the nurse is discussing the possible side effects of chemotherapy with a client. what information obtained during the client's admission assessment and interview will have a direct influence on the management of nausea and vomiting

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Answer 1

The client has been prescribed phenothiazine for anxiety.

What is meant by chemotherapy ?

Chemotherapy is a medicinal therapy that employs strong chemicals to kill your body's rapidly proliferating cells.Chemotherapy is most frequently used to treat cancer because cancer cells reproduce and develop considerably more quickly than the majority of body cells.Chemotherapy medications come in a wide variety. A number of malignancies can be treated with chemotherapy medications either alone or in combination.Although chemotherapy is a successful treatment for many cancer types, there is a chance that it will have adverse effects. While some side effects of chemotherapy are minor and manageable, others might have negative consequences.For stage 4 malignancies, systemic pharmacological therapies including chemotherapy or targeted therapy are frequently used. A clinical trial that offers novel therapies to aid in the treatment of stage 4 cancer is frequently a possibility.

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the nurse understands that for abo incompatibility to be present, the mother must have which blood type?

Answers

In most cases, ABO incompatibility is limited to type O mothers with a type A or B foetus


When people who have one blood type receive blood from someone with a different blood kind, it is able to cause their immune machine to react. This is known as ABO incompatibility.
Because of current testing techniques, this problem is very rare.
reasons
The different blood typed are:
type A
type B
type AB
type O

Human beings who have one blood kind may additionally shape proteins (antibodies) that purpose their immune machine to react in opposition to one or extra of the alternative blood kinds.
Being exposed to some other type of blood can propose a reaction. this is crucial while a person needs to receive a blood transfusion or have an organ transplant. The blood kinds have to be compatible to keep away from an ABO incompatibility response.
for instance:
Human beings with type A blood will react against type B or type AB blood.
Humans with type B blood will react against type A or type AB blood.
People with kind O blood will react against type A, type B, or kind AB blood.
People with kind AB blood will now not react against type A, kind B, type AB, or kind O blood.
Kind O blood does not motive an immune reaction while it is given to people with kind A, kind B, or type AB blood. That is why kind O blood cells can be given to humans of any blood type. Humans with kind O blood are called generic donors. however human beings with type O can best obtain kind O blood.
Each blood and plasma transfusion needs to be matched to keep away from an immune response. before anybody gets blood, each blood and the individual receiving it are tested cautiously to avoid a reaction. commonly, a reaction occurs due to clerical mistakes causing a person to obtain incompatible blood.

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newborn delivered by repeat cesarean birth at 40 weeks of gestation.birth weight 7 lb 12 oz (3,515 g)apgar scores 8 at 1 min and 9 at 5 minmaternal history of methadone use during pregnancy.

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Newborn delivered by repeat cesarean birth at 40 weeks of gestation. birth weight 7 LB12 (3,515 g) scores 8 at 1 min and 9 at 5 minmaternal history of methadone use during pregnancy .her infant control mechanism immature .

Gestational age is the common time period used at some stage in pregnancy to describe how some distance along the pregnancy is. it's miles measured in weeks, from the first day of the girl's last menstrual cycle to the modern date. A ordinary pregnancy can variety from 38 to 42 weeks. infants born before 37 weeks are considered premature.

The gestation length is how long a woman is pregnant. most infants are born between 38 and 42 weeks of gestation. babies born before 37 weeks are considered premature. infants born after forty two weeks are referred to as postmature.

The unborn toddler spends round 38 weeks within the uterus, but the common length of being pregnant, or gestation, is counted at forty weeks. being pregnant is counted from the first day of the girl's final length, no longer the date of theory which normally happens  weeks later.

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a 75-year-old with a history of parkinson's disease presents with minimally pruitic facial lesions present for 1 week. exam reveals scattered discreet macules approximately 1 cm in size with an orange-red greasy scale on the cheeks and nasolabial folds. what is the most appropriate treatment?

Answers

This is seborrhea so the first treatment of choice is low dose hydrocortisone cream.

Parkinson's disease is a brain condition that results in unintentional or uncontrollable movements like trembling, stiffness, and issues with balance and coordination.

Typically, symptoms start out mildly and get worse over time. People could experience difficulties speaking and walking as the illness worsens.

