The energy transferred per unit electric charge in a circuit is .
A current
B charge
C power
D potential difference​

Answer:

C

Explanation:

The attractive force of their magnetic fields is greatest at the poles. Option B is correct.

Earth's magnetic field is similar to that of a bar magnet in that both have north and south poles. The magnetic field lines of both Earth and a bar magnet originate from the north pole and loop around to the south pole. The magnetic field lines are most concentrated and the attractive force is strongest near the poles of both Earth and a bar magnet.

At the poles, the magnetic field lines are densely packed and closely spaced, leading to a stronger magnetic force. This is why compass needles, which align with Earth's magnetic field, point towards the magnetic north pole.

The statement about electric current causing them to lose magnetism (option D) is not accurate. Electric current can actually create magnetic fields, as seen in electromagnets. Earth's magnetic field is generated by the movement of molten iron in its outer core, not by electric currents in the conventional sense.

In summary, option B is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the similarity in the distribution of magnetic field lines and the strength of the attractive force near the poles for both Earth and a bar magnet.

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Solution is in attachment ~

I hope that you got what you were looking for, and if there's different data then go through the same procedure, using same formula with different values and you will get your answer ~

[tex]\mathrm{✌TeeNForeveR✌}[/tex]

Answer:1.9 × 10³⁰

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]v = \frac{d}{t} \rightarrow t= \frac{v}{d} \\ = 100m \div 5m. {s}^{ - 1} = \frac{100}{5} \\ \color{green} \boxed{ t = 20s}[/tex]

Answer:

V =  1.25E-7 cubic meter

Answer:

Explanation:

The kinetic energy of an object can be found by using the formula

[tex]k = \frac{1}{2} m {v}^{2} \\ [/tex]

m is the mass in kg

v is the velocity in m/s

From the question

m = 20 kg

v = 2.5 m/s

From the question we have

[tex]k = \frac{1}{2} \times 20 \times {2.5}^{2} \\ = 10 \times 6.25 \\ = 62.5\: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: [/tex]

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

The energy of characteristic x rays tend to increase for heavier elements

because the charge of the nucleus increases.

X ray is a form of an electromagnetic spectrum and the energy is directly

proportional to the charge of the nucleus. This implies that an increase in

the nucleus charge will lead to a corresponding increase in x ray energy

and vice versa.

X rays energy is also usually more in heavier elements than when

compared to lighter elements

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Answer:

True

Explanation:

Since acceleration is inversely proportional to mass, decreasing mass will make the object lighter, and thus easier to speed up. So acceleration increases as mass decreases and vice versa

Answer: TRUE                                                                        Explanation:Newton's second law of motion can be formally stated as follows: The acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.

Answer: Look at Explanation

Explanation:

4.7 east

2.9 west

4.7 - 2.9 = 1.8 to the east

then 13km to the west

-1.8 + 13 = 11.2 to the west left side

Answer:

a object with net force on it will stay in motion unless acted on by an equal opposite force.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Answer:

C) an investigation of conduction through collisions between particles in space

Answer:

anywhere the tornado goes debri goes except for the more heavier pieces they just go in random places but the lighter pieces stay with the tornado until the tornado is gone or disinegrated

Explanation:

around and around

Hi there!

When the acceleration of a block in SHM is 0 m/s², the NET FORCE must equal 0 N.

0 m/s² acceleration is obtained when the spring is at its equilibrium point, meaning that:

∑F = -kx (x = displacement from equilibrium point in meters)

If the block is at the equilibrium point, displacement = 0m, so:

∑F = -k(0) = 0 N

With Newton's Second Law, ∑F = ma. If the net force is 0 N, then there is no acceleration experienced by the block.

Thus, the other quantity that must be 0 is the block's NET FORCE.

Answer:

cardiac

Explanation:

cardiac muscle can contact themselves

Answer:

P V = N R T      ideal gas equation

V = .19 * A      volume of enclosed gas

.19 P = N R T / A      using volume of enclosed gas

P = Po + Phg       pressure on gas = atmospheric (Po) + Phg pressure due to column of mercury

.19 (Po + Phg) = N R T / A which is what was asked

Note Phg = density of Hg * height of Hg * acceleration due to gravity

A tube of constant circular cross-section, sealed at on end, contains an ideal gas trapped by a cylinder of mercury of length 0.035m. There will atmospheric pressure and pressure due to mercury column on trapped gas column  having length 0.19m which is given by,

(p₀+pm)×0.190 = nRT÷A.

Pressure is defined as force per unit area. i.e. P = F/A it gives the force on unit area.  its SI unit is Pascal (Pa) which is equal to N/m².  is a scalar quantity. its dimensions are [M¹ L⁻¹ T⁻²].

Looking at the figure from top to bottom, we can see the top end of the tube is opened. There is 0.035m of mercury column below which we have a air 0.190m of gas column.

We can feel the physics behind this figure what is happening here, top of the tube is open so there is atmospheric pressure acting on the mercury column and mercury column is above the gas column, it means that both atmospheric pressure and mercury pressure will act on gas column.

i.e.  (p₀+pm) = pressure on the air column

this (p₀+pm) is downward pressures, hence gas inside the tube gets compressed due to this pressure because bottom end is closed. it means that back pressure will be created inside the gas in upward direction and both pressures becomes equal at equilibrium.

i.e. (p₀+pm) = back pressure inside the gas column......1)

according to ideal gas equation, PV=nRT

pressure inside the air column is P = nRT÷V

where V is volume of gas that is A×0.190.

