The checkpoint proteins prevent the division of a cell that has DNA or abnormalities in the chromosome .The process of mitotic cell division encompasses mitosis, where the nucleus divides into two nuclei, and , where the mother cell divides into two daughter cells.
Chromosomes are structures determined inside the middle (nucleus) of cells that convey lengthy pieces of DNA. DNA is the fabric that holds genes. it is the constructing block of the human body. Chromosomes also comprise proteins that help DNA exist in the proper shape.
Chromosomes are the highest degree of company of DNA and proteins. the principle feature of chromosomes is to hold the DNA and switch the genetic records from mother and father to offspring. Chromosomes play an critical role for the duration of cell division. They guard the DNA from getting tangled and damaged.
And there are boys and men who have XX chromosomes. this can show up, for instance, when a gene on the Y chromosome ends up on an X chromosome, inflicting that X chromosome to function extra like a Y. There are genes on chromosomes aside from the X or Y that still contribute to sex improvement.
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which statement best describes the difference between cell division in plant and animal cells? a. cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in animal cells, but not plant cells. b. chromosome replication occurs during interphase in animal cells, while in plant cells, replication occurs when the nuclear envelope disintegrates. c. cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in plant cells, but not animal cells. d. centrosomes play an important role in spindle formation in plant cells, but not in animal cells. e. animal cells divide via the cell cycle whereas plant cells divide by binary fission.
The statement that best describes cell division in plant and animal cells is that cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in animal cells, but not plant cells, which means that option A is correct answer.
Cell division is defined as the process in which cells of the organisms divide into daughter nuclei, in order for the multiplication of organism and sustainability of life. There are generally two types of cell division namely Mitosis and Meiosis. Mitosis is the process in which cell duplicates its chromosomal material and then divides it into two daughter nuclei. Meiosis on the other hand involves formation of eggs and sperm cells. Cytokinesis is defined as the method of division of cytoplasm due to which the genetic material and other organelles get divided into daughter cells. In plant cells, cell plate is formed during cytokinesis and in animal cell, cleavage furrow is formed and it deepens until daughter cells split from parent. It occurs during anaphase of mitosis process.
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What process produces most of the nadh that contributes to atp synthesis in the cell?.
Glucose enters the cell during the glycolysis process. Two pyruvate, which are required for the following step, are produced by the cell after it passes it via a series of chemical processes. Furthermore, it produces two ATP and two NADH, which are then transported to the mitochondria.
What activity causes the majority of the cell's ATP production?About thirty-two ATP molecules are produced for every oxidised glucose molecule during cellular respiration, which takes place mostly in the mitochondrial matrix.
The citric acid cycle, the second stage of aerobic cellular respiration, is the mechanism responsible for the production of both NADH and FADH2. Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three basic processes that make up aerobic cellular respiration.
ATP is generated during the glycolysis phase.
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Need help with 5 and 6 please they the last one
5.) B
6.) B
Explanation: For question 6, they'd move apart.
Mark ALL OF the statements that are true for DNA
a
bases held together by hydrogen bonds
b
bases are A, C, G and U
c
unzipped by helicase during replication
d
backbone of sugar molecule ribose and phosphate groups
e
found in the nucleus ofprokaryote cells
f
double helix
g
carries amino acids to ribosomes
h
bases are A, C, G and T
i
single helix
j
backbone of sugar molecule deoxyribose and phosphate groups
DNA is a double-helix molecule composed of two coiled strands. Each strand is formed by a sequence of nucleotides that carry genetic information. Options A, C, F, H, and J are TRUE.
What is DNA?DNA is a nucleic acid composed of two coiled strands, the double helix. This polymer is made of several nucleotides joined by their extremes that store genetic information.
Nucleotides are monomers containing a nitrogenated base, a phosphate group, and a sugar (deoxyribose).
Nitrogenated bases are purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine).
Adenine pair thymine through two hydrogen bonds, Guanine pairs cytosine through three hydrogen bonds.
During its replication, helicase is in charge of breaking hydrogen bonds and separating the two original strands, topoisomerase releases the tension between the strands, and DNA polymerase adds the correct nucleotides.
a) bases held together by hydrogen bonds ⇒ TRUE
b) bases are A, C, G and U ⇒ FALSE, bases are A, T, G, C
c) unzipped by helicase during replication ⇒ TRUE
d) backbone of sugar molecule ribose and phosphate groups ⇒ FALSE, the sugar is deoxyribose.
e) found in the nucleus of prokaryote cells ⇒ FALSE, prokaryote cells have DNA but not a nucleus
f) double helix ⇒ TRUE
g) carries amino acids to ribosomes ⇒ FALSE, tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis
h) bases are A, C, G and T ⇒ TRUE
i) single helix ⇒ FALSE, DNA is a double helix molecule.
j) backbone of sugar molecule deoxyribose and phosphate groups ⇒ TRUE
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what percentage of offspring will end up with a both homozygous recessive genotype and an expressed phenotype?
0 percent
50 percent
25 percent
100 percent
Option D. 100 percent, of offspring, will end up with a both homozygous recessive genotype and an expressed phenotype.
Concept:-
If two heterozygotes are crossed, the probability that an offspring will be homozygous recessive is 25% or 0.25. Homozygous dominant: 25% or 0.25. Heterozygous: 50% or 0.50.
If all games are homozygous than the offspring will be homozygous and same phenotype 100 percent.
The genotype of an organism is its entire set of genetic material. Genotype also can be used to refer to the alleles or versions a person includes in a specific gene or genetic place.
A genotype is a scoring of the sort of variant gift at a given region (i.e., a locus) inside the genome. it is able to be represented by way of symbols. as example, BB, Bb, and bb could be used to symbolize a given version in a gene.
