where they execute important functions. The polypeptide chain of these proteins must cross the lipid bilayer. This presents a problem because the peptide bond is polar in nature. It turns out that in virtually all cases where an amino acid chain crosses a lipid bilayer it does so as an alpha helix. Suggest a reason why this is the case. (5 points)

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

In this case, it is likely that the polypeptide chain assumed an alpha helix configuration because the lipid bilayer did not have beta-barrel proteins.

Explanation:

A polypeptide chain is naturally polar, however, a lipid bilayer is naturally non-polar. This makes it difficult and even prevents the polypeptide chain from crossing a lipid bilayer, since the composition of these two elements does not allow them to mix. In that case, the polypeptide chain has two options to take to successfully cross the lipid bilayer.

The first option that the polypeptide chain has is to allow the creation of twisted beta sheets in the shape of a closed barrel in its structure. This only works if the lipid bilayer has beta barrel proteins in its composition to act as a transport channel for the polypeptide chain. However, few lipid layers have this protein.

Most likely, the polypeptide chain assumes an alpha helix conformation to cross lipid bilayers that do not have beta-barrel proteins. By assuming the beta conformation, the polypeptide chain reinforces the hydrogen bonds present in its composition, allowing it to cross the lipid bilayer without having its conformation and structure disassembled.


Related Questions

explain in detail how do carnivores get their food?

Answers

Answer:

a carnivore gets their food by killing other animals, they eat meat. a carnivore can eat an animal who is a herbivore and sometimes a omnivore.

How does a hot spot make a volcano?

Answers

A hot spot is a region deep within the Earth's mantle from which heat rises through the process of convection. This heat facilitates the melting of rock. The melted rock, known as magma, often pushes through cracks in the crust to form volcanoes. ... Instead it occurs at abnormally hot centers known as mantle plumes.

Which area of the brain is most active when listening

Answers

Answer: Right inferior frontal gyrus was also activated for both reading and listening comprehension. The common areas of activation are shown in white in Figure 1. Listening comprehension showed large clusters of activation in bilateral (posterior and anterior) superior temporal and middle temporal gyri.

Explanation:

a principal origem das cartas

Answers

Im sorry i don’t understand

The__system includes the kidneys

Answers

The urinary system includes the kidney.

What are the subunits used to make product in dna replication?

Answers

Answer:

DNA polymerase III is a holoenzyme, which has two core enzymes (Pol III), each consisting of three subunits (, and ), a sliding clamp that has two beta subunits, and a clamp-loading complex which has multiple subunits (, , , , and ).

Explanation:

The subunits used to make product in DNA replication are:

I. Alpha (α) subunit.

II. Delta ([tex]\delta[/tex]) subunit.

III. Epsilon ([tex]\epsilon[/tex]) subunit.

Nucleus is the most conspicuous cell organelle that is found in all eukaryotic living organisms.

Basically, the nucleus serves as the site for ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication.

DNA replication can be defined as a biological process through which two identical replicas of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules are produced from an original deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecule, especially during cellular division.

This ultimately implies that, DNA replication is a biological process that occurs during cellular division and it involves the duplication of a double-stranded DNA to produce two identical deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules.

The three (3) main subunits (polymerases) used for making products in DNA replication includes the following:

Alpha (α) subunit.Delta ([tex]\delta[/tex]) subunit.Epsilon ([tex]\epsilon[/tex]) subunit.

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Stion
Unit 3 Tutorials
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Question 11
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Which of these is TRUE of a neuron at resting potential?
O The neuron has more positive charges inside than outside.
O Sodium-potassium pumps transport sodium ions into the neuron.
O Sodium-potassium pumps transport potassium ions out of the neuron.
O The neuron has more potassium ions inside than outside.

Answers

Answer:

O The neuron has more potassium ions inside than outside.

Explanation:

The membrane resting potential is defined as the difference in electrical charge between the interior of neurons and their outer environment. In neurons, both sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) pumps contribute to generating the resting potential. Neurons have a higher concentration of K+ inside than outside and a higher concentration of Na+ outside than inside. When a neuron is at its rest state, where the inside is negative with respect to the outside, its membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+, and therefore the resting membrane potential is closer to the equilibrium potential of K+.

