A diagnostic information-gathering form is a tool used to collect relevant information about a patient's medical history and current symptoms.
It is often used as part of the clinical examination process to help healthcare professionals make a diagnosis and develop a treatment plan. The form typically includes questions about the patient's symptoms, medical history, family history, and lifestyle factors that may be relevant to their condition. Once the form is completed, it can be used by the healthcare professional to guide their examination and further diagnostic tests. A diagnostic information-gathering form used in a clinical examination is typically referred to as a "medical history form" or "patient intake form." This form helps healthcare professionals collect important information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and any relevant factors to aid in the diagnostic process.
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The philosophical tenet that some of the content of the human mind is innate is called:
The philosophical tenet that some of the content of the human mind is innate is called "innatism."
Innatism is the belief that certain knowledge, ideas, or abilities are present in the mind at birth, rather than being learned through experience or acquired through the senses. This concept has been debated by philosophers for centuries and has been influential in the development of various schools of thought, including rationalism and empiricism.
Rationalists argue that some innate ideas are necessary for human reasoning, while empiricists reject the idea of innate knowledge and hold that all knowledge is acquired through experience.
Overall, The philosophical tenet that some of the content of the human mind is innate is called "innatism."
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how can healthy weight be defined? a body weight that is generally acceptable by society a body weight that enhances an individual's physical attributes a body weight that is the easiest to maintain by all individuals of a given height and age a body weight that does not increase the risk of developing weight-related problems or diseases
Healthy weight can be defined as a body weight that does not increase the risk of developing weight-related problems or diseases. It is important to note that healthy weight may not always align with societal standards or an individual's desired physical attributes.
Rather, it is a weight that promotes overall physical and mental well-being. Healthy weight can vary based on an individual's height, age, and body composition. It is not necessarily the easiest weight to maintain, as this can vary based on individual factors such as genetics and lifestyle habits.
Maintaining a healthy weight can be achieved through a balanced diet and regular physical activity. It is important to focus on overall health rather than solely on achieving a certain number on the scale. Consulting with a healthcare professional can also be helpful in determining a healthy weight and developing a plan to achieve and maintain it.
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108. The initial dose of a drug is 0.25 mg/kg of body weight. How many milligrams should be prescribed for a person weighing 154 lb.? Wont solution Please
Answer:
17.25 mg
Explanation:
1 lb = 0.45 kg
=> 154 lb = 154 x 0.45 = 69.3 kg or 69 kg
The initial dose is 0.25 x 69 = 17.25 mg
This prohibits a physician from referring any designated health services payable by Medicare to an entity
Section 1877 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395nn) prohibits a physician from referring any designated health services payable by Medicare to an entity.
The government of the United States of America has formed a law under which a member of a physician team or physician gets financial help unless some exceptions are applied. The bill exempts the entity to presents the bills or might be causing to present the bills are prohibited under the law for DHS. Section 1877 which is on social security undertakes the physician self-referral law.
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Fix bottle has what color top
The color of the Fix bottle top can vary depending on the product and brand. However, some common colors for Fix bottle tops include white, black, red, blue, green, and yellow. The color of the top may also indicate the type of product inside the bottle, such as a different color for a shampoo versus a conditioner.
Some Fix bottles may have different colored tops for different sizes or variations of the product. Therefore, it is important to read the label and packaging of the Fix bottle to determine the color of the top. If the bottle has a unique or custom design, the color of the top may also be chosen to complement or contrast with the overall aesthetic of the packaging. Overall, while the color of the Fix bottle top may vary, it is important to pay attention to it as it may indicate important information about the product inside.
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Diagnosis of fungal skin diseases is made from their clinical appearance and by microscopic examination of______preparations of skin flakes or hair.
Diagnosis of fungal skin diseases is made by microscopic examination of direct preparations of skin flakes or hair.
Skin flakes or hair samples from the affected area are collected and placed on a glass slide with a drop of potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution.
The KOH solution dissolves the keratin in the skin and hair cells, making the fungal elements easier to spot under the microscope. The structures of fungal skin infections, such as hyphae, spores, and yeast cells, can be seen under a microscope.
