The nurse is triaging victims after an explosion at an oil refinery. one victim reports tinnitus, dizziness, and otorrhea. For tympanic rupture condition should the nurse prepare care.
Ear discharge (otorrhea) is leaking exiting the ear. It may be serous, serosanguineous, or purulent. Possible auxiliary symptoms include hearing loss, tinnitus, hearing loss, fever, pruritus, and ear pain. Otorrhea, also referred to as ear discharge, is ear drainage. It may be serous, serosanguineous, or purulent. Possible auxiliary symptoms include hearing loss, tinnitus, hearing loss, fever, itching, and ear ache. Causes of ear discharge may arise from the ear canal, the middle ear, or the cranial vault. Certain causes tend to manifest acutely because of the strength of their symptoms or concomitant diseases. Others often progress more slowly and continuously, but occasionally exhibit acute symptoms. The most serious causes are necrotizing external otitis and cancer of the ear. When the eardrum ruptures (tympanic membrane perforation), there is a hole or tear in the thin tissue separating the ear canal from the middle ear. A ruptured eardrum might result in hearing loss. It can also make the middle ear vulnerable to infections.
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you are caring for a man with terminal cancer when his caretaker presents you with a physician order for life-sustaining treatment (polst) form. the purpose of this form is to:
A caretaker of a man with terminal cancer gave you a POLST form. The purpose of this form is to: describe acceptable PT interventions in the form of med orders.
What is the Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining (POLST) form?The POLTS form is a written order from a physician that gives people with serious illnesses (for example, terminal cancer) more control over their own care. It means, the client with the POLTS form can specify which medical treatment they only want to receive. When a nurse handled this form by the client’s caretaker, they should follow the acceptable interventions of taking care of the client regarding the document.
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an adolescent client visits the school nurse reporting back pain, fatigue, and dyspnea. the nurse suspects scoliosis. which action does the nurse take before developing a further plan of care?
The nurse should initially look for uneven hip or shoulder heights in the infant.
What is scoliosis?
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine, which is most usually diagnosed in teenagers. A typical spine appears straight when viewed from behind. However, a child with scoliosis will have a S or C-shaped spine. The curve may occur on either the right or left side of the rotation. Alternately, it could happen in different places on both sides. Both the middle (thoracic) and lower (lumbar) spines may be impacted.
Scoliosis symptoms
uneven shoulder blades and shouldersStanding arms and body distances are not equalskewed hipslarge or protruding ribs in one placemuscles that protrude from the lower back or that protrude from one sidewaistline with uneven skin foldsTo know more about scoliosis https://brainly.com/question/17929330
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a client with heart failure is experiencing acute shortness of breath. what is the nurse's priority action?
the nurse is performing a neurological assessment on an adult client suspected of having a traumatic brain injury (tbi). which signs/symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the client's icp is increasing.
Projectile vomiting and Delay in verbal response would indicate to the nurse that the client's ICP is increasing.
Because the vomiting center in the brain is being stimulated, projectile vomiting can occur. When you have a headache and the client vomits, you must assume that the ICP is rising! With increasing ICP, the client's speech may become slower or slurred. The verbal suggestion is delayed. To put it another way, they may be slow to respond to commands.
As ICP rises, the client develops systolic hypertension and a wider pulse pressure. With cardiac tamponade, the pulse pressure narrows.
A traumatic brain injury is typically caused by a violent blow or jolt to the head or body. Traumatic brain injury can also be caused by an object that passes through brain tissue, such as a bullet or shattered piece of skull. Mild traumatic brain injury can temporarily affect your brain cells.
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a woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the labor and delivery unit complaining of vaginal bleeding. which signs/symptoms indicate that the client's bleeding is caused by placenta previa? select all that apply.
Mucus and light bleeding point to a bloody labour display uterine rupture or abruptio placentae.
what is placenta previa ?
A pregnancy issue known as placenta previa occurs when the placenta totally or partially blocks the entrance of the uterus (cervix).
During pregnancy, an organ called the placenta grows within the uterus. It functions to provide the newborn nutrients and oxygen as well as to eliminate waste. Your baby and the placenta are linked via the umbilical chord. The placenta is often fastened to the top or side of the uterus' inner wall.
The placenta attaches lower in the uterus in cases of placenta previa. As a result, the cervix is partially covered by placental tissue. It may lead to bleeding during labour, throughout the pregnancy, or after delivery.
