The scatter plot below represents the weight of a bunch of
bananas based on the number of bananas in the bunch. A
trend line shows the relationship.

About how many pounds does the trend line predict that a bunch with 9 bananas will weight?

A. 3.0

B 4.0

C 3.5

D 4.5

Answer:

The answer is A

Step-by-step explanation: if 4 is the radius you take 4 and square it

(4 times 4= 16)

16 times pie

(in this case 3.14)

equals: 50.24

Answer:

Decimal = 0.05

Percentage = 5%

Explanation:

Total count : 20

Sarah count : 1

probability = favorable outcomes/total outcomes

                   =     1/20

                   =     0.05

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right on the test

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

The inequalities are; 5¹/₄ tons = 10500 pounds; 1/2 ton + 3/4 ton > 2800 pounds; 2 tons > 60000 pounces; 1¹/₄tons > 20000 ounces

1) 5¹/₄ tons when converted to pounds is 10500 pounds.

Thus; 5¹/₄ tons = 10500 pounds.

2) 1/2 ton + 3/4 ton = 5/4 tons

Converting 1.25 to tons gives 2500 tons. Thus;

1/2 ton + 3/4 ton > 2800 pounds

3) Converting 2 tons to Ounces gives 64000 ounces. Thus;

2 tons > 60000 pounces.

4) 1¹/₄tons - ¹/₂ton = ³/₄ tons

Converting to ounces gives 24000 ounces

Thus; 1¹/₄tons > 20000 ounces

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Answer:

A=l*w

Step-by-step explanation:

so We Derive Their Formula

L=A/w

Answer:

[tex]x = \dfrac{21}8[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]~~~~~~~~\dfrac 1 2 -x + \dfrac 34 = x-4\\\\\\\implies \dfrac 24 + \dfrac 34 - x =x-4\\\\\\\implies \dfrac 54+4=x+x\\\\\\\implies 2x = \dfrac{21}{4}\\\\\\\implies x = \dfrac{21}{4 \cdot 2}\\\\\\\implies x = \dfrac{21}8[/tex]

7-digit:9999999

9-digit: 1000000

Answer:

0.75gal.

Step-by-step explanation:

(4gal.) (2qt) - (3gal.) (3qt) =

the easiest way to solve this would be get everything in the same units,

lets make the qt to gallons

2qt = 0.5gal                          divide the volume value by 4

3qt = 0.75gal

 (4gal.) + (0.5gal.) - (3gal.) + (0.75gal.)

= (4.5gal.) - (3.75gal.)

= 0.75gal.

Deena is 420 miles from home in 12 hours.

The graph is shown below. The graph is linear

From the question, we are to determine how far Deena is from home in 12 hours

From the given linear equation,

y = 35x

We are to determine how far Deena is from home in 12 hours

That is,

x = 12 hours

Put x = 12 into the equation,

∴y = 35(12)
y = 420 miles

Hence, Deena is 420 miles from home in 12 hours.

The graph is shown below. The graph is linear

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Since diagonals bisect each other, both halves of a diagonal have the  same length.

[tex]5y-5=y+23\\4y=28\\y=7\\\\2x-0=x+2\\x=2[/tex]

Therefore b)

Answer:

There were 67 coins in the bag, 36 of which were 50-cent coins and 31 of which were 20-cent coins.

Let x be the number of 50-cent coins in the bag,

And y be the number of 20-cent coins.

From the problem,

we know that y = x - 5,

Since there were 5 fewer 20-cent coins than 50-cent coins.

We can also set up an equation for the total value of the coins in the bag,

⇒ 0.5x + 0.2y = 24.20

Now we can substitute y = x - 5 into the equation,

⇒ 0.5x + 0.2(x - 5) = 24.20

Simplifying, we get,

⇒ 0.7x - 1 = 24.20

⇒ 0.7x = 25.20

⇒ x = 36

So there were 36 50-cent coins in the bag.

Using y = x - 5,

We can find that there were 31 20-cent coins.

Therefore, there were a total of 67 coins in the bag (36 + 31 = 67).

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Considering it's volume of 113 cm³, the approximate radius of the sphere is given by:

A. 3 cm

The volume of an sphere of radius r is given by:

[tex]V = \frac{4\pi r^3}{3}[/tex]

In this problem, we have that V = 113 cm³, hence the radius in cm is given as follows:

[tex]V = \frac{4\pi r^3}{3}[/tex]

[tex]113 = \frac{4\pi r^3}{3}[/tex]

[tex]r^3 = \frac{113 \times 3}{4\pi}[/tex]

[tex]r = \sqrt[3]{\frac{113 \times 3}{4\pi}}[/tex]

r = 3 cm.

Hence option A is correct.

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Answer:

is 3 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option 4

Step-by-step explanation:

                h = x units

   diameter = x units

                 r = (x/2) units

    [tex]\sf \boxed{\text{ \bf Volume of cone = $\dfrac{1}{3} \pi r^2h$}}[/tex]

                                   [tex]\sf =\dfrac{1}{3}*\pi * (\dfrac{x}{2})^2*x\\\\=\dfrac{1}{3}*\pi*\dfrac{x^2}{4}*x\\\\=\dfrac{1}{12}\pi x^3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

we can see that this is an absolute value function. we know that for the graph to be shifted to the left the value of the constant inside the absolute value should be positive. and the fact that it is shifted down means that there is a negative constant outside the absolute value. the equation is:

| X + 5 | - 1

Answer:

you're right

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is false because side AD and sides AE are not the same length, so AB/BD does not equal AC/CE

Answer: g(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

IUOIUJUIYIYIYUYUYUYIYUYUY

The region [tex]D[/tex] is essentially parameterized in three dimensions by

[tex]\Phi(u,v) = (u^2, u+v, 0)[/tex]

with [tex]1\le u\le8[/tex] and [tex]0\le v\le6[/tex].

