The mother's apical pulse is 56 beats/min. So the nursing action that would be appropriate is introduction of deep breathing exercises to the patient.
What are breathing exercises?
Diaphragmatic breathing, abdominal breathing, abdominal breathing, or deep breathing is breathing that is done by contracting the diaphragm, a muscle located horizontally between the chest cavity and the abdominal cavity.Air enters the lungs when the diaphragm contracts strongly, but unlike traditional relaxed breathing (eupnoas), the intercostal muscles of the chest do minimal work in this process. The abdomen also expands during this type of breathing to make room for the diaphragm to retract.The use of diaphragmatic breathing is commonly practiced, especially in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, to improve a number of factors such as lung function, cardiorespiratory fitness, respiratory muscle length, and respiratory muscle strength.To know more about deep breathing exercises, click the link given below:
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after brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to pass large volumes of very dilute urine. the icu nurse administered a medicine that mimics one of the following hormones. which one?
The icu nurse administered a medicine that mimics ADH.
What is ADH?
ADH, Anti-diuretic hormone, also called Human vasopressin, is a hormone that helps maintain blood pressure. It is also called arginine vasopressin or argipressin.
ADH helps the blood vessels constrict and also helps kidneys in controling the amount of water and salt in the body. This is how it helps control blood pressure and the amount of urine produced.
ADH is substance produced naturally in the hypothalamus in the brain, after which is released by the pituitary gland present at the base of the brain. ADH is stored inside the posterior pituitary gland.
So therefore, the icu nurse administered a medicine that mimics ADH.
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a pregnant client asks the nurse in the clinic when she will be able to start feeling the fetus move. the nurse responds by telling the mother that fetal movements should be noted at which time interval?
The pregnant mother will feel fetal movements around 16 to 24 weeks of pregnancy.
Pregnant women who experience foetal movements can tell that their foetus is developing and becoming stronger. These movements are typically felt by the mother first, after which other people may become aware of them. Health care professionals frequently instruct women on how to keep an eye on or be aware of the fetus' movements. Reduced foetal movement may be a sign of foetal risk or impairment and may call for additional testing.
Quickening describes the initial foetal movements that the mother feels. These movements serve to tell the expectant mother that a foetus is developing inside her uterus, among other purposes. Between the 16th and the 22nd week of pregnancy, quickening frequently happens. The other movements of the woman's body can mimic early foetal movements like flatus, peristalsis, and abdominal muscle contractions, which is why this is referred to as a presumptive sign of pregnancy.
Hence, foetal movements are the signs of developing and healthy baby.
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the nurse is preparing a client who has had a knee replacement with a metal joint to go home. what should the nurse instruct the client to do? select all that apply.
A) Notify the MD about the joint prior to invasive procedures B) Avoid the use of MRI scans C) Notify airport security that the joint may set off alarms on metal detectors, the nurse is preparing a client who has had a knee replacement with a metal joint to go home.
High frequency radio waves and a powerful magnetic field are employed in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to create incredibly detailed pictures. MRI is generally quite safe and does not include x-rays. (Also see Imaging Tests Overview. Depending on the size of the region being scanned and the quantity of pictures captured, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan can take anywhere from 15 to 90 minutes without any discomfort. The most popular imaging test for the brain and spinal cord is the MRI. Aneurysms of cerebral vessels are frequently diagnosed with the use of this procedure. eye and inner ear conditions. The nurse is getting ready to send home a patient who underwent a metal-on-metal knee surgery. Nurse should the nurse advise the patient to do
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the nurse admits a client with cirrhosis who has an upper gastrointestinal bleed from suspected gastroesophageal varices. which new prescription should the nurse question?
The new prescription that the nurse should question is whether an NG tube can be introduced for stomach decompression with visibility of the esophagus, preventing further variceal rupture and hemorrhage from occurring.
Upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage can result from a number of lesions, including those caused by portal hypertension, such as gastroesophageal varices and portal hypertensive gastropathy, as well as other lesions that are common in the general population, in patients with liver cirrhosis.