Seborrhea, pronounced seb-uh-ree-uh, is a typical skin condition. White scales and a red, itchy rash are the results. "Dandruff" is the name for it when it affects the scalp.

It may also be present on the forehead, brows, and eyelids, as well as the folds behind the ears and around the nose.

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the nurse is performing an assessment of a client with psychiatric illness. the nurse documents that the client has a restricted affect. which behavior of the client is indicative of restricted affect? choose the best answer.

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The behavior of the client that is indicative of restricted affect is that the client displays only one type of facial expression.

What is psychiatric illness?

Psychiatric illness is defined as the type of illness that affects the psychology and the neurology of an individual.

Examples of psychiatric illness include the following:

Depression

Anxiety disorders,

Bipolar disorders.

schizophrenia and

Dementia.

Some of the general symptoms of psychiatric illness include the following:

Restricted effects

Confused thinking

Reduced ability to concentrate

Deep, ongoing sadness, or feeling “down”

Inability to manage day-to-day stress and problems

Trouble understanding situations and other people

Withdrawal from others and from activities you used to enjoy.

Restricted effects are those expressions that are being restrained to a particular style.

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a woman with a progressively enlarging neck comes into the clinic. she mentions that she has been in a foreign country for the previous 3 months and that she didn't eat much while she was there because she didn't like the food. she also mentions that she becomes dizzy when lifting her arms to do normal household chores or when dressing. what endocrine condition should the nurse expect the health care provider to diagnose?

Answers

The correct answer is Goiter

What is Goiter?

Your thyroid gland will expand if you have a goitre. That is the gland at the base of your Adam's apple, toward the front of your neck.

It might be be a short-term issue that gets better on its own. Or it can be a sign of a different thyroid disease that needs medical attention and could be more serious.

A goitre may develop from an abnormal cell proliferation that causes one or more lumps (nodules) in the thyroid or it may be an overall enlargement of the thyroid. Thyroid hormone levels may rise or fall, or there may be no change in thyroid function in the case of a goitre.

Other than a swelling at the base of the neck, most persons with goitres don't exhibit any other symptoms or indicators. The goitre is frequently so little that it is only ever found through a regular medical examination or imaging test for another condition.

Other indications or symptoms depend on the state of the thyroid, the rate of growth, and whether breathing is obstructed by the goitre.

Fatigue

Higher sensitivity to the cold

Increased somnolence

Arid skin

Constipation

Muscle tremor

memory or concentration issues

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the incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the united states was 12.43/100,000 cases. this means

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If the incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the US was 12.43/100,000 cases, this means that there are 12.43 new cases in a population of 100,000 people.

What is incidence in epidemiology?

Incidence in epidemiology refers to the refers to the occurrence of new cases of disease or injury in a population over a specified period of time.

Simply put, incidence rate is the number of new cases within a time period (the numerator) as a proportion of the number of people at risk for the disease (the denominator). This measure is commonly used in epidemiology as a way to denote the occurrence of disease, illness, or accident.

According to this question, the incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the US was 12.43/100,000 cases, this denotes that the number of new cases is 12.43 in a population of 100,000 people in the region or country.

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which hypertensive disorder would the nurse suspect this patient has based upon the information provided?

Answers

Chronic hypertension , Preeclampsia-eclampsia & Gestational hypertension.

When a patient is pregnant, chronic hypertension is defined as hypertension that started before 20 weeks of pregnancy. Proteinuria and hypertension that appear 20 weeks after conception are referred to as preeclampsia. Eclampsia is the beginning of seizure activity in a preeclamptic pregnant patient. After 20 weeks of pregnancy, hypertension begins to manifest as gestational hypertension. Hyperemesis gravidarum and gestational trophoblastic illness are not hypertensive conditions.

A illness without a viable fetus known as gestational trophoblastic disease is brought on by improper fertilization. Extreme vomiting, or hyperemesis gravidarum, can cause electrolyte imbalance and weight loss in pregnant women.

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an informatics nurse is part of a team working on developing a clinical information system for a facility. the team is working on ensuring that the system supports usability. during which phase of the system development lifecycle would the team integrate the principles of usability as a priority?