This method enables for the rapid diagnosis and identification of the fungal infection's causative agent, allowing the health care professional to prescribe the proper medication.
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Discuss in details hypothyroidism in transudate: mechanism of action.
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones play a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes, including metabolism, growth, and development.
Explain the mechanism of action for hypothyroidism?The mechanism of action for hypothyroidism causing transudate accumulation in the pleural cavity is not fully understood. However, there are some proposed theories.
One theory is that decreased thyroid hormone levels can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, which in turn can result in fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity. This is because decreased cardiac output can result in decreased blood flow to the kidneys, which can cause a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention.
Another theory suggests that decreased thyroid hormone levels can lead to increased capillary permeability, which can cause fluid to leak from the blood vessels into the pleural cavity. This is because thyroid hormones play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the vascular endothelium, which forms the inner lining of blood vessels.
It is important to note that hypothyroidism is not the only cause of transudate accumulation in the pleural cavity. Other conditions, such as heart failure, liver disease, and kidney disease, can also lead to fluid accumulation in body cavities. Therefore, a thorough medical evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of pleural effusion.
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What is the main cause of an aneurysm?
An aneurysm is a localized, abnormal bulging or weakening of an artery wall, which can potentially rupture and cause life-threatening bleeding. The exact cause of an aneurysm is not fully understood.
But there are several risk factors that can contribute to their development:
1) High blood pressure: Long-term high blood pressure can damage artery walls and increase the risk of an aneurysm.
2) Atherosclerosis: A buildup of plaque in the arteries can weaken the arterial walls and increase the risk of an aneurysm.
3) Family history: Aneurysms may run in families, suggesting a genetic predisposition.
4) Smoking: Smoking can damage the arterial walls and increase the risk of an aneurysm.
5) Trauma: Aneurysms can develop as a result of trauma to an artery, such as a car accident or a fall.
6) Infection: Certain infections, such as syphilis or bacterial endocarditis, can weaken artery walls and increase the risk of aneurysm.
7) Connective tissue disorders: Certain connective tissue disorders, such as Marfan syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, can increase the risk of aneurysm.
It's important to note that some aneurysms may not have an identifiable cause, and in these cases, they may be referred to as idiopathic.
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10. Muscle fatigue can be induced by sustaining maximum clench force on an object for several seconds. True or False
It is true to say that exerting maximum clench force on an object for several seconds can cause muscle exhaustion.
What causes muscle fatigue?Muscle tiredness can be brought on by improper exercise, prolonged battle, military training, and various linked disorders (such as cancer and stroke), all of which have a negative impact on athletic performance, military combat prowess, and patient recovery.
What causes muscles to feel exhausted after a burst of vigorous activity?Because anaerobic glycolysis is activated quickly during activity and the net result is the conversion of glucose units to lactate ions and protons, which causes the early acidosis associated with rapid-onset muscle tiredness, anaerobic glycolysis is of primary relevance in muscle fatigue.
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It is true to say that exerting maximum clench force on an object for several seconds can cause muscle exhaustion.
What causes muscle fatigue?Muscle tiredness can be brought on by improper exercise, prolonged battle, military training, and various linked disorders (such as cancer and stroke), all of which have a negative impact on athletic performance, military combat prowess, and patient recovery.
What causes muscles to feel exhausted after a burst of vigorous activity?Because anaerobic glycolysis is activated quickly during activity and the net result is the conversion of glucose units to lactate ions and protons, which causes the early acidosis associated with rapid-onset muscle tiredness, anaerobic glycolysis is of primary relevance in muscle fatigue.
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using a reliable outside resource or your textbook, describe signs and symptoms of diseases that are caused by salmonella, shigella, and escherichia coli o157:h7.
Salmonella, Shigella, and Escherichia coli O157:H7 are bacterial pathogens that can cause various illnesses in humans.
What are the symptoms?Below are some of the common signs and symptoms of diseases caused by these bacteria:
Salmonella:
Salmonella infection, also known as salmonellosis, can cause the following signs and symptoms:
Diarrhea
Abdominal cramps
Fever
Nausea
Vomiting
Symptoms typically appear 6 to 72 hours after exposure to the bacteria and can last for 4 to 7 days.
