What is the volume of the sphere in terms of 17
1 =
Itin.
6 in.

x>8 and x<2 are the two possible inequalities of |x - 5| > 3

a relationship between two expressions or values that are not equal to each other is called 'inequality.

Let x be the number

|x - 5| > 3

Now solve for x.

Suppose x - 5 is positive.  Then

x - 5 > 3

x > 8

Suppose x - 5 is negative.  Then |x - 5| = -(x - 5) = 5 - x

5-x>3

5-3>x

2>x

x<2

Hence, x>8 and x<2 are the two possible inequalities of |x - 5| > 3

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It is a linear pair of angles hence supplementary

[tex]\\ \tt\hookrightarrow 123+3x=180[/tex]

[tex]\\ \tt\hookrightarrow 3x=180-123[/tex]

[tex]\\ \tt\hookrightarrow 3x=57[/tex]

[tex]\\ \tt\hookrightarrow x=19[/tex]

Explanation:

The angles shown is supplementary because the sum of 123 and 3x is 180.

Thus, the equation formed:

Subtract 123 both sides:

Divide 3 both sides:

The value of x is 19.

Answer:

It might be $5000 x .025 x 1 = $125

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry if its wrong

Answer:

You're correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve using FOIL

(x-3)(x+10)

x²+10x-3x-30

x²+7x-30

That's the same as the equation in the beginning, so you are right.

Answer:

5) 13%  7) 3/28

Step-by-step explanation:

5)

total number of marbles: 2 + 3 + 5 + 1 + 2 + 2 = 15 marbles.

probability its blue: [tex]\frac{2}{15}[/tex] __in fraction

in percentage: [tex]\frac{2}{15}[/tex] * 100 = 13%

7)

total number of marbles: 4 + 5 + 2 + 9 + 1 = 21

probability of selecting a red marble: 5/21

then 1 marbles is reduced as not replaced.

total marbles: 21 - 1 = 20

probability of getting orange marble: 9/20

total probability:  9/20 * 5/21 = 3/28

Hey there!

5(m - 2) + 2w

= 5(8.4 - 2) + 10(1.25)

= 5(8.4) + 5(-2) + 10(1.25)

= 42 - 10 + 10(1.25)

= 32 + 12.50

≈ 32 + 12.5

= 44.50

≈ 44.5

Thus, your answer is: 44.5

Good luck on your assignment & enjoy your day!

~Amphitrite1040:)

Answer:

[tex]C=1342[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate circumference of the circle:

[tex]C=1342[/tex]

Answer:

0.0000638

Step-by-step explanation:

all you need to do is move the decimal point over 5 times but this will only work if your multiply by 10 and that it has a negative exponent

The number 6.38×10⁻⁵ written in ordinary form is 1/638000.

In scientific notations numbers are written in the form of a base that is

0  ≤ b < 10 and multiplied by 10ⁿ where n represents integers.

We write large standard numbers in scientific form in a compact manner.

Given, A number in scientific form as 6.38×10⁻⁵.

Now, We know an exponent must be written as a positive value.

Therefore,

6.38×10⁻⁵.

= 1/ 6.38×10⁵.

Now, The ordinary form of the number is when we write without the exponent.

So,

1/ 6.38×10⁵ is,

= 1/638000.

learn more about scientific notation here :

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Answer:

I couldn't figure out how to type it so I typed it somewhere else lol. Hope it helps:)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]x=4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]log_2(6x-8)-log_2(8)=1\\\\log_2(\frac{6x-8}{8})=1\\ \\\frac{6x-8}{8}=2\\ \\6x-8=16\\\\6x=24\\\\x=4[/tex]

Answer:

if i knew the answer i would say it but i need it to

Step-by-step explanation:

Verify with next one

Verified

formula

[tex]\\ \tt\hookrightarrow a_n=ar^{n-1}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \tt\hookrightarrow a_n=32(3/2)^{n-1}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]a_n=32 \cdot \left(\dfrac32 \right)^{n-1}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The difference between each term in the sequence is not the same, therefore the sequence is a geometric sequence.

Geometric sequence formula:  [tex]a_n=a r^{n-1}[/tex]

where [tex]a[/tex] is the start term and [tex]r[/tex] is the common ratio

Given [tex]a = 32[/tex]

To calculate [tex]r[/tex], divide one term by its previous term:

[tex]\implies r=\dfrac{a_4}{a_3}=\dfrac{108}{72}=\dfrac32[/tex]

Therefore, [tex]a_n=32 \cdot \left(\dfrac32 \right)^{n-1}[/tex]

Using the concept of the angle the conditions are solved. For any whole number n, 360+58n is coterminal with 418°. option C is correct.

