and kidneys, leading to a stroke, heart failure, or kidney failure. High blood pressure may also increase the likelihood of having a heart attack. Controlling blood pressure may make these issues less likely.Atenolol is also used to reduce the severity of heart attacks and to help prevent chest pain.
This medication is classified as a beta-blocker. It works by influencing the response to nerve impulses in specific areas of the body, such as the heart. As a result, the heart beats slower and the blood pressure drops. When blood pressure is reduced, the amount of blood and oxygen delivered to the heart increases. This medication is only available with a doctor's prescription.
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one way to check the validity of qualitative research findings is to employ the technique of methods triangulation, or using two different methods to address the same research question
a. true
b. false
It is true that one way to check the validity of qualitative research findings is to employ the technique of methods triangulation, or using two different methods to address the same research question.
Qualitative research are often outlined because the study of the character of phenomena and is very acceptable for respondent queries of why one thing is (not) discovered, assessing advanced multi-component interventions, and absorption on intervention improvement.
Triangulation is a technique to research results of constant study victimization totally different strategies of knowledge assortment. it's used for 3 main purposes: to boost validity, to form a additional in-depth image of an exploration drawback, and to interrogate alternative ways of understanding an exploration drawback.
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the clinic nurse is providing instructions to a client with diabetes mellitus about the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. the nurse should tell the client that which would be noted in a hypoglycemic reaction?
According to the research, the correct answer is that anxiety, headache, sweating and loss of consciousness should be noted in a hypoglycemic reaction. The nurse should provide this information to a client with diabetes mellitus as the signs of hypoglycemia.
What is diabetes mellitus?It refers to a chronic condition characterized by the presence of elevated blood glucose concentrations due to impaired insulin action.
In this sense, a hypoglycemic reaction occurs when there is a sudden decrease in blood glucose levels, depending on the mechanism that produces them, the following signs are manifested:
Anxiety, muscle weakness, heavy sweating due to adrenaline rush.Headache, slurred speech, loss of consciousness due to glucose deficiency in the central nervous system.Therefore, we can conclude that the signs of hypoglycemia appear due to different symptoms such as anxiety, headache, sweating.
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a woman is only 30 weeks pregnant, but the physician determines that the fetus must be delivered for the safety of the mother. the physician orders a glucocorticosteroid injection to be given. why does the physician order this injection?
The physician order this injection to promote the formation of surfactant in the foetal lungs.
What is glucocorticoid steroid?Glucocorticoids are a class of corticosteroids, which are a class of steroid hormones. Glucocorticoids are corticosteroids that bind to the glucocorticoid receptor, which is present in almost all vertebrate animal cells.
Glucocorticoids are cholesterol-derived steroid hormones synthesized and secreted by the adrenal glands. They are anti-inflammatory in all tissues and regulate metabolism in muscles, fat, liver and bones. Glucocorticoids also affect vascular tone and mood, behaviour and sleep-wake cycles in the brain.
Glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis in the liver, while in skeletal muscle and white adipose tissue they reduce glucose absorption and utilization by opposing the insulin response.
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a client is seen in the primary health care provider's office for complaints of wrist pain. a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome is made. in explaining this disorder to the client, the nurse states that it is caused by compression of which nerve?
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed.
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) occurs when the median nerve, which runs from the forearm into the palm of the hand, is pinched or compressed at the wrist.
The carpal tunnel, a small, stiff passageway made of ligament and bones at the base of the hand, houses the median nerve and the tendons that bend the fingers. The median nerve senses the index, middle, and part of the ring fingers, as well as the palm side of the thumb (although not the little finger).
Due to edema or thickening caused by inflamed tendon lining, the tunnel can occasionally become smaller and the median nerve can become compressed. As a result, the hand and wrist may become numb, weak, or even painful (some people may feel pain in the forearm and arm).
CTS is the most common and well-known type of entrapment neuropathy, in which a peripheral nerve of the body is pushed against or crushed.
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which client would the nurse recognize as having the greatest risk for complications during the intraoperative or postoperative period?
The 35-year-old client with non-insulin dependent diabetes the nurse recognizes as having the greatest risk for complications during the intraoperative or postoperative period.
A diabetic patient is more likely to experience difficulties during or after surgery. Hypoglycemia can occur during anesthesia, as a result of insufficient carbohydrate consumption, or as a result of using too much insulin after surgery. Infection risks and the rate of wound healing can both be accelerated by hyperglycemia. Smokers are urged to give up between four and eight weeks before surgery. Anesthesia side effects might be made more likely by recent illicit drug usage. Healthy elderly people are not more at danger.