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During design phase of the system development lifecycle would the team integrate the principles of usability as a priority.

The analysis of patient data, which can originate from a variety of sources and modalities, including electronic health records, the results of diagnostic tests, and medical scans, is the goal of the science and engineering field known as health informatics.

A nurse informaticist gives care teams the best chance for effective care delivery by disseminating knowledge about new workflows, assisting with the deployment of new technology and procedures, and evaluating the quality of data.

A Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) is necessary in order to work as a Nurse Informatics Specialist. Additionally, getting a license is necessary. By passing the NCLEX-RN exam, this is possible. Technology and the nursing profession frequently interact.

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a client diagnosed with a terminal illness appoints her oldest son as the authorized individual to make medical decisions on her behalf when she is no longer able to speak for herself. which proxy directive is the patient using?

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Power of attorney for healthcare is being used by the proxy directive patient.

Healthcare powers of attorney and proxy directives are other names for durable powers of attorney for healthcare. It enables someone else to make medical choices for the client.

If you are incapable to speak for yourself, a healthcare proxy designates a trusted individual as your agent, proxy, or representative to communicate your intentions and make healthcare choices on your behalf.

It is not necessary to get the document notarized. However, if at all feasible, get it notarized. Make many copies of the power of attorney after it has been signed. One copy should be given to your main care physician.

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the nurse understands that clients with neurocognitive disorders often experience visuospatial confusion as their diseases progress. which measure should be undertaken to maximize clients' safety and independence when navigating an inpatient facility?

Answers

Post arrows, signs, and paths in the facility and increased lighting should be the important measures undertaken to maximize clients' safety and independence when navigating an inpatient facility.

There are three types of neurocognitive disorders:

Delirium : A major alteration in mental capacity is delirium. Thinking becomes muddled and one loses awareness of their environment as a result. Usually, the problem develops quickly - in a matter of hours or days. Delirium frequently has one or more causes, but not always Mild .Neurocognitive disorder: some mental function is reduced, but the patient can operate independently and do everyday duties. Decreased brain function and lack of capacity to do daily tasks are symptoms of a major neurocognitive disease, also known as dementia

A category of illnesses known as neurocognitive disorders typically result in reduced mental function.

Mental function impairment may include:

difficulties with remembering.alterations in behavior.having trouble comprehending languagedifficulty carrying out everyday tasks.

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Which body system is formed by all the structures that move blood through the body?.

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The blood and lymphatic vessels that circulate through the body make up the vascular system, also known as the circulatory system.

What is the vascular system?The blood and lymphatic vessels that circulate through the body make up the vascular system, also known as the circulatory system.The arteries and veins transport blood throughout the body, providing the tissues with oxygen and nutrition and removing waste products from the cells. There are five different types of blood vessels: capillaries, veins, venules, and arteries and arterioles (the arterial system) (the smallest bloods vessels, linking arterioles and venules through net- works within organs and tissues) In higher plants, vascular tissues—complex conducting tissues consisting of several cell and elemental types—are present.Xylem and phloem are the two principal constituents of vascular tissue in plants.The movement of water and nutrients within the plants is carried out by these tissues.

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with which medical condition would a nurse expect the health care provider to reduce the dosage of ranitidine due to potential accumulation of the drug?

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The medical condition in which a nurse would expect the health care provider to reduce the dosage of ranitidine due to potential accumulation of the drug is kidney Disease.

Who are health care provider?

A health care provider is described as an individual health professional or a health facility organization licensed to provide health care diagnosis and treatment services including medication, surgery and medical devices.

Ranitidine can damage kidneys because it contains a chemical called NDMA (N-Nitrosodimethylamine), which can cause kidney cancer and reduced kidney function.

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a nurse is providing education to the family of a client beginning peritoneal dialysis. the family ask questions concerning catheter placement and stabilization. which information will the nurse provide about the cuffs? select all that apply.

Answers

The Information which nurse should provide about the cuffs are:

A. The cuffs are constructed of Dacron polyester material.

B. The cuffs will help stabilize the catheter .

C. The cuffs helps in preventing the dialysate from leaking.

D. The cuffs provide the barrier against microorganisms.

So, the correct options are A,B,C,D.

