The development that freed vertebrates from water for reproduction and allowed them to radiate into diverse terrestrial environments was the evolution of amniotic egg.
One of the key evolutionary differences between higher creatures like reptiles, birds, and mammals and amphibians is the amniotic egg, which emerged more than 300 million years ago. Amphibians were only able to live in damp conditions where the eggs could remain moist. The development of the amniotic egg allowed for the spread of animals to diverse terrestrial environments.
The creation of amniotic membranes allowed amniotes to spread out into drier habitats since their embryos had access to their own aquatic environment, which reduced their reliance on water for growth.
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Which wells/lanes (A-E; M is the reference well with DNA fragments of known sizes) contain fragments of DNA that are the same size as each other (included all similar fragments)?
What are the approximate sizes of the fragments?
PS100074 vector in vitro digested using purified Cas9 protein (Cat. No. TP790148) and particular sgRNA. Only when the purified Cas9 protein is combined with a particular sgRNA can it cut the substrate DNA.
The splitting or breaking of DNA strands into pieces is known as DNA fragmentation.
What do you mean by DNA fragments ?Cells can do it on purpose, laboratory workers can do it on purpose, or it can happen naturally. DNA fragmentation that occurs accidentally or spontaneously builds up over time in a cell.
The intrinsic causes of sperm DNA fragmentation include insufficient recombination, protamine imbalances, oxidative stress, and abortive apoptosis.Even in oocytes of high quality, sperm DNA fragmentation was inversely linked with blastulation and conception rates. High amounts of DNA damage encourage embryo arrest and cause the apoptotic pathway to be activated.To know more about DNA fragmentation please click here ; https://brainly.com/question/17568989
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these proteins attach to distal control elements in enhancers a. these proteins attach to the core promoter region c. these proteins interact with activators and basal transcription factors d. these proteins help to bring the enhancer and promoter regions closer together
Enhancer regions serve as locations or binding sequences for particular transcription factors. A protein transcription factor binds to its enhancer sequence and activates the gene.
There are areas in several eukaryotic genes that aid in enhancing or increasing transcription. These areas, which are referred to as enhancers, are not always adjacent to the genes they enhance. They may be thousands of nucleotides apart, within the gene's coding region, downstream of the gene, or upstream of the gene. The shape of a protein changes when a protein transcription factor binds to its enhancer sequence, enabling it to interact with proteins at the promoter region. The DNA must bend to allow the proteins at the two locations to interact, while the enhancer region may be far from the promoter. The enhancer and promoter regions are brought together by the DNA being bent by DNA bending proteins.
Hence, enhancer upregulate gene expression on binding to promoter.
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In the fall, the leaves of some trees change color. This happens because chlorophyll breaks down and the accessory pigments become visible. What hormone is responsible for this?.
Answer:
Ethylene
Explanation:
The forces exerted on an object are shown.
A box has an arrow pointing right labeled F and an arrow pointing left labeled 8 N.
If the object moves left, which statement is correct about force F?
It is equal to 8 N.
It is equal to 10 N.
It is less than 8 N.
It is greater than 10 N.
Answer:
It is less than 8N
Explanation:
If the object moves left, the force on the left side must be greater, otherwise it would either stay still or move to the right
When the vagus nerve is stimulated by pressure on the carotid sinus or by straining during a bowel movement, an electrical signal is sent down releasing what neurotransmitter
The neurotransmitter released when the vagus nerve is stimulated is acetylcholine.
When the vagus nerve is stimulated, it causes the release of acetylcholine in the brain and throughout the body. The release of acetylcholine causes the body to relax and can slow the heart rate and reduce blood pressure.
Acetylcholine also increases the production of mucous in the nose and throat, which helps protect the body from pathogens. Stimulation of the vagus nerve is one of the main ways the body regulates its autonomic functions, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion.
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acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ans and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers.
The statement acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, is true as it performs the function of neurotransmitter.
Within the parasympathetic alone, the postganglionic neuron releases acetylcholine as its number one neurotransmitter. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic, which means they launch acetylcholine (Ach) on the synapse withinside the ganglion.
Acetylcholine is launched via way of means of all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and via way of means of the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers. The ANS stimulates easy muscle tissues, skeletal muscle tissues and glands, while the somatic worried device innervates skeletal muscle tissues only.