Esophageal varices are most frequently caused by liver scarring (cirrhosis). Blood flow through the liver is reduced as a result of these scars. As a result, more blood passes through the esophageal veins.
The walls of these expanding veins become thinner when the portal vein system's blood pressure rises, which leads to vein rupture and bleeding.
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Why do you think that safety standards require employees to know all the potentially dangerous chemicals in an area, even if their jobs do not require use of the chemicals?
will mark brainliest
Simple steps such as remaining vigilant, implementing safeguards and improving communication may significantly reduce medical errors in these groups. Certain hospital work processes are also more prone to errors.
What are the medical error?
A medical error is a preventable unfavourable outcome of treatment, whether it is obvious or harmful to the patient. This category includes misdiagnosis or inadequate treatment of a disease, accident, syndrome, behavior, infection, or other ailment.
Make sure all of your physicians are aware of any medication you are taking. When you visit the doctor, bring all of your medications and dietary supplements.
Therefore, Simple steps such as remaining vigilant, implementing safeguards and improving communication may significantly reduce medical errors in these groups. Certain hospital work processes are also more prone to errors.
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a 28-year-old client with a history of endometriosis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and nausea and vomiting. the client also reports her periods are irregular with the last one being 2 months ago. the nurse prepares to assess for which possible cause for this client's complaints?
A 28-year-old purchaser with a history of endometriosis presents to the emergency department with intense stomach pain and nausea and vomiting.
The patron also reviews her periods are irregular with the remaining one being 2 months in the past. Palpate the fundus, and test fetal coronary heart rate.
Endometriosis frequently involves the pelvic tissue and might envelop the ovaries and fallopian tubes. it can affect close by organs, collectively with the bowel and bladder. So at some point of the menstrual cycle, or length, this tissue responds to hormones, and due to its region, frequently results in ache.
Even in extreme cases of endometriosis, maximum may be treated with laparoscopic surgical treatment. In laparoscopic surgical treatment, your fitness care provider inserts a slim viewing device (laparoscope) thru a small incision close to your navel and inserts units to get rid of endometrial tissue through every different small incision.
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the nurse is visiting the home of a client who is receiving at-home peritoneal dialysis therapy. which finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing peritonitis?
Findings that show the nurse that the client has peritonitis are that the dialysis fluid that is released looks cloudy.
What is peritonitis?
Peritonitis is an inflammatory condition of the peritoneal membrane lining the abdominal cavity. This condition occurs due to an infection caused by bacteria or fungi in the lining, which can damage the function of the lining and can even spread to other parts of the body.
The risk of peritoneal infection can start from infection in the exit site of the catheter, the part of the tube that is embedded in the skin, to infection near the peritoneal membrane.
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during delivery, the mother tells you she has been addicted to crack cocaine throughout the entire pregnancy. when the baby is delivered you notice the following: hr 190, breathing is adequate, normal movement, the baby routinely coughs, and is very pink. what is this neonate's apgar?
During delivery, the baby routinely coughs and is very pink and the neonate's APGAR is 10.
APGAR is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The baby's tolerance for the birthing process is determined by the 1-minute score. The 5-minute score informs the doctor about how well the baby is doing outside of the mother's womb. In rare cases, the test will be done 10 minutes after birth.
The APGAR score is made up of five components: 1) color, 2) heart rate, 3) reflexes, 4) muscle tone, and 5) respiration are all scored as 0, 1, or 2. In the first minutes of life, the APGAR test measures your baby's heart rate, breathing, muscle tone, reflex response, and color.
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a woman with asthma controlled through the consistent use of medication is now pregnant for the first time. which client statement concerning asthma during pregnancy indicates the need for further instruction?
The supine hypotensive syndrome manifests as dizziness, pallor, tachycardia, sweating, nausea, and hypotension that occur when a pregnant woman lies on her back. The heavy gravid uterus compresses the descending aorta and the inferior vena cava.
What is supine hypotensive syndrome?