Angle is the space between the line or the surface that meets.  And the angle is measured in degree. For complete 1 rotation, the angle is 360 degrees.

Given

The measures of all angles are coterminal with a 418° angle.

a.  360+58n, for any whole number n.

For any whole number n, 360+58n is not coterminal with 418° except one.

b.  58+360n, for any integer n.

For any integer number n, 360+58n is coterminal with 418° except zero.

c.  58+360n, for any whole number n.

For any whole number n, 360+58n is coterminal with 418°.

d.  360 58n, for any integer n.

For any integer number n, 360+58n is not coterminal with 418° except one.

Thus, for any whole number n, 360+58n is coterminal with 418°. option C is correct.

More about the angle link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/15767203

[tex]\displaystyle\\x^\frac{3}{2} =>\\\sqrt{x^3} ;x\sqrt{x} ;x\times x^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

think it's right. i don't now(or remember) any other ways

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

45/3=15

15 days on track

30 days not on track

Considering that 30 out of 120 clients are willing to pay at least $95, we use the it's concept and find that there is a 0.25 = 25% probability that a customer is willing to pay at least $95.

A probability is given by the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

In this problem, we suppose that 30 out of 120 clients are willing to pay at least $95, hence:

[tex]p = \frac{30}{120} = 0.25[/tex]

There is a 0.25 = 25% probability that a customer is willing to pay at least $95.

More can be learned about the probability concept at https://brainly.com/question/15536019

Explanation:

If x+2 is a factor of the other polynomial mentioned, then x = -2 is a root of that polynomial.

This means plugging x = -2 into the cubic expression will have it result in zero.

x^3- kx^2 +3x+7k = y

(-2)^3- k*(-2)^2 +3*(-2)+7k = 0

-8 - 4k - 6 + 7k = 0

3k - 14 = 0

3k = 14

k = 14/3

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:
64/80 is 0.8, 0.8 is equivalent to 80%

tell me if this is wrong please

[tex](\stackrel{x_1}{1}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{3})\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{6}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{-2}) ~\hfill \stackrel{slope}{m}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{rise} {\stackrel{y_2}{-2}-\stackrel{y1}{3}}}{\underset{run} {\underset{x_2}{6}-\underset{x_1}{1}}}\implies \cfrac{-5}{5}\implies -1[/tex]

Answer:4/45÷4/5.

Solving-0.1,3-2
Answer-1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 17/22

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Two points, (0,2) & (1,10)

Step-by-step explanation:

We already know the first point (0,2) just by looking at the +2 in the problem

Now we use the system rise/run to solve the problem

Go up vertically 8 to get to 10 (this is the rise part)

Next, go over 1 to get your x-axis point (this is the run part)

So our next point is (1,10)

Hope this helps and please award brainliest if possible :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the equation given:

8 is the gradient and 2 is the y-intercept

We can draw a point at (0,2) y-intercept

And we can substitute x with 1 to give us (1,10)

Use the diagram below for further details

Answer:

(2,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 6y = 14

-3x + 5y = 4

x + 6y = 14

subtract 6y from both sides

x = 14 - 6y

-3(14 - 6y) + 5y = 4

-42 + 18y + 5y = 4

add 42 to both sides and simplify

23y = 46

y = 2

x = 14 - 6y

x = 14 - 6(2)

x = 14 - 12

x = 2

Answer:

$9

Step-by-step explanation:

Total money Antonio has on Sunday =25 + 65=90

Now,10%of 90=9

So he gave $9 to church

Answer:

79% - almost 4 times out of 5.

The key to this is realizing that the number of games will not always be 5.

If A wins in a sweep - you have 2/3*(2/3)*2/3 percent chance of that happening - 8/27, or 29.63%

If A wins in 4, now we have 2/3*(2/3)*2/3*(1/3)*3 - the 1/3 is the chance that B wins a game. Note - there are only 3 ways B can win a game, not 4. B cannot win Game 4 because Game 4 would not be played in case of a sweep. That is why you cannot use a straight Pascal’s triangle to get your coefficients - the 1–4–6–4–1 is not possible if B cannot win Game 4. Anyway, the math is the same as the above, a 29.63% chance of A winning in 4.

For a 5 game set, A could lose 2 games in 6 possible ways (lose 1&2, 1&3, 1&4, 2&3, 2&4 or 3&4). Again, A cannot lose Game 5 - it would not be played once A wins 3 games. So the odds become 2/3*(2/3)*2/3*(1/3)*(1/3)*6, or 19.75%.

Add them up and you get 79.01%

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps<3