The kinetic energy of a moving object depends on its mass and its
a. volume.
b. velocity
c. distance.
d. acceleration

Answers

Answer:

Your answer is B. Velocity

the answer is b:velocity

a heavily populated town with a housing shortage is located near one large river the water in the river is not heavily polluted the people grow food on fertile farms near the river there is no access to vaccinations in the area and the death rate from certain diseases is very high based on this the most immediate solution

Answers

Answer:

Answer: access to medical supplies

Explanation:

Answer:

access to medical supplies

Explanation:

Why is a ripple in a pond an example of mechanical waves?

Answers

In transverse waves, the particle movement is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Light and other types of electromagnetic radiation are examples of transverse waves. Some other examples of transverse waves include a ripple on a pond and a wave in a string.

Consider the Canyonlands food web. Evaluate each of the statements provided and select ALL that apply.

A)

The Fennec Fox is an omnivore.

B)

The Northern Whiptail is a carnivore.

Rock squirrels are the only consumers of Yucca.

D)

Producers include Utah Juniper, Yucca, and Pinyon Pine

E)

The Rock Squirrel, Spiny Lizard, and Fennec Fox are all primary consumers.

Answers

Answer:

A) The fennec Fox is an omnivore.

E) The rock squirrel, spiny lizard and fennec fox are all primary consumers.

Explanation:

Fennec fox is omnivore and they usually live in underground holes. They dig the holes with the help of their feet. They usually consume insects, some plants, eggs and small animals.

Answer:

A) The Fennec Fox is an omnivore.

C) Rock squirrels are the only consumers of Yucca.

D) Producers include Utah Juniper, Yucca, and Pinyon Pine

Explanation:

Using the food web, we do not have any information on what the Northern Whiptail and the Spiny Lizard eat.

Hope This Help!!

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I don’t understand it

Answers

So I believe these are the questions to go with the statement based on the info given to make a question (hypothesis) , I believe it’s “A” because based on the statement it give details about the one of them being able to drink water that contains fluoride salts and the other doesn’t drink water with fluoride salt . And we don’t know where they live , or even who drinks the fluoride salts or no so “A” is a appropriate question to give . And the numerical data part can also include the people who lives in their neighborhoods .

Hope this helps☺️

Match the descriptions with the correct phases of the ovarian cycle - progesterone levels are highest during this phase - menses occurs during the first part of this phase - LH levels peak during, or just before, this phase - This phase occurs approximately 14 days before the onset of menstruation - GnRH secretion is inhibited by estrogen secreted from the corpus luteum during this phase - This phase corresponds to the secretory phase of the uterine cycle - A follicle ruptures during this phase - The antrum of a follicle grows larger during the end of this phase A. Follicular phase B. ovulation C. Luteal phase

Answers

B that is what I put and I got it right

Here's a match of the descriptions with the correct phases of the ovarian cycle:

Progesterone levels are highest during this phase: C. Luteal phaseMenses occurs during the first part of this phase: A. Follicular phaseLH levels peak during, or just before, this phase: B. OvulationThis phase occurs approximately 14 days before the onset of menstruation: C. Luteal phaseGnRH secretion is inhibited by estrogen secreted from the corpus luteum during this phase: C. Luteal phaseThis phase corresponds to the secretory phase of the uterine cycle: C. Luteal phaseA follicle ruptures during this phase: B. OvulationThe antrum of a follicle grows larger during the end of this phase: A. Follicular phase

What is an Ovarian cycle?

The ovarian cycle is the monthly series of changes that occur in a female's ovaries, specifically in the development and release of an egg (ovulation).

The cycle is regulated by several hormones produced by the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries, and is divided into three main phases: the follicular phase, the ovulatory phase (or ovulation), and the luteal phase.