Supine hypotension syndrome (also called inferior vena cava compression syndrome) is caused by the pregnant uterus compressing the inferior vena cava when the pregnant woman is supine, resulting in decreased central venous return. caused.
Therefore, The supine hypotensive syndrome manifests as dizziness, pallor, tachycardia, sweating, nausea, and hypotension that occur when a pregnant woman lies on her back. The heavy gravid uterus compresses the descending aorta and the inferior vena cava.
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a client with acute kidney injury progresses through four phases. which describes the onset phase? it is accompanied by reduced blood flow to the nephrons. the excretion of wastes and electrolytes continues to be impaired despite increased water content of the urine. fluid volume excess develops, which leads to edema, hypertension, and cardiopulmonary complications. normal glomerular filtration and tubular function are restored.
A customer who has experienced acute kidney injury advances through four stages. Reduced blood supply to the nephrons occurs concurrently.
How can I tell if my kidneys are hurt?Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is the greatest indicator of blunt kidney injury. The blood can occasionally be seen by the unaided eye. Other times, a microscope is required to observe it. Kidney injuries from blunt trauma may not be immediately apparent.
Can kidneys heal after being hurt?This differs from individual to individual and relies on the etiology of the AKI, its severity, and any additional health issues a person may have. The kidneys might fully recover to normal. However, if the kidney were abnormal to begin with, they might not make a recovery.
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after thinking about risks and safeguards of medication administration, please identify one step in the medication process that you want to work on to build your confidence. describe the specific area (i.e., topic) of learning and what actions you will take to build your confidence. identify a different step in the medication process that you want to work on to build your confidence. describe the specific area (i.e., topic) of learning and what actions you will take to build your confidence.
Step in the medication process that you want to work on to build your confidence are suggestions on how to increase confidence and engage in self-care. Engage in constructive self-talk.
What are some of the ways to boost your confidence?
Make a list of your accomplishments and the aspects of your life you are most proud of. Recognize your individual talents and strengths, and frequently remind yourself of them. Set yourself some reasonable objectives.
Make time for your hobbies and explore new interests to discover your passions. Establish trusting connections. Your confidence can frequently be undermined by those who are negative and try to undermine you. Practice having a growth attitude. Use positive self-talk.
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why might an addiction to a drug become more expensive as the body develops a tolerance to the drug?
cholesterol a.is present only in animal-derived foods in our diet b.must be eaten in the diet c.is a partial breakdown product of lipids d.when present in the diet, is cause of strokes
Cholesterol It is present in the food that we take in the diet.
what is cholesterol?
Cholesterol is any of a class of certain organic molecules called lipids. It is a sterol, a type of lipid. Cholesterol is biosynthesized by all animal cells and is an essential structural component of animal cell membranes. When chemically isolated, it is a yellowish crystalline solid.
Many different factors can contribute to high blood cholesterol, including lifestyle factors like smoking, an unhealthy diet and lack of exercise, as well as having an underlying condition, such as high blood pressure or diabetes.
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the nurse is planning the care of a client with schizophrenia. the nurse understands that the client will need the most extensive laboratory monitoring regiment if which medication is prescribed?
Clozapine
What is schizophrenia?Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder in which people have an abnormal interpretation of reality. Schizophrenia can cause hallucinations, delusions, and extremely disordered thinking and behavior that interferes with daily functioning and can be disabling.
Schizophrenia patients must be treated for the rest of their lives. Early treatment may help control symptoms before serious complications develop, improving the long-term outlook.
Schizophrenia is characterized by a variety of problems with thinking (cognition), behavior, and emotions. The signs and symptoms vary, but they usually involve delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech and reflect a reduced ability to function.
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The nurse understands that the client will need the most extensive laboratory monitoring regiment if Clozapine is pescribed.
What is schizophrenia?
People with schizophrenia have an altered perception of reality, which is a dangerous mental condition. Hallucinations, delusions, and severely irrational thinking and behavior that interfere with day-to-day activities and can be incapacitating are some symptoms of schizophrenia.