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Lesson 1.2.2
Time of death
Temperature Measurements
How do you convert from Celsius to Fahrenheit? Convert each from Celsius to Fahrenheit
Answer:
0℃ 32 20℃ 68 50 ℃ 122
How will your team make it’s water bath & what does its water bath represent? To how many ℉ is 37℃ equal? What does the hot dog in the 37℃ water bath represent?
Answer: Answer:
To convert temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius, one has to subtract 32 and multiply by .5556 (or 5/9).
To convert temperatures in degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply by 1.8 (or 9/5) and add 32.
How to calculate the temperature?The physical concept of temperature expresses in numerical form how hot or cold something is. A thermometer is used to measure temperature.
The average kinetic energy of the particles inside an object is what determines its temperature, which is a way of expressing how hot or cold something is.
In this case, 37°C to Fahrenheit will be:
= (37 × 1.8) + 32
= 98.6° F
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What resource should you use to find where the moon cycle is at today?
Explanation:
To find out the current phase of the moon, you can use a number of resources, such as a moon phase calendar or an app on your phone. You can also check online websites or local newspapers, which often include information about the current phase of the moon. Additionally, you can look up at the sky and observe the moon to determine its current phase. The moon goes through eight distinct phases, which repeat every 29.5 days, so you can also keep track of the phase of the moon by keeping a lunar calendar or by using a moon phase app.
Which two organ systems interact to produce the sensation of hunger and ingest food in a bird? A. Lymphatic system B. Nervous system C. Respiratory system D. Digestive system
Answer:Digestive System and Nervous System
Explanation: Looking for TWO systems
Classify the hypotheses about the dwarf planet pluto as falsifiable or non-falsifiable. pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen. pluto has an unpleasant climate. pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction. pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.
Falsifiability at pluto is the capacity for a claim, assertion, theory, or hypothesis to be proven false. That ability is a crucial part of the scientific method and hypothesis testing.
Pluto has a bad atmosphere.
Compared to other nearby minor planets, Pluto's scenery is uninteresting and uninspiring.
Most of the surface of Pluto is composed of frozen nitrogen.
Tidal friction is causing Pluto's orbit to slow down.
What do the terms "falsifiable" and "non-falsifiable" mean?
A falsifiable hypothesis is one that can be disproved using modern technological testing. On the other hand, the non-falsifiable hypothese cannot be disproven hypothesis because testing has shown them to be accurate.
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Pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen.
This hypothesis is falsifiable. It can be tested through direct observation and analysis of Pluto's surface composition. By conducting close-up observations or sending a probe to Pluto, scientists can gather data to determine the composition of its surface and confirm or refute the hypothesis.
Pluto has an unpleasant climate.
This hypothesis is non-falsifiable. The term "unpleasant" is subjective and can vary depending on individual preferences or biases. What one person considers unpleasant, another might find intriguing or fascinating. Without a clear and objective definition of "unpleasant climate," it is not possible to conduct an empirical test to determine its validity.
Pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction.
This hypothesis is falsifiable. Scientists can study Pluto's orbit and collect data on its motion over an extended period. By analyzing the observed changes in its orbit and comparing them to the predictions of gravitational theory, they can evaluate whether tidal friction is causing the orbit to slow down or not.
Pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.
This hypothesis is non-falsifiable. Similar to the second hypothesis, the terms "dull" and "boring" are subjective and dependent on personal interpretation. Different people may have different opinions about what constitutes an interesting or exciting landscape. Without a clear and objective criteria for assessing the dullness or boredom of a landscape, this hypothesis cannot be empirically tested.
In summary, the hypotheses about Pluto can be categorized as follows:
Falsifiable hypotheses:
Pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen.
Pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction.
Non-falsifiable hypotheses:
Pluto has an unpleasant climate.
Pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.
why might a species' "optimal" phenotype remain unchanged for long periods of time, resulting in apparent evolutionary stasis?
Species remain unchanged for long time resulting in habitat tracking
What is habitat tracking ?
The way in which a species reacts to environmental change can range from adaptation to the new circumstances, through dispersal to areas with better biological settings (a process known as habitat tracking), to extinction.
Species that traveled farther during their existence survived longer, according to a phylogenetically explicit examination of habitat tracking in Caenozoic big mammals. We demonstrated that the longest distance was preferentially covered just before extinction by dividing the fossil record into equal time periods. This affirms that habitat monitoring is a critical response to environmental change and that it causes a species' survival to be prolonged.
