Tickets for all of the described charity raffle games cost $2 per ticket .identify the games in which a person who buys a ticket for each game every day for the next 400 days could expect to lose less than a total of $200

Answer:

The mode are: 7, 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]7, 11, 8, 7, 8, 7, 8, 11, 8, 10, 7[/tex]

Required

Determine the mode

We start by arranging the given data in ascending order

The ordered data are:

[tex]7,7,7,7, 8,8,8,8, 10, 11, 11[/tex]

From the above data.

7 has a frequency of 4

8 has a frequency of 4

10 has a frequency of 1

11 has a frequency of 2

The data with the highest frequency is the mode.

We can see that 7 and 8 both have frequencies of 4

Hence, the mode are: 7, 8

Answer:

The mode are: 7, 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: ∞

Step-by-step explanation: First, find the indefinite integral F (x), and then evaluate F (∞)–F(– ∞).

Answer:

34992.66

Step-by-step explanation:

nice to know!

Answer:

7,084 cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate volume you have to take all three measurements and multiply them as so: x times y times z. In this case x = 23 y = 28 and z = 11. When you multiply these 3 numbers together you will get 7,048 cm^3.

Answer:

7,084 cubic cm

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 23 x 28 x 11

Answer:

x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

3*9+x=27-x [9^1=9]

27+x=27-x

27-27= x+x

2x=0

x=0

Answer:(9x-7) (5x+9)

Answer:

-7d-14

Step-by-step explanation:

First, let's distribute -7 to (d+2)

-7xd

-7x2

We will get -7d-14

The options given don't correspond to the values in the question. The options are from another question where mean is 5.3 and the probability being looked for is for exactly 3 occurrences and 5 occurrences

Answer:

A) 0.6511

B) Poisson distribution

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

Mean: μ = 5.4 minutes

Now, we want to find the probability that there are more than 5 occurrences in ten minutes.

This will be written as;

P(x > 5) = 1 - P(x < 5)

P(x < 5) = P(x = 4) + P(x = 3) + P(x = 2) + P(x = 1) + P(x = 0)

We will use Poisson distribution for this. The formula is;

P(x) = [(e^(-μ)) × μ^(x)]/x!

P(0) = [(e^(-5.4)) × 5.4^(0)]/0! = 0.004517

P(1) = [(e^(-5.4)) × 5.4^(1)]/1! = 0.02439

P(2) = [(e^(-5.4)) × 5.4^(2)]/2! = 0.06585

P(3) = [(e^(-5.4)) × 5.4^(3)]/3! = 0.11853

P(4) = [(e^(-5.4)) × 5.4^(4)]/4! = 0.16

Thus;

P(x < 5) = 0.16 + 0.11853 + 0.06585 + 0.004517 = 0.3489

Thus;

P(x > 5) = 1 - P(x < 5) = 1 - 0.3489 = 0.6511

B) like seen from solution A above, we used Poisson distribution formula.

Thus, random variable x satisfies Poisson distribution

Answer:

Yes only A

Step-by-step explanation:

Complete Question

The formula for the lateral area of a right cone is LA = πrs, where r is the radius of the base and s is the slant height of the cone. Which are equivalent equations? Select two correct answers.

a) s = s equals StartFraction L A Over pi r EndFraction.

b) s = s equals StartFraction pi r Over L A EndFraction.

c) s = LAr

d) r = r equals StartFraction L A Over pi s EndFraction.

e) r = LAs

Answer:

a) s equals StartFraction L A Over pi r EndFraction.

d) r = r equals StartFraction L A Over pi s EndFraction.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the Lateral Surface Area of a right cone is given in the question as:

LA = πrs

Where

r is the radius of the base and s is the slant height of the cone.

From the options given,

We can make s the subject of the formula.

Hence:

Making s the subject of the formula

LA = πrs

Divide both sides by πr

s = LA/πr

Hence: Option a) s equals StartFraction L A Over pi r EndFraction. Is correct.

Step 2

Making r the subject of the Formula

LA = πrs

Divide both sides by πs

r = LA/πs

Hence: Option d) r equals StartFraction L A Over pi s EndFraction. Is correct.

Answer:

The answer is A and D.

Step-by-step explanation:

I took the quiz !

Answer:

$237

Step-by-step explanation:

4266 divided by 18

Answer:

approximately 7 days

Step-by-step explanation:

20 ÷ 3 = 6.6 repeating, round up to 7 days

Answer:

3days and 8hours

Step-by-step explanation:

he painted 3/20 in 1/2day then

3/20 painted  for 1/2 day =12 hours so

1/20 was painted in 12/3=4 hours

since 20 /20 will be how long will be needed to paint the entire fence

20*4hour = 80hours which is (24*3)+8 that will make

3days and 8hours or

3and 1/3 days

Answer:

I think it is all false. 45 minutes is 19 and 55 is 23

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

The sides of the quadrilateral are tangents to the circle.

Tangents drawn from an external point to the circle are congruent

5+5+4+4+3+3+4+4=32

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

i did it and got it right

Answer:

hope this helps.

btw I used synthetic decision method

Answer:

4 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

1/12 time what equals 1? 12 so do it to the other equation and simplify 12/3 to get 4.

Answer:

For the 6 ice cream bar: $2.25

For the 10 ice cream bar: $4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.3333

Step-by-step explanation:

1.3333

Conversion Table

miles per hour to miles per minute

mph mi/min

80 1.3333

90 1.5

100 1.6667

The speed of this:

70 miles per hour

1 hour = 60 minutes

70/60 = 7/6

around 1 1/6 mile per minute

hope this helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

it is losing 4 500 every   2 hours. so 2 250 every hour. It will go like 19 000

- 14 500 - 10 000 - 5 500 -  1 000. Then it will lose the rest in less than 30 minutes

Answer: 12:9

Step-by-step explanation:

He had 12 milk chocolate bars and 9 almond chocolate bars so the answer is 12:9

And it is also 12:9 is because they ask milk chocolate TO almond chocolate .

Putting money into more than one kind of investment at a time is called Diversification.

This a technique which helps to reduce risk through investing in different sectors and opportunities.

It also involves putting money in more than one type of investment which makes Diversification the most appropriate choice.

Read more about Diversification here https://brainly.com/question/18647091

#SPJ2

Answer:

What is the question?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The initial value is 150 and the rate of change is 30

150+30x=y

Answer:

B.3/4

I tried looking for an answer but someone just answers my question and didn’t even write anything it was blank, so I just guessed :/

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

86.96%

Step-by-step explanation:

s2 = a2 / n  

a2 =  4.34782608696 if just 1/1 flavour 400/400 was the case.

We are asked to account for 5 flavours 4.34782608696/5

Z test was  0.86956521739 for red candies

s2 = a2/n

a2 = 0.86956521739/1

s2 = 0.86956521739/1  

s2 = 0.87 hundredth place

Percentage  0.86956521739 x 100 = 86.96% to 100th place

Answer:

2nd one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Driving Speed

Step-by-step explanation:

The Independent variable is the one that is being experimented on to see the effect it will have on the dependent variable.

The Independent variable is adjusted to different levels to see if a relationship exists between these adjustments and a change in the dependent variable.

In this scenario the independent variable would be the speed you drive your car whilst time taken to completely stop is the dependent variable because the speed is the variable being adjusted to see the time taken to completely stop the car.

Answer:

yess thir correct answer