The normal vector to [tex]D[/tex] is

[tex]\vec n = \dfrac{\partial\Phi}{\partial u} \times \dfrac{\partial\Phi}{\partial v} = (0,0,2u)[/tex]

with norm [tex]\|\vec n\| = 2u[/tex].

Then the surface integral is

[tex]\displaystyle \iint_D y \, dA = 2 \int_0^6 \int_1^8 (u+v)u \, du \, dv \\\\ = 2 \int_0^6 \left(\frac{1022}3 + 63 v\right) \, dv = \boxed{3178}[/tex]

[tex](\stackrel{x_1}{0}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{1})\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{1}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{-2}) \\\\\\ \stackrel{slope}{m}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{rise} {\stackrel{y_2}{-2}-\stackrel{y1}{1}}}{\underset{run} {\underset{x_2}{1}-\underset{x_1}{0}}} \implies \cfrac{-2 -1}{1 +0} \implies \cfrac{ -3 }{ 1 }\implies -3[/tex]

[tex]\begin{array}{|c|ll} \cline{1-1} \textit{point-slope form}\\ \cline{1-1} \\ y-y_1=m(x-x_1) \\\\ \cline{1-1} \end{array}\implies y-\stackrel{y_1}{1}=\stackrel{m}{-3}(x-\stackrel{x_1}{0}) \\\\\\ y-1=-3x\implies y=-3x+1[/tex]

Answer:

If using a calculator, you can calculate one number as a percentage of another by dividing the numbers and multiplying by 100.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m = 50h, where m is the distance traveled in miles

The dimension of the original photo is 11 inches by 11 inches.

Given that, the area of the reduced photo is 64 square inches.

In the equation [tex](x -3)^{2} = 64[/tex], x represents the side measure of the original photo.

We have to determine the dimensions of the original photo.

An equation is a formula that expresses the equality of two expressions, by connecting them with the equals sign =.

Now, solve the equation for the value of x.

By square rooting on both the side, we get

[tex]\sqrt{(x-3)^{2} } =\sqrt{64}[/tex]

⇒[tex](x-3)=[/tex]±[tex]8[/tex]

⇒[tex]x=8+3=11[/tex] and [tex]x=-8+3=-5[/tex]

The length and width can not be negative.

Therefore, the dimension of the original photo is 11 inches by 11 inches.

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Answer: A) 11 inches by 11 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Edg 2022

The length and width of the piece of​ metal are 20 and 30 inches respectively.

The term “volume” refers to the amount of three-dimensional space taken up by an item or a closed surface. It is denoted by V and its SI unit is in cubic cm.

Dimension of the rectangle;

Width(w)

Length,L= 10 + w

volume of the box = length  * width * height

Dimension of the box;

length of box, (x + 10) - 4  = x + 6

width of box,(x - 4)

height of box =  2

The volume of the box is 1102 in³;

⇒V=lwh

⇒V=2 (x -4)( x + 6) =

⇒1102 in³ = 2x² + 4x - 48

⇒2x² + 4x - 880 = 0

⇒x  + 2x - 440 = 0

⇒(x + 22)(x - 20) = 0

⇒x = 20

⇒x=-22 (value of the dimesion will not be negative.

The width of an original piece of metal is;

Width,w=20 inches

length,l= 30 inches

Hence. the length and width of the piece of​ metal are 20 and 30 inches respectively.

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Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is b

Answer:

D) [tex]22\:\text{m/s}^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Acceleration is the derivative of velocity, which is the derivative of position, so we must differentiate the function twice:

Position of Particle: [tex]s(t)=t^3-4t^2+2t+8[/tex]

Velocity of Particle: [tex]v(t)=3t^2-8t+2[/tex]

Acceleration of Particle: [tex]a(t)=6t-8[/tex]

After [tex]t=5[/tex] seconds, the acceleration of the particle is [tex]a(5)=6(5)-8=30-8=22\:\text{m/s}^2[/tex]

The acceleration of the particle after 5 seconds is 38 m/s².

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity or the slope of velocity.

We know that the first derivative of motion or speed is velocity and the second derivative of motion or speed is acceleration.

∴ We have to take the derivative of s = t³ + 4t² + 2t + 8 twice to obtain the equation of acceleration and replace t with 5 to get the acceleration value after 5 seconds.

Now, s = t³ + 4t² + 2t + 8 meters.

ds/dt = 3t² + 8t + 2 m/s.

d²s/dt² = 6t + 8m/s²

Now, at t = 5 seconds d²s/dt² = 6t + 8 is,

d²s/dt² = 6(5) + 8 m/s².

d²s/dt² = 38 m/s².

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Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{13}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The total number of cards in a standard deck of cards is 52, in which there:

King: 4 cards <----------

Queens: 4 cards

Jack: 4 cards

Ace: 4 cards

Club/Diamond/Heart/Spade: 13 cards

Moreover, 26 of the 52 cards are red, and the remainder 26 are of black.

So the probability that a "king" card will be picked is [tex]\frac{4}{52}[/tex], which can be further simplified [tex]\frac{1}{13}[/tex]