An antipsychotic drug called clozapine aids in regulating your brain's dopamine and other chemical levels. Hallucinations and other symptoms are helped by clozapine's ability to lower excessive dopamine activity. Because of its propensity for agranulocytosis, clozapine has not been widely utilized or as a first-line treatment.
Hence,the nurse understands that the client will need the most extensive laboratory monitoring regiment if Clozapine is pescribed.
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a woman age 35 years with a chronic disorder tells her nurse that she would be interested in finding out about complementary therapies that are available. what would be the nurse's best response to this client? responses
The nurse’s best response to the client would be to tell her that complementary therapies are being used as an "answer" to the problem of chronic illness.
What are complementary therapies?
Complementary therapies are additional therapies that can be used along with or complementarily with traditional allopathic medical approaches such as medications, immunotherapy, chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery. Complementary therapies are considered to be outside the purview of mainstream healthcare. They include acupuncture, homeopathy, aromatherapy, meditation, chiropractic, and more.
When someone is suffering from a chronic disorder and wants to seek out complementary therapies, a nurse should guide the patient with accurate information and state the reality. When intensive treatment is required in an emergency or an acute crisis, allopathic medical care is extremely successful.
But allopathic medical treatment has not always been completely successful in helping patients cope with chronic sickness. As a solution to the issue of chronic sickness, complementary therapies are being adopted more frequently.
Hence, the nurse’s best response to the client would be to tell her that complementary therapies are being used as an "answer" to the problem of chronic illness.
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The best course of action for the nurse would be to inform the client that complementary therapies are being employed as a potential "solution" to the issue of chronic sickness.
What about complementary therapy?The term "complementary therapies" refers to extra treatments that can be utilized in addition to or as a supplement to conventional allopathic medical procedures such drugs, immunotherapy, chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery. The use of complementary therapies is thought to be outside the scope of conventional medicine. Acupuncture, homeopathy, aromatherapy, meditation, chiropractic, and other practices are among them.A nurse should provide accurate information and state the facts when a patient with a chronic condition wants to pursue alternative therapies. Allopathic medicine is very effective when intensive care is needed in an emergency or acute crisis.However, the success of allopathic medical care in assisting patients in coping with chronic illness has not always been 100 percent. Complementary therapies are being used more frequently as a solution to the problem of chronic illness.So, the best course of action for the nurse would be to inform the client that complementary therapies are being employed as a potential "solution" to the issue of chronic sickness.Learn more about complementary therapy here: https://brainly.com/question/29578094
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a man was admitted to the hospital after being trampled by his horse. he received crushing blows to his lower back, on both sides. his is in considerable pain, and his chart shows a urine output of 70 ml in the last 24 hours. what is this specific symptom called? what will be required if the renal effects of his trauma persist?
The specific symptom in the given situation is called Oliguria.
If the renal effects of his trauma persist, he may need to receive fluids and electrolytes intravenously, as well as potentially other medications to help support his kidneys. He may also need to be monitored for any changes in his urinary output and other kidney function tests.
What do you mean Oliguria?
Oliguria is a medical term used to describe a reduced output of urine. It is usually defined as an output of less than 400 milliliters of urine per day. Oliguria can be a symptom of a variety of conditions, including dehydration, kidney failure, and certain medications. It can be a sign of a serious medical condition, and medical attention should be sought immediately.
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a primigravida client comes to the clinic and has been diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. she has repeatedly verbalized concern regarding safety of the fetus. which client problem does the nurse identify as the priority at this time?
Fear about the safety of the fetus client problem the nurse identifies as the priority at this time.
What is urinary traction infection?
Your urinary system frequently contracts an infection called a urinary traction infection. Any component of your urinary system, including the urethra, ureters, bladder, and kidneys, might be affected by a UTI. Common symptoms include the desire to urinate frequently, pain during urination, and side or lower back pain. Antibiotics can be used to treat the majority of UTIs.
How frequent are UTIs, or urinary tract infections?