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Which influencer, trendsetter and model embodies the dior backstage make-up collections?
Bella Hadid is a influencer, trendsetter and model who embodies the Dior backstage make-up collections.
Bernard Arnault, a French businessman, controls and chairs Dior, a French luxury fashion label.
The company was established in 1946 by French fashion designer Christian Dior, who was initially from Normandy. This brand only sells shoes, makeup, and clothing and is only available at Dior stores. Christian Dior, or simply Dior, is a luxury goods company best known for modernising the women's fashion industry. The brand has been credited with reviving Paris as the world's fashion capital after it fell out of favor following WWII.
Bella Hadid, who was born in the Netherlands to a Dutch mother and a Palestinian father, was announced as a Dior Makeup ambassador in 2016, and has started working on numerous Dior campaigns since then.
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Indicate whether each statement is true or false regarding primary and secondary responses to an antigen.
A primary response occurs when an antigens invades the body for the first time. B cells and T cell are activated to generate a response.
Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true?The B cells form plasma cells and memory cells during a primary response.A secondary response is faster than the primary response. When a pathogen invades the body again, the immune system already has memory cells for this pathogen. These memory cells will generate a quick response.During a secondary response, the plasma cells will make more plasma cells and will also make memory cells as the pathogen might invade again.The statement 'a primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells' is TRUE.A primary immune response occurs when lymphocytes are activated after the first recognition of the antigenic harmful material (e.g., a specific piece of protein of a virus).The naive lymphocytes are withe blood cells, i.e., lymphocytes, which have not yet encountered their antigenic material.These cells are activated by antigen-presenting cells, i.e., by dendritic cells and macrophages.When memory cells encounter their antigens again, they proliferate and differentiate to produce plasma cells, thereby a secondary (memory) response is generated.To learn more about antigen refer to:
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Why do researchers need a lot of data to monitor a specie population? what trends can you see in the data that you would have missed otherwise?.
Because there are many distinct species that can be found in different locations, researchers require a lot of data to monitor a specie population.
How do you keep track of population growth?The vast majority of techniques (which are all varieties of surveys) used to keep tabs on populations often fall into one of three groups: demographic studies, population censuses, and biodiversity inventories.
What techniques are currently being used by scientists to study wildlife populations?Scientists count animals or use other indirect methods to estimate wildlife populations. Counts are frequently imprecise and involve counting the number of animals in a sample of the study area in order to estimate the total number of animals present.
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Why did the population of peppered moths in England change from the light
variation to the dark variation after the Industrial Revolution?
A. The soot from the industrial revolution caused the light peppered
moth to fly away, and only the dark variation was left.
B. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made dark
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the light moths were left.
C. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made white
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the dark moths were left.
D. The industrial revolution did not have an effect on the peppered moth
Answer:
C. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made white
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the dark moths were left.
Explanation:
This process, known as industrial melanism, is an example of natural selection, in which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time based on their adaptive value.
the c ring of fof1 in spinach comprises 14 c subunits. calculate the number of atp produced per fadh2 in spinach
None; this ATP synthase's mechanism is entirely distinct from that of mitochondrial ATP synthase.
How so many c subunits are there in ATP synthase?Although the H+/ATP ratio for various ATP synthase complexes can change, with significant implications for the bioenergetic, the number of membrane-embedded ion-binding c subunits vary between animals, ranging from 8 to 17.
Would the C ring in ATP synthase rotate?Abstract.F1F0 ATP synthases produce ATP by a rotary catalytic process in which H+ transport is connected to the rotation of an oligomeric ring of c subunits that extends through the membrane.At the membrane's core, protons bind to and subsequently are released from the subunit C's aspartyl-61 residue.
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Drag each tile to the correct location. Categorize the examples of competition between organisms as interspecific or intraspecific. Competition among rams for access to mates competition between argentine ants and native ant species for food competition among red-backed salamanders for territory competition between sharks and orcas for hunting seals.
Examples of interspecific competition include the fight for food between Argentine ants and other ant species.
Sharks and orcas compete with one another to hunt seals.
Interspecific competition is a sort of conflict involving two or more species, whereas intraspecific competition is a conflict involving several members of the same species. Therefore; instances of intra-specific competitions -
Rams competing for access to mates
Salamanders compete with one another for food sources.