Most of catheters used for peritoneal dialysis have two cuffs, which are made of the Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit movement, prevent leaks, and provide the barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate.

Hence, the information listed in options A,B,C,D will the nurse should provide.

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(Complete question) is:

a nurse is providing education to the family of a client beginning peritoneal dialysis. the family ask questions concerning catheter placement and stabilization. which information will the nurse provide about the cuffs? select all that apply.

A. The cuffs are constructed of Dacron polyester material.

B. The cuffs will help stabilize the catheter .

C. The cuffs helps in preventing the dialysate from leaking.

D. The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms.

E. The cuffs will absorb the dialysate.

a 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. it began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. it hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. she has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. she has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. she denies any other recent illness or injuries. her past medical history is unremarkable. she denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. on examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. she is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. she has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. what type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?

Answers

The 27 year-old policewomen is most likely to have ureteral pain (from a kidney stone).

Why does ureteral pain occur?

A kidney stone that becomes stuck in the ureters can restrict the urine's flow, inflame the kidney, and cause the ureter to spasm, all of which can be extremely painful.The lower abdomen or groin and areas below the ribcage, on one side of the body are the most typical areas to experience this pain.

What are stones?

A calculus (plural calculi), often known as a stone, is a concretion of substance that develops in a biological organ or duct and is typically made up of mineral salts.The process of forming calculi is called lithiasis.

Therefore, ureteral pain is the correct answer.

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which assertive intervention would the nurse implement after learning from one of the adolescents that another adolescent client broke the windows in the recreation room

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Answer:approach the adolescent when the client is alone, and after making direct eye contact, inquire about the involvement in these incidents

Explanation:

Verification is possible through a private confrontation with the presentation of the claimed facts; a composed, firm demeanor is best.

Aggressive confrontation, not assertive intervention, is openly confronting the adolescent in front of the group while using a calm voice and maintaining direct eye contact.

Putting the management of the situation in the client's hands rather than the nurse's by knocking on the door of the teenager's room and asking if the adolescent would come out to talk about it could result in a violent confrontation.

It is not a forceful intervention; it is manipulative and untruthful to take a trusting stance toward the teenager. It implies that the staff questions the adolescent's involvement but seeks a denial for the record.

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an older, emaciated client is brought to an emergency department by the client's caregiver. the client has bruises and abrasions on shoulders and back in multiple stages of healing. when directly asked about these symptoms, which type of client response should a nurse anticipate?

Answers

The nurse should anticipate that the client may decline or avoid such questions and may be unwilling to answer and to disclose any information

The adults who are often caught in an abusive and fighting situation are not likely to say what is happening to due to fear of reprisal or because of diminished cognitive abilities

The older people also have fear of retaliation, fear and embarrassment about the existence of abuse in the family,

Some do not tell the nurse due to the protectiveness toward a family member and unwillingness to bring about legal action that may cause their children troubles. This could be also due to the family caregiver torture that he avoids the nurse telling the whole situation.

Nurse should ask a family member/caregiver about the problem rather asking the adult.

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the nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. the affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. the pedal pulse is palpable and unchanged from admission. how should the nurse correctly interpret the client's neurovascular status?

Answers

The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg.

What is an aortoiliac bypass graft?

In order to bypass a blocked or diseased vessel, an incision is made down the middle of the abdomen to access the aorta and place a graft, connecting it to one or both of the femoral arteries (which extend from the iliac artery into the leg).

Warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity are anticipated side effects of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery due to increased blood flow. All of the other possibilities are incorrect interpretations.

Hence, the affected leg is warm because of increased blood flow.

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a client with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium, and today the client's serum lithium level is 2.0 meq/l. what effects would the nurse expect to see?

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Increased serum lithium level in the client are seen. The effects which would the nurse expect to see due to the increased serum lithium level is nausea, diarrhea, and confusion.

What is Bipolar disorder?

Bipolar disorder was formerly called as manic-depressive illness. It is a mental illness which results in unusual shifts in mood, energy, activity levels, concentration, and the ability to carry out the day-to-day tasks.

Lithium helps in reducing the severity and frequency of mania. Mania is the elevated, euphoric end of the mood scale and lithium may help to treat bipolar depression. Lithium may help in reducing the feelings of hurting self. Lithium helps in the prevention of manic and depressive episodes which occur in the future.