Mucus and light bleeding point to a bloody labour display. Bright crimson blood that bleeds suddenly and painlessly may indicate vasa previa or placenta previa. Blood that is dark crimson and clots implies uterine rupture or abruptio placentae.
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a client is taking ginkgo biloba, a botanical supplement. she asks the nurse if it would be safe to take aspirin for her arthritis at the same time. the nurse's response is based on what knowledge?
The nurse's response would be based on knowledge of potential interactions between ginkgo biloba and aspirin.
What is Ginkgo biloba?
Ginkgo biloba is a herbal supplement derived from the Ginkgo biloba tree. It is commonly used to help improve memory, concentration, and mental focus, as well as to protect against age-related mental decline. Ginkgo biloba is also thought to help improve blood circulation and reduce inflammation.
The nurse would need to assess the potential for adverse effects and discuss the risks and benefits of combining the two medications. The nurse should tell the client that it is best to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any combination of supplements and medications. It is generally safe to take aspirin and ginkgo biloba at the same time, but it is always best to consult a healthcare professional before taking any medications or supplements. Aspirin and ginkgo biloba can interact with each other, and may cause side effects, depending on the dosage and other medications or supplements that the client is taking.
What is Aspirin?
Aspirin is an over-the-counter medication used to reduce pain, inflammation, and fever. It is also used to prevent and treat heart attacks, stroke, and angina. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and belongs to a group of medicines called salicylates.
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all of the following are effects of the class of drugs called narcotic analgesicsexcepta. relaxation.b. diarrhea.c. pain reduction.d. euphoria.answer:b
All of the following are effects of the class of drugs called narcotic analgesics except diarrhea.
Opioids are drugs that bind to opioid receptors and produce morphine-like effects. They are primarily used in medicine for pain relief, including anesthesia. Other medical applications include diarrhea suppression, opioid replacement therapy, reversing opioid overdoses, and cough suppression. Nonopioid drugs, opioid drugs, and narcotics are the three types of analgesics. Adjuvants are coanalgesic medications.
Morphine is widely regarded as the prototypical opioid analgesic and the standard against which all other painkillers are measured. There is evidence that the opium poppy, Papaver somniferum, was cultivated for its active ingredients as early as 3000 BC.
Analgesics are a type of medication that is used to treat pain. Acetaminophen (Tylenol), which is available over the counter (OTC) or by prescription when combined with another drug, is one of them, as are opioids (narcotics), which are only available by prescription.
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which results does the nurse observe in the blood report of a patient diagnosed with softening of bones caused by vitamin d deficiency? select all that apply.
The result that the nurse observed in the blood report of a patient diagnosed with softening of bones caused by vitamin D deficiency is low calcium levels caused by osteomalacia.
What is osteomalacia?
Osteomalacia is the softening of the bones. It's most frequently caused by a problem with vitamin D, which helps your body absorb calcium. Your body needs calcium to maintain bone strength and hardness.In children, this condition is called rickets.Not having the right quantum of calcium in the blood can lead to weak and soft bones. Low blood calcium can be caused by low blood vitaminD.Vitamin D is absorbed from food or produced by the skin when exposed to sun. A insufficiency of vitamin D produced by the skin can do in people who live in climates with little exposure to sun.To know more about osteomalacia, click the link given below:
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the nurse is instructing the mother of a toddler diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (cf) about specific dietary modifications the child will need. the nurse knows the teaching is successful when the mother selects what foods? (select all that apply).
The mother should select foods with high-energy and high-fat diet, in addition to supplemental vitamins and minerals.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a disease of exocrine gland function that involves multiple organ systems but chiefly results in chronic respiratory infections, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and associated complications in untreated patients.Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, and most carriers of the gene are asymptomatic.Regular exercise increases physical fitness in patients with cystic fibrosis; upper body exercises, such as canoe paddling, may increase respiratory muscle endurance.Routine vaccinations are indicated in patients with cystic fibrosis, including seasonal influenza vaccination.
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an adolescent with a history of asthma is brought to the emergency department in respiratory distress. the primary healthcare provider admits the adolescent. which is the priorty prescription to implement upon arrival to the unit?
The priorty prescription to implement upon arrival to the unit is the use of a nebulizer to treat breathing difficulty
Define asthma.
Your airways may swell, become more constricted, and create more mucus if you have asthma. Shortness of breath, coughing, wheezing when you exhale, and difficulty breathing can all result from this.