Shigella:
Shigella infection, also known as shigellosis, can cause the following signs and symptoms:
Diarrhea (often bloody)
Abdominal cramps
Fever
Nausea
Symptoms usually appear 1 to 3 days after exposure to the bacteria and can last for 5 to 7 days.
Escherichia coli O157:H7:
Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection can cause the following signs and symptoms:
Diarrhea (often bloody)
Abdominal cramps
Nausea
Vomiting
Low-grade fever
Symptoms usually appear 2 to 5 days after exposure to the bacteria and can last for up to 10 days. In some cases, infection with this strain of E. coli can lead to a serious complication called hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which can cause kidney failure and anemia.
It is important to note that the signs and symptoms of these bacterial infections can vary from person to person, and some people may not experience any symptoms at all. If you suspect that you have been exposed to any of these bacteria and are experiencing symptoms, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.
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Coughing Sounds: Please indicate the possible cause for the description feature of a cough. You can indicate more than one letter per feature Possible causes A. Asthma B. Chronic Bronchitis C. Pneumonia Description/Feature 1) A Wheezing Cough 2) Dryl Hacking Cough 3) Symptoms in the morning 4) Productive cough with sputum Breath Sounds: Please indicate if each breath sound can be heard during inhalation, exhalation or both A. Inhalation B. Exhalation C. Both Cough Sound 1) 5) Wheezes Stridor Friction Rub Rhonchi Crackles
Cough is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions affecting the respiratory system, such as asthma, chronic bronchitis, or pneumonia.
In general , wheezing cough is type of cough is often associated with asthma, a condition in which the airways become inflamed and narrowed. Dry hacking cough is usually non-productive, meaning that it does not produce any phlegm or sputum. Productive cough with sputum is type of cough produces phlegm or mucus.
Breath sounds can also provide important diagnostic information. Wheezes are usually heard during exhalation, but can also be heard during inhalation in severe cases. Stridor is usually heard during inhalation. Friction rubs are usually heard during both inhalation and exhalation. Crackles are high-pitched, popping sounds that occur when collapsed or alveoli open up during inhalation.
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what are the serrations of debakey and cooley vascular instruments considered to be?
Answer: The serrations on DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments are considered to be atraumatic, which means that they are designed to minimize tissue damage and trauma during surgical procedures.
After the med cart is filled, it is:
Select one:
Picked up by the nurse
Picked up by the patient
Delivered to the hospital floor
Delivered to the patient's room
After the med cart is filled, it is delivered to the hospital floor. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the medications are delivered to the appropriate patient's room. The nurse will review the medication orders and ensure that the right medication is delivered to the right patient at the right time.
A med cart is an essential tool for nurses, as it contains all of the necessary medications needed to care for patients on the hospital floor. It is typically stocked by the pharmacy with medications that have been ordered by the healthcare provider. The nurse will take the cart from the medication room and transport it to the appropriate patient rooms. The nurse will administer medications to the patient, monitor the patient's response, and document the medication administration in the patient's medical record. It is crucial for the nurse to follow the medication administration policy and procedures to ensure patient safety.
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a client brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. one of the devices has a two-pronged plug. which rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?
As a nurse, it is important to ensure the safety of our clients.
When a client brings electronic devices to a nursing home, we must inspect them to ensure they are safe to use.
One of the key safety features of electrical devices is the grounding provided by a three-pronged plug.
A two-pronged plug does not have this grounding feature and can increase the risk of electrical shock or fire. Therefore, we must explain to the client that for their safety, any electronic device brought into the nursing home must have a three-pronged plug.
We can also offer to assist the client in finding suitable adapters or replacement cords to ensure their devices are safe for use in the facility.
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during the nurse's initial assessment of a 5-year-old child admitted with vaso-occlusive crisis, the patient reports a pain level of 8 on the faces scale. the patient is lying quietly in bed watching television. which action would the nurse take?
The nurse should take the report of pain seriously and intervene to address the patient's pain.
A pain level of 8 on the faces scale shows that the patient is in substantial pain, even if they are lying quietly in bed.
Untreated pain can lead to severe complications and prolong the crisis in patients with vaso-occlusive crises, so pain treatment is critical.