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What if earth didn't revolve around the sun, but was rather in a fixed position relative to the sun

Answers

Answer:

Anything on the trailing side would be pulverized against the Earth. It would be a horrible, gooey mess. But even if the Earth slowed gently to a stop, it would still be a horrible mess. Without the outward centripetal force to counteract the inward pull of gravity, the Earth would begin falling towards the sun.

Explanation:

HELP PLS (20 POINTS)

What is the basic unit of DNA?

Answers

The basic unit used to make a strand of DNA is called a nucleotide. A single basic unit or "building block" of DNA consists of a sugar , a phosphate group and a base. Sugars are rings of carbon and oxygen atoms.

Can you get HIV from getting treatment at the dentist

Answers

Yes, you can.

Saliva tends to contaminate itself with blood, increasing the risk of HIV transmission from saliva.

when 70.0 grams of mno2 reacted with 128.0 grams of hcl, the reaction resulted in a 62.7% yield of chlorine gas. what is the actual yield of chlorine gas in grams? Mno2 + HCI —> MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2​

Answers

Answer:

35.7 g

Explanation:

yield(%) = actual yield/theoretical yield x 100

We can calculate the theoretical yield by considering the balanced chemical equation:

MnO₂ + 4HCI —> MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂

According to the equation, 1 mol of MnO₂ reacts with 4 moles of HCl to produce 1 mol of Cl₂. So, we can write the following mole ratios:

1 mol MnO₂/4 mol HCl or 4 mol HCl/1 mol MnO₂

1 mol MnO₂/1 mol Cl₂

4 mol HCl/1 mol Cl₂

As we have the amounts of reactants in grams, we have to convert from moles to mass by using the molecular weight (MW) of each compound:

MW(MnO₂) = 54.9 g/mol Mn + (16 g/mol x 2 O) = 86.9 g/mol

1 mol MnO₂ x 86.9 g/mol = 86.9 g MnO₂

MW(HCl) = 1 g/mol H + 35.4 g/mol Cl = 36.4 g/mol

4 moles HCl x 36.4 g/mol = 145.6 g HCl

MW(Cl₂) = 2 x 35.4 g/mol Cl = 70.8 g/mol

1 mol Cl₂ x 70.8 g/mol = 70.8 g Cl₂

Now, we have to figure out which is the limiting reactant. For this, we use the stoichiometric ratio: 145.6 g HCl/86.9 g MnO₂. We multiply the actual amount of MnO₂ by the stoichiometric ratio:

70.0 g MnO₂ x 145.6 g HCl/86.9 g MnO₂ = 117.3 g HCl  < 128.0 g HCl

We need 117.3 grams of HCl to completely react with 70.0 grams of MnO₂, and we have 128 grams of HCl. So, the reactant in excess is HCl, and the limiting reactant is MnO₂.

With the limiting reactant, we calculate the theoretical yield of Cl₂. We use the stoichiometric ratio 70.8 g Cl₂/86.9 g MnO₂:

70.0 g MnO₂ x 70.8 g Cl₂/86.9 g MnO₂ = 57 g Cl₂

Finally, we calculate the actual yield of chlorine gas (Cl₂), by using the first equation:

yield(%) = actual yield/theoretical yield x 100

⇒ actual yield = theoretical yield x yield(%)/100

                       = 57 g x 62.7%/100

                       = 35.7 g

A student completes an SAE where they volunteer time taking care of animals at an animal shelter. What type of Immersion SAE would this be?

Answers

Explanation:

probably, Placement, since he's volunteering

The type of the Immersion SAE would be experimental research. The correct option is C.

What is Immersion SAE?

Immersion SAEs are an extension of the Foundational SAE's Agricultural Literacy component and will contribute to a student's growth in all Foundational components in an authentic, contextualized manner.

In a real-world application, the five Immersion SAE categories build on the Foundational SAE components.

SAE programs serve several important purposes and provide numerous benefits, including:

Assisting students in clearing career as well as educational decisions. Allowing students to investigate various agricultural subjects.Assisting students in developing self-confidence.

