She would be prescribed benzodiazepines,which will calm her compulsive behavior.
What can she take?In addition to the medication, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that involves exposure and response prevention.
In some cases, medication may also be prescribed, typically a type of antidepressant medication called selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which help to regulate serotonin levels in the brain and can reduce the severity of OCD symptoms.
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Which BEST matches the drug to the disease it treats? Check all that apply.
a. zolpidem: given to patients with insomnia
b. dopamine agonists: given to patients with dementia
c. lorazepam: given to patients that experience seizures
d. MAO inhibitors: given to patients with Pakinson's
e. neostigmine: given to patients to cure myasthenia gravis
f. clonazepam: given to patients with neuropathy
Answer:
neostigme : given to patients to cure myssthenia gravis
Answer:
a. zolpidem: given to patients with insomnia
e. neostigmine: given to patients to cure myasthenia gravis
2. The pituitary gland does not release any hormones
Jamal was restless early in the morning. He has a million thoughts going through his mind. Which part of bipolar disorder is he experiencing, and what should he take?
a. He is experiencing mania, and he should be taking antidepressants.
b. He is experiencing mania, and he should be taking antianxiety.
c. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antidepressants.
d. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antianxiety drugs.
Answer:
I think c. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antidepressants
que hay que hacer para la fiebre
que hay que hacer para la fiebre?
Suficiente descanso.Use ropa ligera y cómoda.Permanezca en una habitación con aire fresco.Beba mucha agua para evitar la deshidratación.Comprimir con agua tibia.Administración de fármacos, como fármacos antifebriles.Bacterial infections can be treated with penicillin or sulfonamide. true or false
Answer:
it's true
... hope it's helpful
Answer:
True
Explanation:
These drugs are effective for any gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Goodluck
"It appears that the increasing trend of overweight and obesity will likely overtake tobacco as the leading preventable cause of mortality in the United States" What are the primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle?
Answer:
The primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle are:
-Type 2 diabetes
-Obesity
-A stroke
-Hypertension
-Cancer
-Osteoporosis
-Heart problems
Explanation:
A poor diet and sedentary lifestyle impact our health. The lack of nutrients and the excess of chemicals, fat, or carbohydrates in our diets causes chronic diseases, that is to say, diseases that are not produced by a virus or bacteria. A person with an unhealthy diet and a lack of physical activity to help the body process and expel the toxins in our body have a higher probability of having one or more chronic diseases such as obesity, hypertension, diabetes type 2, cancer, osteoporosis, or strokes.
What is the main difference between acne vulgaris and acne rosacea?
a. Acne rosacea is a result of an infection and can be treated with antibiotics, while vulgaris is not caused by an infection.
b. Acne rosacea is a result of an infection and can be treated with antiviral medication, while acne vulgaris is not caused by an infection.
c. Acne vulgaris is a result of an infection and can be treated with antibiotics, while acne rosacea is not caused by an infection.
d. Acne vulgarus is a result of an infection and can be treated with antiviral medication, while acne rosacea is not caused by an infection.
Answer:
a. Acne rosacea is a result of an infection and can be treated with antibiotics, while vulgaris is not caused by an infection
True or false: It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of pneumonia were due to complications stemming from CGD.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
thats the correct answer
It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of were due to complications stemming from CGD is True.
Are neutrophils part of the adaptive immune system?Neutrophils are capable of modulating adaptive immune reaction through interactions with T, B cells and possibly APCs.
Thus, the correct option is true.
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What best describes the I in the FITT formula recommended by ACSM for cardiorespiratory fitness for healthy, active individuals
Answer: INTENSITY
Explanation: FITT formula is used for health-related fitness and was designed by The American College of Sport Medicine (ACSM).
FITT is established to put together an efficient workout plan for aspiring to be healthy and healthy individuals.
I stands for Intensity in the FITT principle. Intensity describes the level of difficulty of an exercise. Low intensity level can be adopted at the early stage of an exercise programme and gradually increased to difficult level, in other to avoid burnout.
It is measured based on numbers. The number of sets completed, amount of weight lifted or number of repetitions accomplished, while finding your target heart rate zone and Max heart rate (MHR).