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a nurse has admitted a client suspected of having acute pancreatitis. the nurse knows that mild acute pancreatitis is characterized by:
The nurse knows that mild acute pancreatitis is characterized by edema and inflammation. The correct option is B.
What is pancreatitis?Acute pancreatitis is a condition in which the pancreas becomes inflamed (swollen) quickly. The pancreas is a comparatively small organ behind the stomach that aids digestion.
Most people with acute pancreatitis recover within a week and have no further complications.
The most common causes are alcoholism and solid lumps (gallstones) in the gallbladder. The treatment goal is to rest the pancreas and allow it to heal.
The nurse is aware that edema and inflammation are symptoms of mild acute pancreatitis.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A. Pleural effusion
B. Edema and inflammation
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
D. Sepsis
the nurse is teaching a client who was admitted to the hospital with acute hepatic encephalopathy and ascites about an appropriate diet. the nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the client chooses which food choice from the menu?
When a client picks pancakes with butter, honey, and orange juice, the nurse knows the lesson was successful.
An illness of the neurological system called hepatic encephalopathy is brought on by severe liver disease. Inefficient liver function causes poisons to accumulate in the blood. These poisons can reach the brain and have an impact on cognitive function. Hepatic encephalopathy patients can appear bewildered.
Fluid builds up in your abdomen's cavities when you have ascites. Your lungs, kidneys, and other organs may be impacted as a result of fluid buildup in the abdomen. Abdominal discomfort, swelling, nausea, vomiting, and other problems are brought on by ascites.
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the nurse is caring for a critically ill client who informs the nurse that there is a conflict between the client's spiritual beliefs and a proposed health option. which question does the nurse ask to begin a conversation about the conflict that the client is experiencing?
The nurse needs to ask a question like "Would you like to talk to someone to help you make a conscious decision?" to begin a conversation about the conflict that the client is experiencing between the client's spiritual beliefs and a proposed health option.
How do you apply some nursing process?
Nursing, as a profession is very important to deliver quality care and rising safety for patients. The nurse has got to assess, diagnose, plan, implement findings, and analysis is finished to confirm the specified outcome has been met.
Asking a patient if he/she would be willing to possess a oral communication with somebody that may facilitate reach a choice, would reveal the subsequently to the nurse:
How the current scenario interferes with the patient's religious or spiritual beliefs. How the patient sees the proposed option with his/her spiritual belief. Knowing what the patient thinks of the disadvantages of the proposed health option according to his/her spiritual beliefs, would give the nurse insights on how to handle the situation professionally.In summary, the nurse must raise a matter like "would you prefer to speak to somebody to assist you evaluate on the best option?" Therefore on assist the patient is getting enough information to reach a conclusion.
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appendicitis and poisoning are examples of:
Appendicitis and poisoning are examples of non-communicable diseases.
Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), also known as chronic diseases, are caused by a combination of genetic, physiological, environmental, and behavioral factors and typically last a long time.
In the lower right side of the belly, the appendix is a small organ that is connected to the large intestine. Appendicitis is the name given to it when it gets infected.
When various drugs, chemicals, venoms, or gases are swallowed, inhaled, touched, or injected, they can cause injury or death. Drugs and carbon monoxide, for example, are among the many substances that are poisonous only at higher concentrations or dosages. Thus, Appendicitis and poisoning are not contagious.
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what technique could be used to determine the amount of calories a person expends each day? multiple select question. estimate of food intake from the various food groups direct calorimetry indirect calorimetry equations taking into account height, weight, physical activity, and age
Techniques used to determine the amount of calories a person expends each day are direct calorimetry, indirect calorimetry, equations taking into account height, weight, physical activity, and age.
Direct calorimetry obtains an on the spot measuring of the number of warmth generated by the body inside a structure massive enough to allow moderate amounts of activity. These structures are known as whole-room calorimeters. Direct calorimetry provides a live of energy gone within the variety of heat. This is often a awfully correct methodology of measurement energy expenditure.
Indirect calorimetry calculates heat that living organisms turn out by measurement either their production of CO2 and element waste, or from their consumption of element.
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lifting free weights at 90% of your maximum but only a few repetitions at a time, is an example of ... muscular strength training. muscular endurance training. muscular flexibility training. mighty muscular muscles
Lifting free weights at 90% of maximum but only a few reps at a time is an example of muscular strength training.