The nurse should first analyse the patient's pain in greater detail, utilising a more complete pain assessment form to identify the quality, location, and duration of the pain.
This can aid in the selection of pain treatment measures. The nurse can then provide pain medication, which may include opioids or non-opioid pain medications, as prescribed by the healthcare provider.
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what federal organization sets strict standards to protect the privacy of patient records?
Answer:
Department of Health and Human Services
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without the patient’s consent or knowledge. The US Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) issued the HIPAA Privacy Rule to implement the requirements of HIPAA. The HIPAA Security Rule protects a subset of information covered by the Privacy Rule.
an operation that once started will run to completion without interruption
An atomic operation or an atomic transaction is a process that, once begun, will go uninterruptedly through to completion.
What enables a high-priority process to halt an ongoing procedure?In contrast to non-preemptive scheduling, which forces any new process to wait until the existing process completes its CPU cycle, preemptive scheduling permits a running process to be interrupted by a high-priority task.
Which processes must be finished before the next one may begin?The acronym PEMDAS, which stands for parenthesis, exponents, multiplication and division from left to right, as well as addition and subtraction from left to right, can be used to recall the order of operations. First, make the brackets simpler. Execute exponents next. multiplied next.
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An atomic operation or an atomic transaction is a process that, once begun, will go uninterruptedly through to completion.
What enables a high-priority process to halt an ongoing procedure?In contrast to non-preemptive scheduling, which forces any new process to wait until the existing process completes its CPU cycle, preemptive scheduling permits a running process to be interrupted by a high-priority task.
Which processes must be finished before the next one may begin?The acronym PEMDAS, which stands for parenthesis, exponents, multiplication and division from left to right, as well as addition and subtraction from left to right, can be used to recall the order of operations. First, make the brackets simpler. Execute exponents next. multiplied next.
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When Carry gets angry at work, Jone assumes it's because she is inherently aggressive and rude. When Jone expresses anger at work, he often claims it has to do with others pushing his buttons or extreme pressure at work. Jone's perception of Carry is ______, which his perception of himself is an example of ___
Situationism; Dispositionism
External Locus of Control; Situationism
Fundamental Attribution Error; Actor Observer
Dispositionism; Internal locus of control
111. The maintenance dose of oxtriphylline (CHOLEDYL) is 13.2 mg/kg/day or 800 mg, which-
ever is less, in q.i.d. dosing. How many 100-mg tablets of the drug should a 200-lb. patient
take at each dosing interval?
Wont solution Please
Each dosing interval, a 200-pound patient should take two tablets of oxtriphylline (CHOLEDYL).
How to calculate dosage?To calculate the number of 100-mg tablets of oxtriphylline that a 200-lb. patient should take at each dosing interval, we need to follow these steps:
Step 1: Convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms.
1 lb = 0.453592 kg
200 lb = 200 x 0.453592 kg = 90.7185 kg (rounded to four decimal places)
Step 2: Calculate the maximum daily dose of oxtriphylline based on the patient's weight.
The maximum daily dose of oxtriphylline is the lesser of:
13.2 mg/kg/day x 90.7185 kg = 1197.882 mg/day
800 mg/day
So, the maximum daily dose for this patient is 800 mg.
Step 3: Calculate the dose per tablet.
Each tablet contains 100 mg of oxtriphylline.
Step 4: Calculate the number of tablets per dosing interval.
The patient is taking the medication four times a day (q.i.d.), so the number of tablets per dosing interval is:
800 mg per day ÷ 4 doses per day = 200 mg per dose
Each tablet contains 100 mg of oxtriphylline, so the patient should take:
200 mg per dose ÷ 100 mg per tablet = 2 tablets per dose
Therefore, a 200-lb. patient should take 2 tablets of oxtriphylline (CHOLEDYL) per dosing interval.
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during a one-to-one interaction, a male client describes the sadness he experienced when his mother died. suddenly, the nurse begins to think about her grandmother's death. as a result, the nurse asked the client to describe his thoughts when he learned of his own mother's illness. what is the nurse doing?
The nurse is displaying a lack of empathy and self-awareness by redirecting the conversation to her own personal experience.
The nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings and offer support. Active listening, empathy, and maintaining professional boundaries are key components of effective client care. By staying present and attuned to the client's needs, the nurse can create a safe and supportive environment for them to express their emotions and experiences.
The nurse's response in this situation is an example of a communication error that can occur in healthcare settings. When a client shares their emotions or experiences, it is important for the nurse to remain focused on the client's needs and feelings, rather than redirecting the conversation to their own experiences.
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describe one behavior a NA might see at each stage of dying?
- denial - anger - bargaining - depression - acceptance
As a NA, one may observe various behaviors in individuals as they go through the stages of dying as described by Elisabeth Kubler-Ross, that are: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
Here's the elaboration to the behavior that a Nursing Assistant (NA) might see at each stage:
Remember that not everyone will go through all these stages, and the order may vary. The NA's role is to provide compassionate support and understanding to patients as they navigate these emotional experiences.
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Fatty acids in foods consumed influence the composition of fats in the body.
T/F
ADA The baby is born at 32 weeks' gestation. The baby is having difficulty breading the nurse activates which nursing diagnosis for this baby 1. Ineffective breathing pattern related to lack of adequate surfactant 2. Delayed growth and development related to immature lungs 3. Ineffective gas exchange related to excessive fluid buildup in lungs 4. Excess fluid volume related to pulmonary edema because of surfactant levels
Based on the information provided, the nursing diagnosis for the baby would be "Ineffective breathing pattern related to lack of adequate surfactant."
This is because surfactant is a substance in the lungs that helps keep the air sacs open and facilitates breathing. Babies born prematurely, such as at 32 weeks' gestation, may not have fully developed surfactant levels, which can lead to difficulty breathing. The nurse would need to activate interventions to support the baby's breathing and help manage this nursing diagnosis. Ineffective breathing pattern related to lack of adequate surfactant. This is because premature babies often have underdeveloped lungs with insufficient surfactant, which is essential for proper lung function and effective gas exchange.
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question 1 of 6 which focused assessment would the nurse perform when caring for a patient with a prescription for a medication administered by transdermal patch
When caring for a patient with a prescription for a medication administered by transdermal patch, the nurse would perform a focused assessment of the skin at the site of the patch.
This includes checking for skin irritation, redness, or other indicators of an adverse reaction to the drug or the patch's adhesive. The nurse would also look for any additional patches or prescriptions that would interfere with the medication's absorption.
The nurse would need to keep an eye on the patient for any signs of medication-related side effects, such as dizziness, nausea, or changes in blood pressure or heart rate.
Furthermore, the nurse must verify that the patient understands how to apply and dispose of the patch, as well as any risks or limits related with the medication.
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Which of the following best describes the characteristic appearance of lesions of human papillomavirus (HPV)?
a. Solitary growth with elevated borders and a central depression
b. Elevated growths with a "cauliflower" appearance
c. Thin-walled pustules that rupture to form honey-colored crusts
d. Vesicles that ulcerate and crust within 1 to 4 days
b. Elevated growths with a "cauliflower" appearance best describes the characteristic appearance of lesions of human papillomavirus (HPV).
Cauliflower is a cruciferous vegetable that is naturally high in fiber and B-vitamins. It provides antioxidants and phytonutrients that can protect against cancer. It also contains fiber to enhance weight loss and digestion, choline that is essential for learning and memory, and many other important nutrients.
HPV is the most common STI. There were about 43 million HPV infections in 2018, many among people in their late teens and early 20s. There are many different types of HPV. Some types can cause health problems, including genital warts and cancers
HPV often causes no symptoms, but it can lead to warts on the genitals. In females, this includes the cervix, vulvar, and vagina, as well as the anus.
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when caring for a vison impaired client the nurse aide should; a) ambulate the client by holding the client's hand and walk in front of the client
b) tell the client that the food tray is in front of the client after thee food tray has been delivered
c) provide a dimly lit environment for the client
d) announce self before touching the client
When caring for a vision-impaired client, it is important for the nurse aide to take certain precautions to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
One of the main things that the nurse aide should do is to announce themselves before touching the client, so as not to startle them. This can help to build trust and a sense of security between the client and the nurse aide.