Levothyroxine is a T4 replacement drug that is commonly prescribed to treat
a. hyperthyroidism.
b. hypothyroidism.
c. type 1 diabetes.
d. type 2 diabetes.
Answer:
The x
Corect answer B hypothyroidism
Levothyroxine is a T4 replacement drug that is commonly prescribed to treat hypothyroidism.
What is hypothyroidism?An underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) is where your thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones. Common signs of an underactive thyroid are tiredness, weight gain and feeling depressed.
Hypothyroidism means that the thyroid gland can't make enough thyroid hormone to keep the body running normally. People are hypothyroid if they have too little thyroid hormone in the blood. Common causes are autoimmune disease, such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, surgical removal of the thyroid, and radiation treatment.
Hypothyroidism can become a serious and life-threatening medical condition if you do not get treatment from a healthcare provider. If you are not treated, your symptoms can become more severe and can include: Developing mental health problems. Having trouble breathing.
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Radius bone is lateral to ulna bone *
True or False
Describe how you achieved each course competency including at least one example of new knowledge gained related to that competency. Describe how this new knowledge will impact your nursing practice.
Explanation:
Identify ethical dilemmas encountered in professional nursing practice.
-Describe the ethical theories and principles influencing healthcare decisions.
-Explain the interdependency of genetics, genomics, and ethics on nursing care.
-Describe the principles of genetics and genomics.
-Differentiate the legal and professional policies influencing healthcare decisions.
-Design nursing care strategies which incorporate genetic and genomic risk factors
Prescription drugs used to treat mental illness are called
a. antidepressants.
b. psychotherapy.
c. psychiatric drugs.
d. antipsychotic drugs.
Answer:
The answer correct b. psychotherapy.
A client is experiencing an allergy to a penicillin antibiotic. What immunoglobulin (Ig) will most directly relate to this immune response
Answer:
The correct answer is - IgE.
Explanation:
The penicillin allergy immune response is most of the time is due to the IgE mediated and only a few times its igG mediated. IgE mediated penicillin immune response occurs within one hour while others are show delayed reactions.
IgE mediated response shows specific symptoms such as shortness of breath, red or pink color itchy patches with angioedema, and anaphylaxis.
2. Calcule los gramos de azúcar que deben disolverse en 825 g de
agua para preparar una solución de azúcar al 20% p/p
Todo el proceso
Respuesta:
206,25 g
Explicación:
Porcentaje de masa, m = 20%
Solución = soluto + solvente
Masa de soluto = m
Disolvente = masa de agua = 825 g
Masa de la solución = m + 825
(Masa de soluto / masa de solvente) = porcentaje de masa
(m / (m + 825)) = 20%
(m / (m + 825)) = 0,2
m = 0,2 (m + 825)
m = 0,2 m + 165
m - 0,2 m = 165
0,8 m = 165
m = 165 / 0,8
m = 206,25 g
A pharmacist is preparing an order of heparin for a new patient. The patient is MOST LIKELY suffering from a case of
a. anemia.
b. iron deficiency.
c. hemophilia.
d. thrombosis.
Answer:
D. Thrombosis
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Which of the following is an extension of the parietal peritoneum?
A.) Greater omentum
B.) Lesser omentum
C.) Falciform ligament
D.) All of the above
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:
D) all of the above.
Explanation:
they are all extensions of the parietal peritoneum
Al is a senior citizen who has been experiencing more and more loss of his peripheral vision. His primary care physician recently diagnosed him with glaucoma and has sent him to see a specialist. What treatment would the specialist MOST LIKELY prescribed to receive the effects of glaucoma?
a. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors that increase fluid production in the eyes to hydrate the conjunctiva
b. beta blockers that increase the outflow of fluids from the eye and reduce pressure between the cornea and lens
c. topical antibiotics administered directly to the eyes, killing the bacteria that caused the infection
d. topical anti-inflammatory drugs that can penetrate into the eye and reduce swelling of the eye's components
Answer:
I think b. beta blockers that increase the outflow of fluids from the eye and reduce pressure between the cornea and lens
Explanation:
For example timolol
Explain the Gibbs Donnan equilibrium
The nurse is caring for a client taking tamoxifen for breast cancer. Which client statement is most concerning and a priority to report to the HCP?