You will require medications to immediately control your asthma if you visit the emergency room with an asthma attack already in progress. Albuterol is an example of a short-acting beta agonist. The medicines in your rescue (quick-acting) inhaler are the same. The medication can be inhaled deeply into your lungs by using a device known as a nebulizer, which transforms it into a mist.
Steroids- These drugs, when taken orally, can lower lung inflammation and regulate asthma symptoms. Corticosteroids can also be administered intravenously; often, patients who are vomiting or are having respiratory failure receive this treatment.
When albuterol is not fully effective, ipratropium may be administered as a bronchodilator to treat a severe asthma attack.
Mechanical ventilation, oxygen, and intubation. A breathing tube may be inserted down your neck and into your upper airway if your asthma episode poses a life-threatening risk. While your doctor administers medications to control your asthma, using a machine that pumps oxygen into your lungs will help you breathe.
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What actions result in the best chance of survival if someone is not breathing (or only gasping) and isn't responding?.
If they are unresponsive and not breathing, push firmly downwards in the middle of their chest at a regular rate. Ideally, This will help build up a supply of oxygen in their blood which helps them in breathing.
What is breathing?
Breathing (or ventilation) is the process of moving air in and out of the lungs, primarily to expel carbon dioxide and bring in oxygen, to facilitate gas exchange with the internal environment.
Therefore, If they are unresponsive and not breathing, push firmly downwards in the middle of their chest at a regular rate. Ideally, This will help build up a supply of oxygen in their blood which helps them in breathing.
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a client at 37 weeks' gestation presents to the emergency department with a bp 150/108 mm hg, 1 pedal edema, 1 proteinuria, and normal deep tendon reflexes. which assessment should the nurse prioritize as the client is administered magnesium sulfate iv?
The nurse should prioritize the assessment of the respiratory rate when the client is administered Magnesium Sulfate IV.
What does respiratory rate mean?
The number of breaths a person takes per minute is referred to as their respiratory rate. An adult's resting respiratory rate typically falls between 12 and 16 breaths per minute.
When the client is administered Magnesium Sulfate IV, the nurse needs to ensure that the level of magnesium of the client remains within the therapeutic range of 4 to 8 mg/dL. In case, the magnesium level exceeds this, the client will experience magnesium toxicity. A decrease in the respiratory rate and/or a probable respiratory arrest are two signs of magnesium toxicity in the patient.
Hence, the nurse should prioritize the assessment of the respiratory rate when the client is administered Magnesium Sulfate IV.
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Respiratory rate assessment should the nurse prioritize as the client is administered magnesium sulfate iv.
What about respiratory rate?The respiratory rate of a person is defined as how many breaths they take each minute. The resting respiratory rate of an adult normally ranges from 12 to 16 breaths per minute.The nurse must make sure that the client's magnesium level stays within the therapeutic range of 4 to 8 mg/dL when receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV. The customer will experience magnesium toxicity if the level of magnesium is higher. Two symptoms of magnesium toxicity in the patient include a decrease in respiratory rate and/or a possible respiratory arrest.The amount of breaths an individual takes per minute is known as their respiration rate. It's simple to count how many times the chest rises in a minute to calculate the pace while a person is at rest.Fever, sickness, and other medical conditions can all cause an increase in respiration rates.Therefore, the nurse should give the measurement of the respiration rate top priority when giving the client IV magnesium sulfate.Learn more about respiration rate here:
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your patient is suffering from fever and complaining of fatigue, chills, and muscle pain. he stated that he returned from a hunting trip about two weeks ago where he had consumed undercooked wild game. what is he likely suffering from?
Trichinellosis. People can contract trichinellosis, often known as trichinosis, by consuming raw or undercooked meat from animals that have the tiny parasite Trichinella.
What happens if trichinosis is left untreated?Roundworm infections include trichinosis, often known as trichinellosis. These parasitic roundworms live and reproduce inside the bodies of their hosts. Animals including bears, cougars, walruses, foxes, wild boars, and domestic pigs are also susceptible to these parasites.Trichinella larvae feed on raw or undercooked meat in humans and develop into adult worms in the small intestine. This process takes a while. The larvae that are produced by the adult worms circulate throughout the body as blood to various organs. They then cover their bodies in muscle. Most trichidiosis cases occur in rural areas of the world. Trichinosis infection signs and symptoms might differ, as can the severity of the condition. This is based on how many larvae were consumed when the meat was contaminated.To learn more trichinosis about refer :
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Trichinellosis People who consume raw or undercooked meat from animals that have the microscopic parasite Trichinella are at risk of developing trichinellosis, also known as trichinosis.