One in five women will experience a urinary tract infection at some point in their lifetime. UTIs are frequently experienced by women, but men, older people, and children can also get them. Urinary tract infections account for 8 million to 10 million annual visits to doctors.
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After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT:A. the total number of patients that have been triaged.B. the recommended transport destination for each patient. C. recommendations for movement to the treatment area.D. the number of patients in each triage category.
After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: the recommended transport destination for each patient.
What is primary triage?
The process of ranking patients according to their need for treatment, evacuation, or transfer is known as triage. Patients undergo primary triage in the bronze area, and they typically undergo secondary triage at the casualty clearing station.
Secondary triage is done at the casualty clearing station at the scene of a catastrophic incident, while primary triage is done at the accident scene. The triage process is repeated both at the receiving hospital and before patients are transported away from the scene.
There are three categories on the triage scale: category 1 (immediate), category 2 (urgent), and category 3. (non-urgent).
Therefore, Option B is correct.
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the nurse is caring for a newborn with a large ventricular septal defect. the client has undergone pulmonary artery banding. which assessment finding best indicates that the pulmonary artery band is functioning effectively?
The correct answer is breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally.
What is a ventricular septal defect?A heart-hole known as a ventricular septal defect (VSD) exists. It's a common heart condition that exists from birth (congenital heart defect). The wall dividing the lower chambers of the heart has a hole in it (ventricles).
Blood flow via the heart and lungs is altered by a VSD. Instead of being pumped out to the body, oxygen-rich blood is returned to the lungs. Blood with and without oxygen mixes together. The heart may have to work harder to pump blood as a result of these changes, which could raise blood pressure in the lungs.
Small ventricular septal defects might not have any negative effects. Many small VSDs automatically close. To avoid difficulties, babies with medium or bigger VSDs may require surgery as early as possible.
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the apnea monitor alarm sounds for the third time during one shift for a neonate who was delivered at 37-weeks gestation. what nursing action should be implemented first?
The nursing action that should be implemented first is to evaluate the newborn's color and respiration.
Gestation is the phase of growth that occurs inside viviparous mammals during the bearing of an embryo and eventually a fetus. It frequently occurs in mammals but also in some non-mammals. During pregnancy, mammals may have one or more gestations concurrently, as in the case of multiple births.
It is calculated in weeks, starting on the first day of the woman's most recent menstrual cycle and ending on the present day. 38 to 42 weeks is the typical gestational period. Premature birth is defined as occurring before 37 weeks. Postmature babies are those who are born after 42 weeks. The time a baby grows and develops inside the mother's womb during gestation is between conception and delivery.
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what is an appropriate treatment for a client with severe malabsorption disease? enteral therapy tpn supplements including macro and trace elements herbal preparations
2. TPN is an appropriate treatment for a client with severe malabsorption disease.
Malabsorption is the inability to properly digest or absorb nutrients from meals. Malabsorption can have an impact on development and growth, or it might cause certain diseases. Malabsorption can occur for a variety of reasons, such as: Chronic fibrosis (the number one cause in the United States) Malabsorption is a symptom of several illnesses. Problems with specific carbohydrates, fats, proteins, or vitamins being absorbed are the most common symptoms of malabsorption. Additionally, a general issue with food absorption may be present. damage to or issues with the small intestine that might make it difficult to absorb vital nutrients.
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why is the gustatory area likely to get activated (e.g., in patient 1)? the primary gustatory cortex is located in the insula and around the tongue area of the somatosensory homunculus.
The mesial temporal lobe, which activates when someone has epilepsy, and the gustatory area, likely to be started, are situated close to one another. The MTL and taste areas are also close by.
The cerebral cortex also known as the primary gustatory cortex is where taste and flavour are perceived. It is made up of the frontal operculum on the frontal lobe and the anterior insula on the insular lobe. The gustatory cortex is a special brain region that is primarily in charge of detecting and differentiating tastes. The terminal link for taste perception is found in the anterior insula, which is part of the temporal lobe and frontal opercular area.