The Immersion SAE would be an experimental study. The majority of SAE programs are completed outside of regular class time, either at home or at work.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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In humans, nearly 80% of proteins are acetylated on their N-terminal residue, a modification known to be recognized by a specific E3 enzyme, which directs the ubiquitylation of the protein for rapid degradation. Does this mean that all of these proteins would be actively degraded at the same time

Answers

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Yes this means that all of these proteins will be actively degraded and this is due to the high turnover rate which will ensure that their activity will be under tight control.

The acetylation of the N-terminal of the protein, with the Ubiquitylation of the protein by an E3 enzyme, helps in the maintenance of the homeostasis of protein activity.

Which of the following statements best describes the importance of
nutrient cycling?

Answers

Answer:

Since there are no choices to this question, I think it restores ecosystems or the organisms physical environment to a state called the "Equilibrium State".

Explanation:

The Equilibrium State keeps the ecosystems functioning. Nutrient cycles link or put the living organisms with the non living organisms together throughout the flow of the nutrients in the cycle. Remember that living and non living organisms always depend on each other.

I hope this answers your question! :)

Which of the following is not considered to be a surface water?
A) aquifer
B)ponds
C)wetlands
D)river

Answers

Answer:

A) aquifer

Explanation:

surface waters are bodies of water that consist of water from rainfall etc, and aquifer does not consist of rainfall etc.

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

A. the recovery of Yellowstone National Park following the fires of 1988

B. the appearance of lichens and mosses in an area where a glacier has recently melted away

C. the growth of weeds in a field after a farmer stops using the field

D. the growth of weeds in an empty lot that is no longer being mowed

Answers

Answer:

B. the appearance of lichens and mosses in an area where a glacier has recently melted away

Explanation:

Ecological succession, which refers to the series of changes that occurs over time in an ecosystem, can be of two types namely: primary succession and secondary succession.

Primary succession is a succession that involves an area where no form of life has grown previously, hence, the area of land is barren e.g bare rock. Primary succession is first colonized by species called PIONEER SPECIES e.g. lichens, mosses etc.

According to this question, "the appearance of lichens and mosses (pioneer species) in an area where a glacier has recently melted away" is an example of PRIMARY SUCCESSION.

Please help!! I'll give brainlist!!!​

Answers

Answer:

C. The Bluegill population would increase, but the other organisms would not be affected.

Explanation:

Bluegill are eaten by bass. Bass would be what keeps the Bluegill population under control, but with the bass population decreasing, Bluegill would eventually overpopulate.

As Maria continued to read about common conditions of the nervous system, she realized there was a category of cells called neuroglia that allowed neurons and the nervous system as a whole to properly function. Some of her symptoms seemed to fit with a condition that resulted from a slow destruction of some of these cells.
Correctly match the cell type with the sentence that describes it.
_______are the neuroglia, which help to regulate the reuptake of neurotransmitters from neural tissue.
Cell bodies of unipolar neurons are insulated from adjacent cell bodies by .
The ventricles of the brain are lined with _______, which form an epithelial layer that is permeable to cerebrospinal fluid.
The macrophages of the Central Nervous System, which function to remove foreign microorganisms, are called_______ .
The myelin sheath of the Central Nervous System is formed by________ .
Axons of unipolar neurons are insulated by_________ , which increase the speed of the electrical impulse.
Mlorogla

Answers

Answer:

Astrocytes are the neuroglia, which help to regulate the reuptake of neurotransmitters from neural tissue.

Cell bodies of unipolar neurons are insulated from adjacent cell bodies by satellite cells.

The ventricles of the brain are lined with ependymal cells, which form an epithelial layer that is permeable to cerebrospinal fluid.

The macrophages of the Central Nervous System, which function to remove foreign microorganisms, are called microglia.

The myelin sheath of the Central Nervous System is formed by oligodendrocytes.

Axons of unipolar neurons are insulated by Schwann cells, which increase the speed of the electrical impulse.  

Explanation:

The neuroglia cells are a group of specialized cells that are in the Central and Peripheral Nervous System.

Astrocytes are star-shaped cells that maintain homeostasis in the nervous tissue. They also are part of the blood-brain barrier controlling what can enter the brain and whatnot.

Satellite cells are in the Peripheric Nervous System. They are around neurons and provide nutrients and insulation to neurons.