What results from a lack of treatment for trichinosis?
Trichinosis, often called trichinellosis, is a common ailment caused by roundworms. These roundworm parasites develop and dwell inside their hosts' bodies. These parasites can also infect animals like bears, cougars, walruses, foxes, wild boars, and domestic pigs.
Human flesh that is uncooked or undercooked is the food source for Trichinella larvae, which grow into adult worms in the small intestine. This procedure requires time. The adult worms' generated larvae travel throughout the body as blood to different organs.
Their bodies are then covered in muscle. Worldwide, rural areas account for the majority of trichidiosis incidences. The severity of the ailment, as well as the signs and symptoms of a trichinosis infection, might vary. Based on how many larvae were eaten when the meat was tainted, this is calculated.
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a client is being discharged to home 3 days after transurethral resection of the prostate (turp). what should the nurse instruct the client to do? select all that apply.
The nurse should instruct the client who is being discharged to home 3 days after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is drink at least 3,000ml water, report bright red bleeding, report temperature over 99 F scale.
The nurse should counsel the patient to drink a lot of fluids (roughly 3,000 mL per day) to keep the pee crystal-clear. Urine should be nearly colorless. About 2 When dry tissue is shed weeks after TURP, it may cause a future bleeding occur. The client should be instructed to phone the surgeon or proceed to the emergency department. Whenever the urine turns vivid red. The nurse should also tell the patient to come in. symptoms of infection such as a temperature over 99°F. The client is not particularly in danger of nutritional issues following TURP, but you can resume eating as long as it's tolerated. The client is not particularly sensitive to airway difficulties because the treatment is carried out under spinal & prostate The patient does not need to take deep breaths or cough during anesthesia.
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the nurse is teaching a client regarding preventive measures for genital tract infections. which statement made by the client indicates the need for further education? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
I should refrain from granting my child independence, putting them on the same level as their siblings, and showing them unwavering affection.
What about nurses' places and liabilities?A person who takes care of the ill or the disabled. A competent healthcare professional with the guts to promote and preserve health, whether they work alone or under the direction of a doctor, surgeon, or dentist. Compare a certified nanny with a dinkum practical nanny. Nurses collaborate with doctors, nurses, and other healthcare professionals to treat patients and keep them healthy and active. Additionally, nurses provide support and end-of-life care for grieving family members. They are the only healthcare provider some patients will ever meet and are in constant communication with cases first.Empathy with each case and a sincere attempt to put themselves in their cases' shoes are rates of a good nanny. A specific nursing system may be followed with little to no variation to give introductory nursing care, and the case's responses to that care are predictable. They also provide care, support, and treatment.Learn more about nurses here:
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"I should take bubble baths more frequently."
"I ought to pick underwear with a nylon crotch."
I ought to use scented and colored toilet paper.
Precautions
A quality, clean urine sample is essential to the diagnostic process (UA). In nonobese women, a clean-catch specimen is desirable. Epithelial cells In nonobese women, a clean-catch specimen is desirable. Epithelial cells in the UA indicate that the urine sample did not come from the urethra directly but rather was exposed to the vaginal surface, which is why in the UA indicate that the urine sample did not come from the urethra directly but rather was exposed to the vaginal surface, which is why most obese women are unable to provide a clean test. Acquire a clear sample that contains few epithelial cells. In 1% of women who are not infected, in-and-out catheterization of the bladder will result in UTI. To clean the urethra, men should start the urine stream, then collect a midstream sample. Urine should be delivered to the lab very away or kept cold since bacteria multiply quickly in samples left at room temperature, leading to an overestimation of the severity of the infection.
Never make a diagnosis based solely on a visual examination of the urine. Urine that is cloudy can be aseptic; the protein in the sample may be the cause of the cloudiness rather than an infection. Urine that is crystal clear can be seriously contaminated. All urine samples are tested with a dipstick, which is done at the patient's bedside. Leukocyte esterase, blood, pH, and nitrites are all useful measurements. It's important to keep in mind that in patients who have UTI symptoms, a negative dipstick result does not rule out UTI, but a positive result can aid in the diagnosis. Check the urine for the presence of white blood cells (WBC) and/or germs.