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g what are the ratios of phenotypes produced in their offspring when the trait is arranged in ascending order?
3:1 and 1:2:1 are the ratios of phenotypes produced in their offspring when the trait is arranged in ascending order.
The percentage of offspring who display a particular characteristic or collection of traits is referred to as the phenotypic ratio. Based on the genotypes of the progeny, a test cross can be used to determine the frequency of a trait or trait combinations that will express themselves.
Progeny, or the young development of living creatures, can be produced by a single organism or, in the case of sexual reproduction, by two organisms. A brood or progeny, to use a more broad term, is a collective of children.
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When earthquake produce vibration called wave, how do thoe wave travel?
They ripple from the epicenter of the earthquake. They move back and forth and ide to ide through water. They travel away from the focu of the earthquake in all direction. They move lowly and increae in intenity a they reach Earth’ urface
A scientist finds what she thinks is a new species of rodent on a small pacific island. However, some similar-looking rodents inhabit some nearby islands. She mates the new rodent with the nearby rodents and gets viable but infertile offspring. Why?.
The new rodents likely descend from dispersive allopatric speciation in relatively recent progenitors.
Dispersal, which happens when a few individuals of a species travel to a different region, or vicariance, which happens when a natural occurrence, such the development of a river or valley, physically divides species, are the two ways that allopatric speciation events might take place. Vicariance and peripatric are the two main theories that are commonly used to categorise allopatric speciation. By virtue of their population densities and geographical isolation mechanisms, the two models diverge from one another.
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here is a hypothetical mrna sequence: 5' c g g a u g c g u a a a u a g 3' what is the amino acid sequence encoded by this mrna?
This putative mRNA sequence, 5' c g g a u g c g u a a u a g 3', will yield the amino acid sequence Met-Leu-Val.
What distinguishes mRNA and siRNA from one another?Small interfering RNA, often known as siRNA, is a synthetic RNA sequence that is identical to the mRNA sequence. When this siRNA is delivered into cells, it attaches to the mRNA sequence and prevents translation by starting the mRNA's decomposition.
What components make up amino acids?A carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group, an amino group, and a variable group are the main structural components of amino acids. Four categories of amino acids can be distinguished based on the variable group.
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describe two adaptations mammals have that allow them to protect and nourish their developing embryo and young.
The mother of a mammal is the only source of nutrition for the embryo.
What specializations do mammals have?The size and shape of various body parts, thick skins, water-repellent fur, and camouflage are just a few more adaptations that mammals have made to better survive their environment.
How is the embryo cared for and fed?The term "amniotic sac" refers to the bag with thin walls that surrounds the fetus during pregnancy. The sac is filled with amniotic fluid, which the fetus produces, and membrane that covers the fetal side of the placenta (amnion). As a result, the fetus is protected from injury. Additionally, it helps regulate the fetus's body temperature.
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Sea anemones are ocean animals that can reproduce both sexually and asexually. A single sea anemone is located in a stable, isolated environment that is capable of supporting a colony of sea anemones.
Since the sea anemone lives in a place where the habitat is stable and good for the sea anemone colony, it would be better for the sea anemone to reproduce asexually and produce multiple copies.
They can reproduce asexually, incubating essentially identical twins from a single specimen. This can lead to the formation of a large colony of identical individuals, as can be seen in the local intertidal with the aggregate anemone. They can also reproduce sexually by relay spawning, where fertilization takes place in the water. The resulting larvae then swim around the plankton until they find a suitable place to settle, at which point they metamorphose into a juvenile anemone.
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i want to be a frog. can i be a frog?
Answer: yea
Explanation:
Answer:
No
Explanation:
God designed us to be humans
Genesis 1:27
So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
How are energy carriers that are made during the first two steps of cellular
respiration used by the last step in the process?
OA. To accept oxygen molecules from electron transport chains
O B. To deliver electrons to electron transport chains
O
C. To regenerate the starting material of the Krebs cycle
O D. To make molecules of ATP by passing through ATP synthase
Energy carriers that are made during the first two steps of cellular
respiration used by the last step in the process To deliver electrons to electron transport chains
Explain cellular respiration.
Through the process of cellular respiration, which involves combining oxygen with food molecules, organisms direct the chemical energy contained in these substances toward life-sustaining processes while excreting carbon dioxide and water as waste, they are able to maintain their own existence. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an energy-rich compound that absorbs the chemical energy released from the breakdown of food molecules and releases it to power other cellular processes, is one goal of the degradation of foodstuffs.