Ependymal cells are in the Central Nervous System. They line the ventricles and spinal cord's central canal. They are the ones that help in the production and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). They are part of the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier, keeping the cerebrospinal fluid clean, and they also absorb the CSF.

The microglia are the macrophages of the Central Nervous System. They phagocytize any pathogen that they detect in the CNS, protecting the neurons.

The myelin sheath is formed by the oligodendrocytes in the CNS and by the Schwann cells in the PNS. Their function is to insulate the axons so that the electrical impulse can travel through them.

(S)-Zearalenone, a natural product isolated from the fungus Gibberella zeae, exhibits useful biological activity, including antibiotic properties. In a total synthesis of (S)-zearalenone, an intramolecular Stille coupling process was employed as the penultimate procedure.3 The resulting coupling product was then treated with HCl to cleave the OR groups, thereby converting them into OH groups (as seen in Section 13.6), giving (S)-zearalenone. Draw the structure of (S)-zearalenone:

Answers

Answer:

Hello attached below is the missing information  and solution

Explanation:

Attached below is the structure of ( S ) - Zearalenone as required by the question.

Zearalenone is a  estrogenic mycotoxins that is produced by Fusarium fungi

Explain why the Northern Hemisphere it’s warmer in the summer than in the winter

Answers

Answer:

It is because of the axis it is on!

Explanation:

In fact, in the Northern Hemisphere, the orbit of the earth takes us further from the sun in summer. Summer is hotter than winter due to the tilt in the axis of the earth of 23 degrees. ... – the sun is higher in the sky, meaning more sunlight shines on the earth more directly.

What are some functions of the Thalamus.​

Answers

Answer:The thalamus is a small structure within the brain located just above the brain stem between the cerebral cortex and the midbrain and has extensive nerve connections to both. The primary function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex

Explanation:

One of the genes coding for the ability to taste PTC shows Mendelian inheritance. For this example, we will call the allele for tasting T and it is dominant over the allele for non-tasting (t). Suppose a non-taster man, whose mother and father were tasters, married a taster woman whose mother was a non-taster. They have a child who is a non-taster. What is the phenotype g

Answers

Complete question:

One of the genes coding for the ability to taste PTC shows Mendelian inheritance. For this example, we will call the allele for tasting T and it is dominant over the allele for non-tasting (t). Suppose a non-taster man, whose mother and father were tasters, married a taster woman whose mother was a non-taster. They have a child who is a non-taster. What is the phenotype and genotype of the woman's father?

Answer and  Explanation:

Due to technical problems, you will find the complete answer and explanation in the attached files.

Even though chestnuts can regrow from their roots, this does not usually happen because
there are few root systems left in the forest.
chestnuts grow in regions prone to fires.
most forestry professionals no longer want to grow chestnuts.
new growth is stricken with the blight before it has the chance to mature.

Answers

Answer: New growth is stricken with the blight before it has the chance to mature.

Explanation:

American Chestnut trees can indeed regrow from their roots but due to the devastating effect of the chestnut blight, they have been unable to do this since the blight spread across the country.

The blight was introduced when Chinese chestnut trees were imported into the U.S. in the 20th century. It killed off most of the chestnut trees in the U.S. and attacks the tree again when it grows to around 6 meters bringing it down to its roots. This is why the American Chestnut is considered endangered.

Answer:

d

Explanation:

took the test

HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES SEPERATE FROM EACH OTHER WHAT STAGE

Answers

Answer:

Homologous chromosomes separate from each other during anaphase I of meiosis.

Explanation:

Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms. It involves two rounds of cell division, known as meiosis I and meiosis II, which result in the formation of haploid gametes (sperm or eggs) with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material in a process called crossing over. Then, during anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate from each other and migrate to opposite poles of the cell. This is followed by telophase I, cytokinesis, and the formation of two new cells, each with a haploid set of chromosomes.

In contrast, during meiosis II, the sister chromatids of each chromosome separate from each other and migrate to opposite poles of the cell, resulting in the formation of four haploid daughter cells.

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