Answer: My periods have been heavy lately
Explanation:
Tamoxifen is referred to as a form of hormonal therapy that is called selective estrogen receptor modulator. When tamoxifen is inside the cells, it then prevents cancer from multiplying and growing.
Tamoxifen is typically associated with the increase in the risk of the person having endometrial cancer which has a symptom of excessive menstrual bleeding.
30 points!!!
Match each part of the eye with the correct label.
-lens
-fovea
-iris
-vitreous gel
-macula
-optic nerve
-retina
-cornea
-pupil
Answer:
1.irish 2. pupil 3.lens 4. cornea 5.retina 6.optic nerve
Explanation:
im not sure about this
30 points!!!
Match each part of the eye with the correct label.
-lens
-fovea
-iris
-vitreous gel
-macula
-optic nerve
-retina
-cornea
-pupil
Answer:
1- vitreous gel, 2- optic nerve, 3- macula, 4- fovea, 5- retina, 6- lens, 7- pupil, 8- cornea, 9- iris
Explanation:
-
How many viruses can be in a single drop of blood? (Hint 109)
How can diabetes insipidus be treated?
a. Drugs that block ADH receptors can be administered to help increase urination and ensure liquid processing.
b. Drugs such as corticosteroids can reduce unnecessary inflammation caused by damage to adrenal glands.
c. Hormone reduction therapy can cause the body to reabsorb hormones that are produced in excess due to tumors.
d. Hormone replacement therapy can replace ADH to help the kidneys retain water and stop excessive urination.
Answer:
d. Hormone replacement therapy can replace ADH to help the kidneys retain water and stop excessive urination
Explanation:
Central diabetes insipidus.
Typically, this form is treated with a synthetic hormone called desmopressin (DDAVP, Nocdurna). This medication replaces the missing anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) and decreases urination. You can take desmopressin in a tablet, as a nasal spray or by injection
Please describe what you look forward to most in your upcoming activities within the DCE.
DCE (Dynamic Contrasts Enhanced): This evaluation test is completed by health sciences students, and more specifically, nursing students.
What is DCE (Dynamic Contrasts Enhanced?Basic Steps for Evaluating the Various Patients or Subjects: In order to make the unknown entities more obvious and visible for identifying a person's position, each student gathers data pertaining to the health status of a patient or any other individual under consideration.
Gathering information on patients' history of influenza virus infection. We will learn more about the patient's medical history as it relates to that particular ailment.
Next, determine the patient's immune system's state of activation and current condition.
Therefore, DCE is the evaluation test is completed by health sciences students.
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It is generally agreed that consumption of caffeine is not good for prenatal development. If Mary wants to avoid caffeine, which should she choose to drink?
Answer:
Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices
Explanation:
Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices.
What is Decaffinated coffees?
Coffee that has been decaffeinated is similar to ordinary coffee but contains less caffeine. Since caffeine can never be totally eliminated, decaf coffee still has a very little quantity of caffeine (around 3% compared to regular coffee), as was already explained.
For instance, a cup of regular coffee contains approximately 95 milligrams of caffeine, whereas a cup of decaf coffee contains only about 2 mg.
When carbon dioxide is forced through coffee beans, it can separate various chemical compounds, such as caffeine from coffee.
Therefore, Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices.
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which of the following is not true of the continuous quality improvement process?
The iPledge Program of 2006 mandates a drug known as its generic name _______________ and its trade/brand name _______________.
Which term refers to l ow blood pressure?
a. hypertension
b. hypotension
c. pretensive
d. extensive
Answer:
B. Hypotension
Explanation:
I calculated logically
Answer:
b. hypotension
Explanation:
Your blood pushes against your arteries with each heartbeat. And the pushing of the blood against the artery walls is called blood pressure. Low blood pressure means that your blood pressure is lower than normal. Another name for low blood pressure is hypotension.
Interrupted or restricted breathing associated with breathing-related sleep disorders can also cause disrupted sleep and daytime sleepiness. Extreme cases involve short periods in which a person may stop breathing altogether, referred to as sleep apnea. If the cessation of breathing is due to a complete lack of respiratory activity, a person is experiencing?
A. Mixed Sleep Apnea
B. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
C. Central Sleep Apnea