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a client is being assessed for multiple lacerations resulting from an assault by an unknown paid sexual partner. the nurse must recognize what as a priority for this client?
Multiple wounds sustained by a client as a result of an assault by an unidentified paid sexual partner are being evaluated. The nurse must understand that this client’s priority is safety, which should be offered in a secure and private setting.
People should get the right care as soon as sexual violence is discovered. A clinician who examines victims of sexual assault in an acute care setting is required to adhere to any local and state laws or policies that pertain to the use of evidence-gathering kits. Acute examination of survivors, further information on evidence-gathering kits, pertinent guidelines from other medical associations, model screening processes, and questions have all been added to this document in an update.
We may therefore conclude that the nurse must comprehend that this client's top concern is safety, which should be provided in a private and secure environment.
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a child diagnosed with wilms' tumor undergoes successful surgery for removal of the diseased kidney. when the child returns to the room, the nurse should place the child in which position?
Having the Child act out the surgical experience using dolls and clinical device
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Having the Child act out the surgical enjoy the usage of dolls and the clinical system could ease tension and provide the nurse the possibility to make clear the kid's misconceptions. Preschoolers have a confined concept of time.
The kidneys filter out waste and excess fluid from the blood. As kidneys fail, waste builds up.
symptoms broaden slowly and aren't unique to the disease. a few humans haven't any signs at all and are recognized through a lab check.
Diabetes is the most commonplace purpose of kidney sickness. both type 1 and sort 2 diabetes. but also heart ailment and obesity can make a contribution to the damage that reasons kidneys to fail. Urinary tract issues and irritation in exceptional elements of the kidney can also result in a long-term useful decline.
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the regiestered nurse is teaching a student about the preoperative care for a patient before kidney transplantation. which statement made by the student indicates effective learning? hesi
"I should label the access site as 'Dialysis access, no procedures.'" this statement made by the student indicates effective learning.
What is a kidney transplant?
A kidney transplant or renal transplant is the organ transplant of a kidney into a patient with end-stage kidney disease. Kidney transplant is typically classified as deceased-donor or living-donor transplantation depending on the source of the donor organ.
Dialysis is a procedure to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys stop working properly. It often involves diverting blood to a machine to be cleaned.
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I should label the access site as 'Dialysis access, no procedures.'" this statement made by the student indicates effective learning.
What is a kidney transplant?A kidney transplant, also known as a renal transplant, is the transplantation of a kidney into a patient who has advanced kidney disease. Depending on the source of the donor organ, kidney transplantation is typically classified as either deceased-donor or living-donor transplantation.
When the kidneys stop working properly, dialysis is used to eliminate waste products and excess fluid from the blood. It frequently entails redirecting blood to a machine for cleaning.
You'll need blood tests every month while you wait for a kidney. The center must have a recent sample of your blood to match with any available kidney.
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you are caring for a patient who is taking an antithyroid drug for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. which assessment should be performed before giving this drug?
In a case whereby you are caring for a patient who is taking an antithyroid drug for the treatment of hyperthyroidism the assessment you should be performed before giving this drug is c. Check the skin and sclera for yellowing.
Which assessment you should be performed before treatment of hyperthyroidism?It should be noted that these drugs are hepatotoxic which implies that you need to Check the patient's liver function tests and this should be done prior to giving these drugs however Both thyroid-suppressing drugs can be regarded as been hepatotoxic hence run a check on the patient daily for yellowing of the skin or sclera for jaundice.
However , Hyperthyroidism do take place when the thyroid gland makes too much thyroid hormone and this condition can be regharded as overactive thyroid. Hyperthyroidism speeds up the body's metabolism.
Therefore, option C is correct.
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missing options:
a. Check the pulse rate for irregular rate and rhythm.
b. Check the blood pressure for hypertension.
c. Check the skin and sclera for yellowing.
d. Check the lower extremities for edema.
several clients arrive simultaneously at the emergency department after sustaining burn injuries in a house fire. which client will require the closest observation for signs of respiratory distress?
A client who has singed nasal hairs and worsening hoarseness will require the closest observation for signs of respiratory distress.
What is respiratory distress?
When someone is having breathing difficulties, they frequently exhibit symptoms of respiratory distress, such as breathing more laboriously or not getting enough oxygen.