Some of the most common side effects of lithium are the feeling of sickness, diarrhea, a dry mouth and a metallic taste in the mouth.

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Why are microdeletions and microinsertions difficult to diagnose with karyotyping.

Answers

You can only see the chromosomes when you are diagnose with karyotyping.

What are the constraints on karyotyping for detecting chromosomal abnormalities?

The need for a sample to have live, fresh cells and the low sensitivity of karyotype analysis for the detection of abnormalities—at least 5–10% of the cells must have the abnormality for the analysis to be effective—are some of its drawbacks.

A change in the reading phase of the gene might result in a mutation that entirely alters how a gene is translated into a particular protein. These mutations typically involve a pair of nitrogenous nucleotides.

A nucleotide is added to the DNA sequence by microinsertions, whereas a nucleotide is removed by microdeletions.You can only see the chromosomes when you kyrotype.

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hydration status is being monitored for a patient being treated for dehydration. which statements made by the nurse to the patient accurately reflect the assessment of fluid intake and output? (select all that apply.)

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Drinking a lot of fluids is better than drinking too little, because it is much easier for the body to excrete excess water than to conserve it. However, when the kidneys function normally, the body can accept wide variations in fluid intake.

When is the person dehydrated?

In light degrees, a classic sign that the body is dehydrated is constant thirst, even on days with the lowest temperature. Drinking juices or soft drinks, for example, will not quench your thirst.

Dehydration is a lack of water. Vomiting, diarrhea, excessive sweating, burns, kidney failure and use of diuretics can cause dehydration. People feel thirsty, and as dehydration worsens, they may sweat less and excrete less urine.

What happens if you drink too much water?

Drinking too much water can cause an imbalance in the concentration of electrolytes in the blood, especially sodium. The problem is called hyponatremia, which means a drop in the blood sodium level and can lead, in very serious situations, to water intoxication.

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both the underfed/underweight and the overfed/overweight face similar health problems, potentially including all of the following except:

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Both the underweight and the overweight people face similar health problems. It includes all of the following, except: an overabundance of energy.

What are the common similar health problems that underweight and overweight people face?

Being underweight is a condition when someone’s BMI is under 18.5. Whereas a person is called overweight when their BMI is over 25. Both underweight and overweight people more than likely face similar health problems in their everyday life such as:

A distorted body imageCaloric imbalanceWeak immune systemDepression and anxietyOsteoarthritisSleep apneaSome types of cancerLower quality of life.

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which sign/symptom would the nurse expect when assessing a client diagnosed with aortic valve stenosis?

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An abnormal coronary heart sound (coronary heart murmur) heard via a stethoscope is the sign/symptom might the nurse count on whilst assessing a purchaser recognized with aortic valve stenosis.

Aortic valve stenosis — or aortic stenosis — is a kind of coronary heart valve disease (valvular coronary heart disease). The valve among the decrease left coronary heart chamber and the body's predominant artery (aorta) is narrowed and does not open fully. This reduces or blocks blood waft from the coronary heart to the aorta and to the relaxation of the body.

Treatment of aortic stenosis relies upon at the severity of the condition. You can also additionally want surgical procedure to restore or update the valve. Without treatment, extreme aortic valve stenosis can result in death. Aortic valve stenosis degrees from moderate to extreme. Symptoms commonly arise whilst narrowing of the valve is extreme. Some humans with aortic valve stenosis might not have signs and symptoms for plenty years.

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a patient with aml is having aggressive chemotherapy to attempt to achieve remission. the patient is aware that hospitalization will be necessary for several weeks. what type of therapy will the nurse explain that the patient will receive?

Answers

Induction therapy type of therapy will the nurse explain that the patient will receive.

What is Induction therapy?

The first of a series of therapeutic procedures performed to treat a disease, usually cancer. Induction therapy, such as in acute leukaemia, is the first chemotherapy treatment designed to induce remission.

Induction therapy for multiple myeloma aims to reduce the number of plasma cells in the bone marrow and the proteins produced by the plasma cells. Induction therapy is usually given over several months. Standard remission induction therapy currently consists of 3 days of  anthracycline and 7 days of cytarabine. After induction, patients usually need 2-3 weeks for the bone marrow to resume blood cell production.