As a result, we can conclude that the gustatory area is likely to be activated due to its proximity to the mesial temporal lobe, which is the region that is activated during epilepsy.
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which education would the nurse teach the parents of an infant with a cardiac defect about an early sign of heart failure?
The education that a nurse would teach the parents of an infant with a cardiac defect about an early sign of heart failure is an increased heart rate.
Why is important to monitor the heart rate?
An increase in the heart rate is indicative of health problems because the heart must pump blood to all parts of the body in an interval range, which when exceeded may be a sign of heart failure and related conditions.
For example, increased heart rate may be indicative of arrhythmias that are prior to heart attacks and therefore they should be monitored in proper clinical settings in order to avoid this type of health complication.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that an increase in the heart rate may be inactive of a problem and therefore it should be monitored by parents in children with records of this type of complication.
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the nursing student is preparing to administer a medication to a newborn as a preventive measure against ophthalmia neonatorum. the nursing instructor asks the student to identify the medication and placement for the prophylaxis of ophthalmia neonatorum caused by gonococcal or chlamydia infection. the student correctly identifies which medication and location?
Erythromycin and eyes are the student correctly identifies which medication and location.
Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection of the newborn's eyes that can result in blindness, especially if Neisseria gonorrhoeae is to blame. Soon after delivery, babies are given antiseptic or antibiotic treatment orally or systemically to avoid neonatal conjunctivitis and subsequent visual loss.To avoid the debilitating effects of neonatal ocular infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, silver nitrate was first used as a prophylactic for neonatal ophthalmia in the late 1800s. Many nations at the time, in the pre-antibiotic period, made such prophylaxis required by law.Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is an eye ointment that is used to treat bacterial eye infections in both newborns and adults, such as bacterial conjunctivitis. A group of drugs known as macrolide antibiotics, which destroy bacteria, includes erythromycin. It cannot treat viral or fungal eye infections.In addition to having numerous brand names, such as Ilotycin Ophthalmic and Romycin Ophthalmic, this drug also comes in generic form.To know more about Erythromycin check the below link:
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the topic of physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy is to be included in a parenting class for primigravid clients who are in their first half of pregnancy. which topic would be important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
Increased risk for urinary tract infections would be important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan.
What are urinary tract infections?
A urinary tract infection or UTI is an infection that occurs in any part of urinary system, such as the kidneys, bladder or urethra.
UTIs are most common in women. Mostly, they occur in the bladder or the urethra, but more serious infections are involved in the kidneys.
Pelvic pain, increased urges to urinate, pain with urination and blood in the urine is often associated with a bladder infection.
Back pain, nausea, vomiting and fever are caused by a kidney infection.
Antibiotics are usually a common treatment plan.
Therefore, increased risk for urinary tract infections would be important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan.
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while providing care to the maternity patient, the nurse should be aware that one of these anxiety disorders is likely to be triggered by the process of labor and birth. which disorder fits this criterion?
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) fits this criterion.
PTSD can develop as a result of a previous trauma, such as forced intercourse. PTSD symptoms include reliving the event, numbness, irritability, angry outbursts, and an exaggerated startle reflex. The client may recall the original trauma as a result of the increased bodily touch and vaginal examinations that occur during labor. She may feel out of control during the birthing process. The nurse should express her understanding and reassure the client as needed.
Irrational fears that cause a person to avoid certain events or situations are known as phobias. Panic disorders, which are defined as episodes of intense apprehension, fear, and terror, can affect up to 3% to 5% of postpartum women.
Palpitations, chest pain, choking, or smothering are all symptoms of panic disorder. Recurrent, persistent, and intrusive thoughts are among the symptoms of OCD. The mother may repeatedly check and recheck her infant after birth, despite the fact that she is aware that this is irrational behavior. Medication is the best way to treat OCD.
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the nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from vietnam. which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?
b)Tuberculosis screening is the most important for the nurse to implement the nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from vietnam.