As a result of an illness or injury, ARDS occurs when the lungs experience significant inflammation. Breathing becomes more challenging as a result of the inflammation's tendency to cause surrounding blood vessels' fluid to seep into your lungs' tiny air sacs. Inflammation of the lungs can result from pneumonia or a severe flu.
Newborns that are born more than six weeks early are more likely to experience respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), a breathing issue. An infant's likelihood of developing RDS increases with earlier or more preterm birth. With lesser symptoms, many newborns recover in 3–4 days.
Therefore, A client who has singed nasal hairs and worsening hoarseness will require the closest observation for signs of respiratory distress.
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Anti-psychotic medications may be used to treat schizophrenia major depressive disorder generalized anxiety disorder adhd
the nurse is comforting and listening to a young couple who just suffered a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). when asked why this happened, which reason should the nurse share as a common cause?
Chromosomal abnormality is a common miscarriage.
What is miscarriage?
Miscarriage is the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. About 10 to 20 percent of known pregnancies end in miscarriage. But the actual number is likely higher because many miscarriages occur very early in pregnancy — before you might even know about a pregnancy
Extra and missing genetic material leads to "chromosomal imbalance" and can cause intellectual disability and birth defects in a liveborn or cause a miscarriage. For couples who have had multiple miscarriages, the chance that one of the parents has a chromosomal rearrangement is approximately 3-6%.
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a nurse working in the emergency department receives arterial blood gas results on four clients. which laboratory result requires immediate nursing intervention?
If a nurse working in the emergency department receives arterial blood gas results on four clients, then the laboratory result pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, and PaO₂ 58 mmHg require immediate nursing intervention (option b).
What are respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia?The medical term respiratory acidosis makes reference to the condition unhealthy state in which the human body is unable to eliminate all of the carbon dioxides generated in the body as a result of the process of cellular respiration, which in this case evidenced by the values of PaCO₂ 60 mm Hg. Moreover, hypoxemia refers to a lower-than-normal level of oxygen, which may be associated with respiratory acidosis.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia are associated with health problems that require urgent nursing intervention.
Complete question:
A nurse working in the emergency department receives arterial blood gas results on four clients. Which laboratory result requires immediate nursing intervention?
A: pH 7.48, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, and PaO2 65 mm Hg
B: pH 7.28, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and PaO2 58 mm Hg
C: pH 7.34, PaCO2 33 mm Hg, and PaO2 80 mm Hg
D: 7.33, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, and PaO2 64 mm Hg
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a geriatric nurse practitioner is assessing older adults. the nurse practitioner knows that older adults sometimes have difficulty following directions during a neurologic examination or diagnostic procedure. what strategies can the nurse practitioner use to examine older clients?
Geriatric nurse practitioners use a variety of advanced nurse practitioner abilities as well as those unique to the field of geriatrics to deliver healthcare services to improve the health of senior patients.
The client is asked to stand with their feet together and their eyes closed as the nurse performs the Romberg test on them. Due to this position, the client sways to one side suddenly and is about to fall when the nurse steps in to save the client from harm. By monitoring, assessing, and treating diseases common to ageing patients, GNPs are used by caregiving organizations to enhance well-being among older clientele.To create and carry out efficient care plans, these specialists also consult with patients and their caregivers. The demand for skilled geriatric nurses will increase as the population ages.
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a client is prescribed a bisacodyl suppository. when administering the suppository, the nurse will include what actions?
The nursing action which a well trained nurse will include when administering the bisacodyl suppository simply is to educate the client to take the medication strictly as prescribed.
What is meant by suppository?This refers to a special type of medication which is given to patients to ease them of pain from certain health condition including constipation, body fever, nausea and so on and so forth.
When a client is being administered bisacodyl, it is expedient that the client is given strict measures tk avoid side effects in his body system.
In conclusion, it can therefore be deduced from the explanation given above that bisacodyl is to be taken under the direction of a licensed healthcare provider.
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the nurse has assisted a multigravida with a precipitous birth of a term neonate. because a precipitous birth can lead to decreased uterine tone, what nursing action should help to prevent this complication?
A precipitous birth can lead to decreased uterine tone, the nurse should encourage the mother to breastfeed the infant.
What is a complication of a precipitous birth?Postpartum hemorrhage and the requirement for newborn resuscitation are two potential problems that might come along with quick labor and delivery.