The glycolysis , tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation can be considered the three primary metabolic stages or steps that make up the entire process.
A glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvate (pyruvic acid) molecules during a process known as glycolysis, which occurs in the majority of cells. Glycolysis produces energy that is captured and stored in ATP as it breaks down glucose and other organic fuel molecules from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. The substance nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) is additionally changed into NADH during this process.
The breakdown, or catabolism, of organic fuel molecules is largely regulated by the TCA cycle, also referred to as the Krebs or citric acid cycle. The compounds NAD+ and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), however, are responsible for capturing the majority of the energy produced by the TCA cycle and turning it into ATP.
Each pair of hydrogen atoms taken from NADH and FADH2 during the oxidative phosphorylation stage contributes a pair of electrons that, when used by a succession of iron-containing hemoproteins called cytochromes, finally convert one atom of oxygen to produce water. The sequence of steps by which electrons travel to oxygen enables a steady reduction in the electrons' energy. Sometimes referred to as the electron transport chain, this phase of the oxidative phosphorylation process.
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o determine the most effective treatment course for mrs. jordan, which lab test is most important for you to evaluate in addition to blood osmolality
The most effective treatment course for mrs. john, which lab test is most important is metabolic panel
What does the metabolic plane signify ?The hyperosmolar hyperglycemic condition of Mrs. Jordan may have an impact on the electrolyte levels and other vital blood constituents, which will be revealed by the metabolic panel. This information will be used to choose the best fluid and electrolyte replacement plan.
People with diabetes who have hyperglycemia may be affected by a number of things. They consist of things like diet and exercise, health issues, and diabetes-unrelated drugs. Hyperglycemia can also result from skipping dosages, not using enough insulin, or taking insufficient amounts of other blood sugar-lowering drugs.
The chemical process known as metabolism converts nutrients from the environment into energy and molecular building blocks.
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Which laboratory activity involves a chemical change?
leaving a copper penny in vinegar until it turns green
boiling saltwater for several minutes until only solid salt remains
extracting iron filings from a sand mixture using a magnet
crushing a rock with a hammer to extract mineral deposits
Leaving a copper penny in vinegar until it turns green is a laboratory activity involves a chemical change.
What do you understand by chemical changes?Chemical synthesis, or, alternatively, chemical breakdown into two or more separate molecules, occurs when one material reacts with another to create a new substance. These processes are referred to as chemical reactions, and they are typically irreversible barring additional chemical reactions. Exothermic processes are those that generate heat; endothermic reactions, on the other hand, are those that may need heat in order to proceed. The science of chemistry places a lot of emphasis on comprehending chemical changes. Atoms are rearrange during chemical reactions, and as new products are produced, the reaction is accompanied by an energy change.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that leaving a copper penny in vinegar until it turns green is a laboratory activity involves a chemical change.
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The process of
photosynthesis
occurs when
plants take in
carbon dioxide
and water to
create which
molecule?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Glucose
C. Enzymes
Answer:
B. Glucose
Explanation:
hope this helps
A fly has two alleles for the color of its eyes. The green allele is recessive, and
is represented by q. The blue allele is dominant, and is represented by p. If 20
of 100 organisms are green, what is q?
Homozygous dominant+ Heterozygous +Homozygous recessive = 1
A. 0.80
B. 0.89
C. 0.55
D. 0.45
↓
p²+2pq+q² = 1
Answer: 0.45
Explanation: I have my ways ;>
Use the mRNA chart above to transcribe and then translate the DNA below.
The DNA is TTC AGC CCA CTG GGC ATT and the mRNA is AAG UCG GGU GAC CCG UAA, and the process is transcription. The translated product of the mRNA is Lys-Ser-Gly-Asp-Pro.
What is the difference between transcription and translation?From the original DNA, first the mRNA is formed by the process of transcription, as the DNA does not directly involve itself in protein synthesis, and then the mRNA enters the translation process to form the polypeptide chain.
Hence, the DNA is TTC AGC CCA CTG GGC ATT and the mRNA is AAG UCG GGU GAC CCG UAA, and the process is transcription. The translated product of the mRNA is Lys-Ser-Gly-Asp-Pro.
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