The prevalence of tuberculosis (TB) is significantly greater among immigrants from Vietnam than it is among the overall U.S. population since the disease is prevalent in many regions of Asia. However, it is not typically recommended for all members of this group to get instruction on the use of contraceptives, colonoscopy, or hepatitis testing. Up to two thirds of TB patients will die if they receive ineffective therapy. Effective diagnosis and treatment have prevented 53 million deaths since 2000. It has been discovered by researchers that those who successfully treated and overcame active TB sickness may live 3–4 years less than those who have a latent infection.
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for the previous 4 hours, a client in labor has been experiencing hypertonic labor as documented by the primary health care provider. the nurse recognizes which findings to be characteristic of this type of labor? select all that apply.
The nurse finds that Contractions typically occur in the latent phase of labor, Contractions are occurring every 2 minutes, lasting 70 seconds, and Contraction force is felt in the midsection of the uterus and not the fundus.
What are contractions?
Muscles of the uterus tightening up like a fist and then relaxing is known as contractions.
Contractions help push the baby out. When a woman is in true labor, the contractions last about 30 to 70 seconds and come about 5 to 10 minutes apart each. They're so strong that a woman can’t talk or walk with them.
When the contractions start, they can feel like cramps in the lower stomach and can start off feeling like period pain. There may be dull lower back pain or pain in the inner thigh that can be felt down the legs.
So, therefore, the nurse finds that Contractions typically occur in the latent phase of labor, Contractions occurring every 2 minutes, lasting 70 seconds, and Contraction force is felt in the midsection of the uterus not the fundus.
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a client with alzheimer's disease is being admitted to the hospital for malnutrition and dehydration. what is the rationale for the nurse to place the client closer to the nurses' station?
Because of his propensity to roam, the nurse chooses to put him closer to the nursing station.
What is Alzheimer’s Disease?
The most frequent cause of dementia, a term encompassing memory loss and other cognitive impairments severe enough to interfere with daily life, is Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is not an inevitable component of becoming older. Ageing is the biggest known risk factor, and patients with Alzheimer's tend to be 65 and older. There is currently no treatment for Alzheimer's disease.
The brain region that affects learning is often where Alzheimer's alterations start. As Alzheimer's spreads throughout the brain, it causes symptoms to become more severe, such as mood and behavior changes, confusion about events, time, and place, irrational suspicions about loved ones and professional caregivers, more severe memory loss and behavior changes, and difficulty speaking, swallowing, and walking.
Due to their propensity to wander, clients with Alzheimer's disease run the risk of becoming hurt. He can be better watched over and has a higher chance of staying safe if he starts to roam if he is placed near the nurses' station. It won't make the patient remember to eat, move about frequently, or alter his behavior if the patient is placed nearer the nurses' station.
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which discharge teaching instructions should the nurse provide to the parents of a 2-year-old with group a streptococcal pharyngitis? select all that apply.
The discharge teaching instructions that the nurse should provide to the parents of a 2-year-old with group a streptococcal pharyngitis are:
Replace toothbrush 24 hours after starting antibioticCool liquids and soft diet are recommendedComplete all antibiotics even if child is feeling betterReturn to school or daycare after they have completed 24 hours of antibiotics and are afebrile.What is streptococcal pharyngitis?Streptococcal pharyngitis can be defined as the type of infection that often affect the back of a person throat . A person can contact this infection if the person come in contact with the mucus of a person that has already been infected with this type of infection
Some of the symptoms of Streptococcal pharyngitis includes the following:
Sore throatFeverLymph nodes in the neck etcA person that is effect with Streptococcal pharyngitis should tend to change his/her toothbrush 24 hours after starting antibiotic.
Therefore the correct option is A, B,C,D.
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The complete question is:
which discharge teaching instructions should the nurse provide to the parents of a 2-year-old with group a streptococcal pharyngitis? select all that apply.
a. replace toothbrush 24 hours after starting antibiotic
b. cool liquids and soft diet are recommended
c. complete all antibiotics even if child is feeling better
d. return to school or daycare after they have completed 24 hours of antibiotics and are afebrile.