P = nRT÷(A×0.190).....( back pressure inside the gas column).

equation 1 becomes

(p₀+pm) = nRT÷(A×0.190).

Hence we get

(p₀+pm) ×0.190= nRT÷(A).

Hence proved.

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Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

It's still the same orange with the same amount of stuff.

Answer:

cuz model clay float

Explanation:

yeah

Answer:

Temporarily yes, if you are speaking of a skeletally mature person, taking pressure off of joints will allow them to absorb more fluid and thus be a larger diameter. If that expansion is in a vertical direction then you would in fact be taller until the fluid was returned to outside of the joint.

Answer:

I think it's a. Object velocity

Explanation:

.

Answer:

Object mass

Explanation:

I had answered and thats what it is

Newton's second law allows to find the acceleration of the two-body system, where a mass is hanging is:

Newton's second law states that the net force on a body is equal to the product of the mass and the acceleration.

         ∑ F = m a

Where the bold letters indicate vectors, F is the force, m the mass and the acceleration of the body.

A free body diagram is that diagram of the system where the forces are shown without the details of the bodies. In the attachment we have a free-body diagram of the system.

Let's write Newton's second law for each axis.

x- axis

        T = m₁ a

y-axis

body in the horizontal part

        N-W₁ = 0

       N = W₁

Body hanging.  

         W₂ - T = m₂ a

Wwhere the positive direction is down, let's write our system of equations.

                T = m₁ a  

         W₂-T = m₂ a

Let's Resolve.

          m₂ g = (m₁ + m₂) a

          a = [tex]\frac{m_2}{m_1+m_2} \ g[/tex]  

Let's calculate.

         a =[tex]\frac{63}{10+63} \ 9.8[/tex]  

         a = 8.46 m / s²

In conclusion using Newton's second law we can find the acceleration of the two-body system, where a mass is hanging is:

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Answer:

a property  of a moving body that the body has by virtue of its mass  and motion and that is equal to the product of the body's mass and velocity

Explanation:

Formula:

Momentum: Mass x Velocity

Hope it helps!

Answer:

James is traveling at 4 miles per hour.

Explanation:

3 miles per 45 minutes

x miles per 60 minutes(1 hour)

___________________

3*60=45*x

180=45x |:45

x=4

Answer:

Heat is given off by Fire.

Explanation:

Answer:

When an object is speeding up, the acceleration is in the same direction as the velocity. Thus, this object has a positive acceleration. In Example B, the object is moving in the negative direction (i.e., has a negative velocity) and is slowing down.

Explanation:

Answer:

It’s zero.

Explanation:

It’s a straight line so its at a rest.

Hi there!

We know that:

[tex]P = \frac{W}{t}\\\\[/tex]

Where:

W = Work done (J)

t = time (s)

We can calculate the work using the equation:

[tex]W = \Delta U = mg\Delta h[/tex]

Plug in the given values:

[tex]W = 60(9.8)(4) = 2352J[/tex]

Now, divide by time:

[tex]P = \frac{W}{t} = \frac{2352}{4.2} = \boxed{560W \text{ (Watts)}}[/tex]

Answer:

Space junk, or space debris, is any piece of machinery or debris left by humans in space. It can refer to big objects such as dead satellites that have failed or been left in orbit at the end of their mission. It can also refer to smaller things, like bits of debris or paint flecks that have fallen off a rocket.

Answer:

In addition to derelict man-made objects left in orbit, other examples of space debris include fragments from their disintegration, erosion and collisions or even paint flecks, solidified liquids expelled from spacecraft, and unburned particles from solid rocket motors. Space debris represents a risk to spacecraft.

Explanation:

Answer:  

1 s

Explanation:

The speed of the sound, distance travelled and the time taken relationship is given as follows.

Speedofsound,v=Distancetravelled×Timetaken ----eqn 1

With the given values of wavelength = 50 cm = 0.5 m and frequency =1000 Hz, the speed of the wave is calculated as follows.

Speedofsound,v=Frequency(ν)×Wavelength(λ) -- eqn 2

That is, v=ν×λ=1000Hz×0.5m=500m/s

Substituting the value of the speed of sound in eqn 1 gives the time taken for the sound wave to travel a distance of 500 m.

That is, Timetaken=

Distancetravelled

Speedofsound

​

=

500m

500m/s

​

=1second.

Hence, the time taken for the sound wave to travel is 1 second.

The speed with which the waves will be travelling is 12.5m/s.

Given the data in the question;

Speed of the wave; [tex]v =\ ?[/tex]

To determine how fast the waves will be travelling, we use the expression for the relations between wavelength, frequency and speed of wave.

[tex]\lambda = \frac{v}{f}[/tex]

Where [tex]\lambda[/tex] is wavelength, f is frequency and v is speed of wave

We substitute our values into the equation

[tex]0.5m = \frac{v}{25s^{-1}} \\\\v = 0.5m * 25s^{-1}\\\\v = 12.5ms^{-1}[/tex]

Therefore, the speed with which the waves will be travelling is 12.5m/s.

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