Additionally, the nurse aide should ambulate the client by holding their hand and walking in front of them. This is to ensure that the client is able to follow the nurse aide's movements and avoid tripping or stumbling. The nurse aide should also provide verbal cues to help guide the client, such as describing the environment and any potential obstacles that may be in their path.
In terms of mealtime, the nurse aide should tell the client where their food tray is located once it has been delivered. This can help to prevent spills and other accidents that may occur if the client is not aware of the location of their food. Lastly, it is not recommended to provide a dimly lit environment for the client as this can make it even harder for them to see and navigate their surroundings.
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Sarah believes that it's important to reduce meat intake for environmental and health purposes. Recently, however, she has been eating meat with every meal. She feels pretty guilty about this behavior. What psychological phenomenon is she experiencing? Explain your answer
Based on that phenomenon, list three distinct ways she can get rid of the guilt (you must use the three distinct ways to address this psychological phenomenon
It’s Monday morning, you have woken your son up three times already and he is in danger of being late to school. This has been going on for more than a week and nothing has changed. You tried having him go to bed earlier and even taken the electronics out of his room. How do you handle this situation?
The best way to handle the situation is to take him o the hospital to have him tested for sleep disorders.
What are sleep disorders?Changes in sleeping patterns or habits are referred to as sleep disorders and can have a severe impact on health.
The common types of sleep disorders include:
Irritable bowel syndrome - a disorder marked by an almost overwhelming yearning to move one's legs, usually in the evenings.Jet lag -a sleep condition that can occur in people who often switch between different time zones.Narcolepsy - a long-term sleep problem that significantly impairs alertness during the day.Learn more about sleep disorder at: https://brainly.com/question/27223515
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Which of the following is a NOT a difference between social facilitation and social learning? O a. Involves multiple members of a social group b. Does not require the participants to learn something new O c. Does not require that the behavior continue in the future Od. All of the above are differences between social facilitation and social learning
Answer:
c. Does not require that the behaviour continues in the future is no difference between social facilitation and social learning. Both social facilitation and social learning can involve behaviours that continue in the future. The other options are correct because it is the differences between social facilitation and social learning.
Increasing the physician supply can be achieved through all of the following ways, except:The amount of work effort and practice costs of providing a given service relative to other servicesEarly retirement of practicing physicianDespite fertility rates decreasing, the number of C-Sections performed increased
The answer is c. Despite fertility rates decreasing. Increasing the physician supply can be achieved through measures such as increasing medical school enrollment, providing incentives for physicians to practice in underserved areas, and increasing the use of nurse practitioners and physician assistants.
The number of C-Sections performed may increase due to various reasons such as maternal age, medical complications, and maternal choice, but it does not directly impact the supply of physicians.Fertility rates refer to the number of children a woman or couple will have in her lifetime. This does not have any direct effect on the physician supply. Early retirement of practicing physicians, increasing the amount of work effort, and increasing the number of C-Sections performed can all contribute to increasing the physician supply.
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complete question: Increasing the physician supply can be achieved through all of the following ways, except:
a. The amount of work effort and practice costs of providing a given service relative to other services
b. Early retirement of practicing physician
c. Despite fertility rates decreasing,
d. the number of C-Sections performed increased
The answer is c. Despite fertility rates decreasing. Increasing the physician supply can be achieved through measures such as increasing medical school enrollment, providing incentives for physicians to practice in underserved areas, and increasing the use of nurse practitioners and physician assistants.
The number of C-Sections performed may increase due to various reasons such as maternal age, medical complications, and maternal choice, but it does not directly impact the supply of physicians.Fertility rates refer to the number of children a woman or couple will have in her lifetime. This does not have any direct effect on the physician supply. Early retirement of practicing physicians, increasing the amount of work effort, and increasing the number of C-Sections performed can all contribute to increasing the physician supply.
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complete question: Increasing the physician supply can be achieved through all of the following ways, except:
a. The amount of work effort and practice costs of providing a given service relative to other services
b. Early retirement of practicing physician
c. Despite fertility rates decreasing,
d. the number of C-Sections performed increased