What is the surface area of the sphere, in square meters?

Possible answers:

A. Not enough information is given to calculate this surface area.

B. 804

C. 2144

D. 201

Answer:

40⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

z+40+z-20=180

2z+20=180

2z=160

z=80

z-20=80-20=60

the laptop screen of in 60-20=40⁰

The laptop screen turns off at 40°.

Two neighboring angles that add up to 180 degrees are referred to as a linear pair, as are two angles that, when added together, create a line or a straight angle.

Given, the angles (z + 40)° and (z - 20)°.

The angles (z + 40)° and (z - 20)° form a linear pair, and the sum of the linear pair is 180°, therefore,

(z + 40)° + (z - 20)° = 180°

2z + 20 = 180

2z = 160

z = 80

The value of (z- 20)° is:

(z- 20)°

= (80-20)°

= 60°

The laptop screen turns off at

60° - 20°

= 40 °

Hence, the laptop screen turns off at 40°.

Learn more about the linear pairs:

https://brainly.com/question/17525542

#SPJ2

Explanation:

h = number of hot dogs

The ratio of people to hot dogs is 1:0.8

If 150 people show up to the party, then

(number of people)/(number of hot dogs) = 1/0.8

150/h = 1/0.8

150*0.8 = h*1 ... cross multiply

120 = h

h = 120

You'll need 120 hot dogs.

Answer:

45 sq cm

Step-by-step explanation:

A triangle has an area of half of a rectangle if it has the same base and height.

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

The variable y in the second equation has a coefficient of 2 so it will be easy to divide the entire equation by 2.

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

5^3 * 5^6 = 5^(3+6) = 5^9 <-- Add exponents when multiplying

8^7 / 8^2 = 8^(7-2) = 8^5 <-- Subtract exponents when dividing

9^7 / 9^11 = 9^(7-11) = 9^(-4) <-- Subtract exponents when dividing

(4^5)^3 = 4^(5*3) = 4^15 <-- Multiply exponents when raising a base with an exponent to an exponent

Answer:

100 and 101

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there!

Let x be equal to the smaller number.

Let x + 1 be equal to the larger number, which is consecutive to the smaller number.

We are given that the sum of the two numbers is 201:

[tex]x+(x+1)=201\\x+x+1=201\\2x+1=201\\2x=200\\x=100[/tex]

Therefore, the smaller number is 100. Because the larger number is x + 1, it is 101.

I hope this helps!

Number 1

_______________

_______________

Now we can solve Number 1, there is one pair of Vertical angles being ∠5 and ∠3

_______________

Number 2

Since we know the definition of a Linear Pair we can solve this problem also, the only Linear Pair that we can choose out the ones give to us is ∠4 and ∠3, because they are adjacent.

_______________

[tex]{\huge{\boxed{\mathfrak{Answer}}}[/tex]

    2. ∠4 and ∠3

Answer:

630

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

630

Step-by-step explanation:

90/6=15

42/6=7

Those are the lowest you can go in those numbers and when you do 90*42  

it is 3780. Divide that by 6 and it is 630.

Answer:

ok so we now now many do have 0.35 so now lets just find out how many do

1-0.35=0.65

65% do have a ocean room so lets just multiply

0.65*160=104

104 do have a ocean facing room

Hope This Helps!!!

This is the graph hope this helps friend :)

Answer:

it is 800.00

Step-by-step explanation:

i did this a while ago

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

one dumpling in 3 minutes

[tex]\tt \dfrac{2.7}{2.5}=\dfrac{6.2}{AC}\\\\AC=5.740[/tex]

Answer: The simplest form would 1 to 1, 1/1 or 1 to 1

Step-by-step explanation:if you are smart you would know this

Answer:

The answer is A.

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

9x2=18 2groups

18x2=36. 4groups

36x2=72. 8groups

84-72=12. 9groups

Answer:

Answer:

118

Step-by-step explanation:

150+16%=174

174 - 32% = 118.32

118.32=118(to nearest whole number)

Answer:

its 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

trust me its the answer or

Standard deviations are used to measure the variability of the set

The reason they choose the standard deviation as the measure of variability is (a) when plotted, the data set had a normal distribution

When a data is distributed, the data can be measured using the median, the mean or the standard deviation.