Both uterine rupture and vaginal laceration can result in hemorrhage. Due to shorter intervals of uterine relaxation in between contractions and quick delivery, the fetus may experience hypoxia and cerebral bleeding.
Therefore, the nurse should encourage the mother to breastfeed the infant.
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The given question is incomplete, so the complete question is here:
The nurse has assisted a multigravida with a precipitous birth of a viable neonate. Because a precipitous birth can lead to decrease uterine tone, what nursing action should help prevent this complication?
A. Place the mother in a supine position
B. Place the neonate on the client's fundus
C. Massage the client's fundus continuously
D. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the infant
the nurse reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 2.5 meq/l (2.5 mmol/l). which patterns should the nurse watch for on the electrocardiogram (ecg) as a result of the laboratory value?
U waves ; Inverted T waves; Depressed ST segment are the patterns the nurse should watch for on the electrocardiogram (ECG) as a result of the laboratory value.
What does an inverted U wave mean?The "U" wave is the wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG). This occurs after the T-wave of ventricular repolarization and is not always observed due to its small size. The 'U' wave is thought to represent repolarization of the Purkinje fibers. However, the exact source of U waves remains unknown.
The most popular theories of origin are:
Delayed repolarization of Purkinje fibers.Long-term repolarization of M cells in central muscle.post-potential due to mechanical forces on the ventricular wall.Repolarization of papillary muscles.U-waves are often recorded in all leads except V6 and are most commonly recorded in V2 and V3 when the heart rate exceeds 96 beats per minute. Its amplitude is often between 0.1 and 0.33 mV. Assigning the U-wave boundary to the T-wave and R-wave backgrounds can be partially or completely (in the case of the T-wave) fused, making it particularly difficult. Higher values of the U-wave of heart rate or hypocalcemia overlap with the T-wave and merge with the R-wave of the cardiac cycle following tachycardia.
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a nurse teaches an adolescent client with asthma to independently administer breathing treatments. which principle should the nurse keep in mind when planning the teaching session?
In a case whereby a nurse teaches an adolescent client with asthma to independently administer breathing treatments the principle should the nurse keep in mind when planning the teaching session is Adolescents are worried about appearing different from their peers.
What is an adolescent age?Adolescence can be described as the phase of life between childhood and adulthood, from ages 10 to 19. and this can be considered as the unique stage of human development which serves as the important time for laying the foundations of good health however during the Adolescents they experience rapid physical, cognitive and psychosocial growth.
Since , Adolescents are worried about appearing different from their peers then the nurse should keep this in mind when attending to the patient.
Therefore, option B is correct.
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missing options:
- Adolescents tend to be uncooperative with instructions from adults.
- Adolescents are worried about appearing different from their peers.
- The client will learn better using a recorded video tutorial.
- The client will need supervision for the first self-administrations.
4. After reconstitution, ceftriaxone for
IM injection contains 350 mg/mL. How many milligrams are in 2.5 milliliters?
After reconstitution, ceftriaxone for IM injection contains 350 mg/mL, and there are 875 mg in 2.5 milliliters. The injection is given to patients for the treatment of bacterial infections or bacterial diseases.
What are the different types of injection procedures?The injection can be given intramuscularly, intravenously, subcutaneously, etc., and different types of injections are designed and given for different diseases. the intramuscular (IM) injection, in which the medication is administered directly into the muscle, and the intravenous (IV) injection, in which the medication is administered directly into the patient's vein.
Hence, after reconstitution, ceftriaxone for IM injection contains 350 mg/mL, and there are 875 mg in 2.5 milliliters.
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a client who has just been told that she is pregnant asks a clinic nurse when the fetus's heart will be developed and beating. the nurse tells the client that the fetal heart is beating at what gestational week?
At six weeks into your pregnancy, at your first scan, you'll be able to hear the heartbeat of your fetus.
what is fetus ?
Between the embryonic stage of development and birth in humans, there is foetal development. After 11 weeks of pregnancy, when the embryo starts to display human traits, this stage starts and lasts until delivery. Normally, all of the major organs and tissues are visible, although they are not yet fully formed or positioned correctly inside the body.
At six weeks into your pregnancy, at your first scan, you'll be able to hear the heartbeat of your unborn child. A transvaginal scan can be used to find your baby's heart (TVS). In order to find the baby's heartbeat, your doctor could also recommend a Doppler scan.
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