What does strength training mean and its example?Strength or resistance training includes physical exercise aimed at improving strength and endurance. Often associated with lifting weights. It can also include various training techniques such as bodyweight exercises, isometrics and plyometrics.Strength training can improve your quality of life and improve your ability to perform daily activities. It can also protect joints from injury. Building muscle can also help improve balance and reduce the risk of falls, which can help you stay independent as you age.Examples of strength-building activities are: lift weights, Working with resistance bands, Heavy gardening such as digging and shoveling, climb the stairs, hill walking, go cycling, dance, Push-ups, sit ups, squats.What are the 4 types of muscles training?Research shows that it's important to do all four types of exercise: Endurance, strength, balance and flexibility. Each has different advantages. Doing one method improves your ability to do another, and variety helps reduce boredom and risk of injury.
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Removing the focus from yourself and focusing on others to understand their emotions.
the nurse is assessing a client with suspected acute bacterial prostatitis. which aspects of the client's clinical history should the nurse inquire about related to the client's risk factors for this condition? select all that apply.
Gram-negative rods are present in a senior male with frequent urinary tract infections.
What is acute bacterial prostatitis?Acute bacterial prostatitis, an infection of the prostate gland, can produce fevers, chills, nausea, emesis, and malaise in addition to pelvic discomfort and symptoms of the urinary tract include dysuria, urine frequency, and urinary retention.You will take antibiotics for 2 to 6 weeks if you have acute prostatitis. You will take antibiotics for at least two to six weeks if you have chronic prostatitis. You may need to take medicine for up to 12 weeks since the infection may recur.Benign prostatic hyperplasia in men is more likely to occur in those with the following conditions: 40 years of age or older mild prostatic hyperplasia runs in families. diseases like type 2 diabetes, obesity, and heart and circulatory conditions.To learn more about acute bacterial prostatitis refer to:
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organizations of physicians, and other health care professionals that provide a wide range of services to subscribers on a prepaid basis are known as: a. preferred provider organizations (ppos) b. major medical plans c. health maintenance organizations (hmos) d. integrated medical practices
They are known as Preferred provider organisations (PPOs).
For both individuals and families, a preferred provider organization (PPO) is a well-liked health insurance option. PPOs involve networks of health insurance providers and contracted medical personnel. Preferred providers are hospitals and doctors who offer services to the insurer's plan policyholders at discounted prices.
Participants in the plan are granted coverage for out-of-network healthcare providers in addition to receiving the maximum PPO benefit when they see in-network healthcare providers.
A managed-care health insurance plan is a particular kind of preferred provider organization.
PPO healthcare providers are referred to as preferred providers.
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a child is scheduled to receive inactivated poliovirus vaccine (ipv), and the nurse who is preparing to administer the vaccine reviews the child's record. the nurse questions the administration of ipv if which is documented in the child's record?
The administration of ipv if history of an anaphylactic reaction to neomycin is documented in the child's record history of an anaphylactic reaction to neomycin.
The inactivated poliovirus vaccine contains neomycin (IPV). IPV is not recommended if you have ever had an adverse reaction to neomycin. Treatment is still possible even if the illness is minor, like the common cold. Additionally, if you have a history of recurrent respiratory diseases, getting vaccinated is not against the law. It is still acceptable to receive the immunization even if there is a local reaction to it.
Your immune system releases a barrage of chemicals during anaphylaxis that can put you into shock, lower your blood pressure, and constrict your airways, making it difficult for you to breathe. A skin rash, a quick, weak pulse, nausea, and vomiting are some of the warning signs and symptoms.
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the nurse is assessing the skin graft site of a client who has undergone a radical neck dissection. the skin graft site is pink. the nurse documents which result?
Healthy and good graft is the assessment made by the client who has undergone a radical neck surgery.
A skin graft is a patch of skin that is surgically removed from one part of the body and attached to another part of the body. The donor location on your body is where healthy skin is removed. The majority of patients receiving skin grafts choose for procedures. This removes the epidermis, the top two layers of skin, and the layer beneath the epidermis from the donor location (the dermis).
Any location on the body can serve as the donor site. Most often, it is a part of the body that clothing covers, such the buttock or inner thigh.
The area where the graft is being transplanted is covered with care. It is secured either with staples or a few tiny sutures, or by moderate pressure from a covering that covers it.
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which gland in the patient's body will initiate general adaptation syndrome
Answer:
Pituitary gland
Explanation:
The gland in the patient's body that will initiate general adaptation syndrome is the pituitary gland. The correct option is B.
What is a pituitary gland?The pituitary gland, sometimes referred to as your hypophysis, is a tiny gland the size of a pea that is situated beneath your hypothalamus at the base of your brain.
The sella turcica, a little chamber under your brain, is where it is located. It is a component of your endocrine system and is responsible for producing a number of critical hormones.
The human body's endocrine system is made up of a number of glands that have different functions. These glands control a variety of activities, including mood, sleep, growth, and tissue function.
Therefore, the correct option is B, pituitary gland.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
Thyroid gland
Pituitary gland
Adrenal gland
Parathyroid gland.