If the data is a normal distribution, then the best measure of variability to use is the standard deviation

Hence, the true statement is (a) when plotted, the data set had a normal distribution

Read more about measure of variability at:

https://brainly.com/question/13154114

Answer:

1. correct (conversion = x1000)

2. correct (conversion = [divided by] 1000)

3. wrong (conversion should be x100)

4. wrong (conversion should be x1000)

5. correct (conversion = x10)

Answer:

option 1, 2 and 5 are correct

Step-by-step explanation:

1 Km = 1000 m

1) 1.25 km = 1.25 * 1000 = 1250 m

2) 0.345 km = 0.345 *1000 = 345 m

5)   1.7m cm = 1.7 * 10 = 17 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

the ratio of 1/18 simply means that 1 inch in the drawing represents 18 inches in reality.

so, the real flag is therefore

2×18 = 36 inches long and 1×18 = 18 inches wide (or high).

the area of the actual flag is therefore

36 × 18 = 648 in²

Answer:

tomato B weighs more than tomato A

Step-by-step explanation:

Tomato A: 6oz = 169.8g

Tomato B: 6.10oz = 173g

Answer:

95

Step-by-step explanation:

the interior angles of a square add upto 360

and from the arrows we know that the parallel sides are equal

so there will be two angles which are 85

so:

360-85-85 = 190

190/2 = 95

Answer:

81 because area=lxh so 9x9 is 81

[tex]i \: hope \: it \: will \: hellp \: you \: [/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 2 is also 75 deg since vertical angles are congruent

This means angle 1 = 180 - 75 = 105 degrees

Answer:

- B

x = 9

y = 3

Prediction for some count is usually expressible as expectation of some random variable. The reasonable prediction for the number of times a white or red marble will be drawn is 54

A  random variable is usually taking some numerical information of each elementary event of the sample space . (map from sample space to real numbers). Its expected value is the best prediction value in most of the cases.

Binomial distributions consists of n independent Bernoulli trials.

Bernoulli trials are those trials which end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures( with probability 1- p = q (say))

Suppose we have random variable X pertaining binomial distribution with parameters n and p, then it is written as

[tex]X \sim B(n,p)[/tex]

The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by

[tex]P(X =x) = \: ^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

For the given case, as the ball being drawn is being replaced too, so we can take all 180 experiments to be independent from each other.

If we call

Success = Event of drawing white or  red marble

Failure = Event of drawing any other marble instead of white or red

Then, each marble drawing event is having two outcomes: success or failure. This makes each drawing a Bernoulli  experiment.

Modelling this situation with binomial distribution would be good.

Let X = number of successes in those 180 experiments.

Thus, we get

[tex]X \sim B(n = 180, p= 0.3)[/tex]

The expectation of random variable X is the best prediction of count of times we will get in those 180 trials.

The expectation of a  random variable is: [tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

Thus, we get:

[tex]E(X) = 180 \times 0.3 = 54[/tex]

Thus, the reasonable prediction for the number of times a white or red marble will be drawn is 54

Learn more about binomial distribution here:

https://brainly.com/question/13609688

Answer:

[tex]3(8) - 4(2) + ( - 6) \\ \\ 24 - 8 - 6 \\ \\ 16 - 6 \\ \\ 10[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: 3x - 4y + z [/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \sf \: 3( 8 ) - 4 ( 2 ) + ( -6 )[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: 24 - 8 - 6[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: 16 - 6[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \underline{ 10}[/tex]

Answer:

  5.26% profit (NRs 7,894.24)

Step-by-step explanation:

The exchange of 1,50,000 NRs to A$ will give ...

  A$ 1/(NRs 77.02) = x /1,50,000

  x = A$ 1,50,000/77.02 = A$ 1947.54 . . . . . (rounded down)

If the Nepali rupees are devalued by 5%, then what did buy A$ 1 will now buy only A$ 0.95. Then the exchange back to NRs will give ...

  (NRs 77.02)/(A$ 0.95) = x/(A$ 1947.54)

  x = NRs (1947.54)(77.02/0.95) = NRs 1,57,894.24

The effective profit is the difference from the amount initially exchanged, NRs 7,894.24, or ...

  (1,57,984.24/1,50,000 -1) × 100% ≈ 5.26%

__

Additional comment

Except for the loss in the exchange due to rounding down, the profit would be 1/0.95 -1 = 5.2632%. Instead, it is 5.2628%. This is why investors move their money to investments that retain their value when the local currency is losing its value.