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expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use is a symptom of substance dependence. True or False

Answers

Expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use is a symptom of substance dependence is a true statement.

What is substance dependence?

Substance dependence is a term to describe drug or alcohol abuse that continues even after serious problems have developed as a result of their use. It can lead to tolerance, which causes a desire for more dose levels resulting in increased resistance to the drug's effects. This also could lead to a drug addiction that is hard to control.

There are several symptoms of substance dependence:

• Expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use

Tolerance to or the need for increased drug consumption

Withdrawal symptoms that occur when you reduce or stop using the drug that you are attempting to reduce or quit

• Spending a significant amount of time acquiring, using, and recovering from the effects of the drug use

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which parent education would the nurs give about why the mmr vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age

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A nurse plans to train the symptoms and symptoms of rejection to figure training this will supply records approximately why the MMR vaccine is run at 12 to fifteen months of age.

Rubella vaccine evoked suitable seroresponse (> 92%) at 9, 12 and 15 months, each via way of means of HI take a look at and ELISA. Thus a higher reaction to the MMR vaccine become acquired at or after three hundred and sixty five days of age than earlier. Hence, a dose of MMR can be given optimally at three hundred and sixty five days for youngsters now no longer formerly immunized with measles vaccine.

Measles-containing vaccines aren't mechanically encouraged for babies much less than three hundred and sixty five days of age. This is due to the fact maternal antibodies to measles persist in lots of babies till about eleven months of age. These may also intrude with lively immunisation earlier than three hundred and sixty five days of age.

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which of the following definitions is incorrect? a. endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population b. epidemic: a disease that is sporadic across the world c. pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time d. sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally e. incidence: number of new cases of a disease in a specific time period

Answers

The incorrect definition among the given options is sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally (option D).

What is epidemic and endemic disease?

Endemic diseases are diseases that are native particular area or culture, usually originating where it occurs.

Epidemic disease is a widespread disease that affects many individuals in a population.

Pandemic is a disease that affects a wide geographical area and a large proportion of the population.

Sporadic disease is a disease occurring in isolated instances i.e. not widespread or scattered in occurrence.

Incidence is a measure of the rate of new occurrence of a given medical condition in a population within a specified period of time.

Based on the above explanation of epidemiologic terms, it can be observed that the sporadic disease definition is incorrect.

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Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a female client's uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem during this procedure?
1. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
2. Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%
3. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl
4. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

Answers

A WBC count of 20,000 or higher indicates a serious issue with hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis if it is started to treat uremia in a female client.

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3; An elevated WBC count denotes infection, likely brought on by peritonitis and possibly brought on by the insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client because peritonitis can make the peritoneal membrane incapable of filtering solutes.

During hemodialysis, the blood comes into direct contact with the dialysis membrane, causing a number of changes in the blood cells. Neutrophils are stimulated and start to degranulate, white blood cell count and total lymphocyte number are decreased, and platelet adhesiveness is increased.

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immediately after giving birth to a full-term infant, a client develops dyspnea and cyanosis. her blood pressure decreases to 60/40 mm hg, and she becomes unresponsive. what does the nurse suspect is happening with this client?

Answers

When the patient's blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg and she loses consciousness, the nurse realizes that the patient is experiencing an amniotic fluid embolism.

An indication of amniotic fluid embolism is a rapid decrease in blood pressure in pregnant individuals.

Pregnancy complications like amniotic fluid embolization syndrome are rare, unexpected, and dangerous. Which individuals are at risk for AFE cannot be predicted with any degree of certainty. A range of clinical signs & symptoms must be used to make the diagnosis, along with the elimination of other potential causes.

An uncommon, frequently dangerous complication of labor & delivery is amniotic fluid embolism. The clinical symptoms of hypoxia, hypotension, & coagulopathy suddenly appearing is the typical presentation.

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which antihypertensive medication is used to treat pulmonary artery hypertension related to severe heart failure

Answers

The antihypertensive medications used to treat pulmonary artery hypertension related to severe heart failure include the following:

amlodipine (Norvasc), diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac, others) and nifedipine (Procardia).