The nurse is caring for the following clients. Which client is at highest risk for a depressed respiratory system?.
The question above isn't complete, as there are no options for us to choose from. That being said, generally, the client that is at the highest risk for a depressed respiratory system is the client that's taking opioids for cancer pain.
There are many kinds of medications that, while doing their job, affect the function of the respiratory system. That's why the nurse needs to monitor each medication taken by each client under their care.
The opioid is a medication generally used to treat moderate to severe pain, especially for cancer patients. There are several side effects of opioids, a few of which are:
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a 52-year-old client is scheduled for diagnostic testing to address prolonged signs and symptoms of genitourinary dysfunction. what signs and symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease? select all that apply.
Pain, gastrointestinal problems, & changes in voiding patterns are the symptoms and signs of urinary tract illness that are most indicative.
Microorganisms, mostly bacteria, that enter the urethra & bladder and produce inflammation and infection are the primary cause of urinary tract infections. Although urethral and bladder infections are the most frequent locations for UTIs, germs can also go up the ureters & infect your kidneys.
The second most typical form of infection in the body is urinary tract infection or UTI. If you experience: Pain or burning during urinating, you may have a UTI. fever, exhaustion, or unsteadiness
Escherichia coli is the bacterium most frequently discovered to cause UTIs (E. coli). UTIs can be brought on by other bacteria, but E. coli is often to blame 90% of the time.
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the nurse is teaching a health class in the local public health center about precautions to prevent the spread of influenza. what instructions should the nurse provide as the most important measure to prevent the spread of influenza?
Recommendations.The most crucial defense against seasonal influenza illness is yearly immunization.
What is the most effective prevention strategy for seasonal influenza?Annual vaccination is the most important measure to prevent seasonal influenza infection.Healthy Practices to Prevent the Flu.Avoid making eye contact.Avoid being in close proximity to sick people.When you are sick, stay at home.Put your nose and mouth covered.sanitize your hands .Do not touch your lips, nose, or eyes.Adopt additional healthy behaviors. One of the most efficient ways to prevent seasonal influenza and its consequences, as well as to lower influenza-related hospitalization and death, is seasonal influenza vaccination (SIV). The flu shot can lower the number of flu-related hospitalizations, doctor visits, and absences from work and school due to the virus.Every year, the CDC advises that anyone aged 6 months and older get vaccinated against the flu.The first and most effective strategy to prevent influenza is to receive an annual flu shot.To learn more about influenza refer
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the nurse receives a client from the postanesthesia unit with a new onset of sinus tachycardia and a heart rate of 118 beats per minute. to which reasons does the nurse relate the increased heart rate? select all that apply.
According to the nurse, the higher heart rate is related to fever, blood loss, and anxiety.
What aspects of post-anesthesia care are evaluated?The patient's surgical and postanesthetic care involves regular assessment of their respiration, circulatory, neurologic, cerebral, and urinary functions as well as their pain, nausea, and nausea, evacuation and blood, and temperature. Something that every PACU nurse has to be aware of A nurse working with in PACU may be responsible for the following: Monitoring reply patients' levels of anesthetic recovery and alertness and updating the medical staff as necessary.
What are the reply care's three stages?Phase I, Phase II, and Extended Care are the three degrees of post-anesthesia care that can be distinguished. 5 Each stage of rehabilitation could happen in a single PACU.
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FLAG
A nurse is converting a toddler's weight from lb to kg. If the toddler weighs 20 lb 8 oz, what is the toddler's weight in kg? (Round the answer to the
nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
.
what intervention should the nurse teach the client to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples?
The nurse should teach the client to splint the area when engaging in activity to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples.
What are tissues?Tissue is described as a group of cells that have similar structure and that function together as a unit.
There are four basic tissue types defined by their morphology and function and they include:
epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissueNurses assist patients to recover when they undergosurgery.
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after a motor vehicle accident, a patient presents with a deformity to the leg with decreased pedal pulses. the fibula protrudes from the lateral aspect of the leg. how should the nurse classify the fracture?
Due to the fibula's protrusion thru the skin and the separation of its ends from their usual positions, the individual has a displaced fracture.
What can cause deformity?Misaligned broken bones, osteoarthritis, and illnesses including cancer and thyroid disease that result in the formation of tumors, goiters, or other masses are common causes of acquired deformities. While many acquired abnormalities are invisible, some may be.
How do you fix deformity?The most popular surgical procedure for treating bone abnormalities entails purposefully removing the bone, which is subsequently lengthened or corrected after. To fix the sliced bone, this corrective surgery known as osteotomy may be carried out using either internal or exterior fixation devices (less frequently both).
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