What is pulmonary artery hypertension?

Pulmonary artery hypertension is described as a type of high blood pressure that affects the arteries in the lungs and the right side of the heart.

There are some common underlying causes of pulmonary artery hypertension which ranges from high blood pressure in the lungs' arteries due to some types of congenital heart disease, connective tissue disease, coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, liver disease and many more.

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The dermis sits on the

Answers

Answer:

what?

Explanation:

can you explain the question

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which of the following emotional rules argues emotional displays should be managed in order to create a positive work climate? question a fair die with its faces numbered from 1 to 6 will be rolled. which of the following is the best interpretation of the probability that the number landing face up will be less than 3 ? responses for many rolls of the die, the long-run relative frequency of a number less than 3 landing face up is 13. for many rolls of the die, the long-run relative frequency of a number less than 3 landing face up is one third . for many rolls of the die, the long-run relative frequency of a number less than 3 landing face up is 12. for many rolls of the die, the long-run relative frequency of a number less than 3 landing face up is one half . for many rolls of the die, the long-run relative frequency of a number less than 3 landing face up is 23. for many rolls of the die, the long-run relative frequency of a number less than 3 landing face up is two thirds . for three rolls of the die, a number less than 3 will land face up one time. for three rolls of the die, a number less than 3 will land face up one time. it will take three rolls of the die before a number less than 3 lands face up for the first time. Part AIn "The Storyteller," how does the aunt ultimately feel about the bachelor's story?O She approves of it.O She thinks it's very imaginative.O She disapproves of it.O She has mixed feelings about it.Part B - Points depend on a correct response in Part A.Which evidence from "The Storyteller" best supports the answer in Part A?O "A most improper story to tell to young children! You have undermined the effect of years of careful teaching.""O "The aunt suppressed a gasp of admiration."O "He was a hard, unsympathetic man, the aunt decided in her mind."O "It's a very difficult thing to tell stories that children can both understand and appreciate,' she said stiffly." PLEASE HURYYY RIGHT NOW compared with girls living in father-absent families, girls with fathers present are less likely to experience teen pregnancy. in order for an it project to achieve its required objectives and meet quality expectations, what three boundaries should it operate within? a. budget, time, and policy b. scope, schedule, and cost c. resources, requirements, and market trends d. quality, customer satisfaction, and political intervention The latest web application, using default settings, is currently accepting application programming interface (API) calls over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP). The environment has a moderate key management system. Even with basic server security, the API connection is vulnerable to which of the following? What type of results in genetic expression do you think may occur if even one nucleotide is not correctly transcribed from the DNA to the RNA? Explain. It takes 3.5 ounces of cocoa to make a cup of hot chocolate how much cocoa is needed to make 7 cups of hot chocolate Ling tried to solve an equation.12=p+6.212 + 6.2 = p + 6.2- 6.2 Setting up18.2 = P Calculating Click on the box next to each word in the sentence. Choose common noun, proper noun, or neither.The balloon crossed the Atlantic Ocean before the airplane.The Choose... balloon Choose... crossed Choose... the Choose... Atlantic Ocean Choose... before Choose... the Choose... airplane Choose... According to mandelbaum, what are the distinctive features of american team sports?. which of the following states of matter are considered fluids what instructions would a nurse give to an adolescent to prevent sexually transmitted infections eaq which of the following is an objection to affirmative action programs raised by consequentialist critics? children raised in loving homes with affectionate parents are more likely to develop a sense of . a cannon fires a cannonball straight up. what is the magnitude of the cannonball's acceleration at the top of its path assuming no air resistance? Consider the function f(x) = x+2 and g(x) = ax+b. Find a and b, if fog (1) = 2 and g (-1)=2. You have a summer job that pays time and a half for overtime. That means if you workmore than 40 hours in a week, your hourly wage for the extra hours is 1.5 times yourrate of $12 per hour.How much will you get paid if you work 47 hours? Dr. Heidegger is an odd fellow, but it is uncertain if he's simply odd or evil odd. He's had quite a few dead patients, including his fiance. Decide whether hes odd or evil and support your decision with information from the text. Write a well-developed, complex multi-paragraph response as your answer.