A man's or woman's genotype is the combination of alleles that they possess for a particular gene. An individual's phenotype is the combination of observable characteristics or developments. even as an organism's genotype is directly inherited from its parents, the phenotype is simply motivated by using a genotype.
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note that urea is sometimes recycled, meaning it is reabsorbed in the medullary collecting duct and secreted back into the filtrate at the thin limb of the nephron loop. your instructor may want you to take this into account in your tracing of the urea molecule. if so, write the alternate path here:
A high osmolarity is produced by the urea recycling, which confines the majority of the urea in the medulla and aids in water absorption.
Describe the alternate path of tracing of the urea molecule.Urea molecules are carried by the blood as it enters the glomerulus; these molecules are subsequently filtered by Bowman's capsule before entering the proximal convoluted tubules. The Henle's loop receives the reabsorbed portion of the entering urea. The medulla of the kidney secretes urea into the lumen of the tubules in the form of a loop, bringing the concentration of urea to 100%.
From the loop, 100% of the urea enters the distal convolved tubules (DCT). Thirty percent of the substance in distal convoluted tubules is reabsorbed to the cortex, while the remaining seventy percent enters collecting tubules. In the medulla, fifty percent is being reabsorbed. The remaining 5% is reabsorbed by the arteries and vasa recta, which are connected to the nephron, while 15% is discharged as urine.
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An area is contaminated with an element which has a half-life of 30 years. How long does it take until only 1 percent of the element remains?.
If the element has a half-life of 30 years, the time it takes only until 1 percent of the element remains is around 199.3 years.
Half-life is the time taken for an unstable isotope to decay into half of its original value.
Given that:
Half-life (t1/2) = 30 yearsInitial amount = N0Final amount = NN = 1% N0h = number of half-cyclesN = N0 (1/2)^h
N/N0 = (1/2)^h
N/N0 = 1/100 (since N is 1% of N0), so
1/100 = (1/2)^h
log (1/100) = hlog(1/2)
h = log(1/100) / log(1/2)
= log(100)/log(2)
The time needed = h * t/2 = log(100)/log(2) * 30 years
= 199.3 years
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Do think straw can be turned into gold
Answer:
no yes no
Explanation:
.ctv6bb 6 yeah sine yrah
Photoreceptors are distributed over the entire neural retina, except where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball. This site is called the __________.
The blind spot is the region where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball and the photoreceptor cells(light-sensitive cells) are absent.
What is a blind spot?
It is a small portion of the visual field of each eye that corresponds to the position of the optic disc within the retina located to the right of the center of vision of the right eye and vice versa in the left eye. There are no photoreceptors (rods and cones) in the optic disc and hence there is no image detection in this area.
The nerve fibers route before the retina, blocking some light and creating a blind spot where the fibers pass through the retina and out of the eye.
Rod and cone photoreceptors are specialized neurons that function in the initial step of vision. Photoreceptor cells lie at the back of the retina adjacent to the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE), a cell layer that is vital for the survival of photoreceptors.
Because of the absence of photoreceptor cells, objects are obscured entirely by the blind spot and unseen in monocular vision.
Hence blind spot is the region of the optic nerve where photoreceptor cells are absent and there is no vision.
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Fossils present in ______ layers of rock are older, according to the principle of superposition.
According to the superposition, principle fossils are present in sedimentary layers which are deposited sequentially.
What is the principle of superposition?According to the concept of superposition, sedimentary layers are deposited sequentially, and the layers at the bottom are older than the layers at the top unless the entire sequence has been flipped over by tectonic processes.
Geologists may connect rock layers from throughout the world by using the Law of Superposition, which stipulates that given an undisturbed horizontal succession of rocks,
Therefore the oldest rock layers will be on the bottom and increasingly younger rocks will be on top of them.
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Some students are playing ultimate frisbee in a grass field. After their game, they forget a frisbee on the field. The frisbee is dark black and therefore zero PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) passes through the frisbee. Is the following statement true or false? Why? The grass under the frisbee will be metabolically inactive until the frisbee is removed during the next day' s game.
a. The statement is false. Plants can rely on stored energy and be metabolically active even in the absence of sunlight
b. The statement is false. Plants have associations with other organisms and therefore will almost never be metabolically inactive.
c. The statement is true. Plants require sunlight, water, and CO2 to photosynthesize.
d. The statement is true. Plants go dormant when they do not have access to light
e. The statement is false. Plants can use heat energy to photosynthesize, and the black frisbee will heat up as it absorbs PAR.
False, plants also store energy and exhibit respiration and plants use this stored energy to function.
Photosynthesis is a process that plants and other organisms use to convert light energy into chemical energy that can then be released to fuel the organism's activities via cellular respiration. The pea pod used sunlight energy to build sugar molecules with the help of carbon dioxide and water. When the rabbit ate the pea pod, it received energy from the sun that was stored in the plant's sugar molecules.
Photosynthesis' primary function is to convert solar energy into chemical energy and then store that chemical energy for later use. This process powers the majority of the planet's living systems.
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A ______ is synthesized from cholesterol and can diffuse across the plasma membrane.
A Steroid hormone is synthesized from cholesterol and can diffuse throughout the plasma membrane.
Steroid hormones are derived from LDL cholesterol and therefore can with no trouble diffuse via the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane to reach the intracellular receptor.
The steroid hormones synthesized in the adrenal cortex, the gonads, and the placenta are all derived from LDL cholesterol and many are of medical significance.
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if the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose? multiple choice fatty acids urea amino acids ketones
Amino acids are converted to glucose during gluconeogenesis, if the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose
What is gluconeogenesis?
It refers to the synthesis of new glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors, and provides glucose when dietary intake is insufficient or absent. It is essential in amino acid metabolism, and synthesis of carbohydrate-derived structural components.
It principally occurs in the liver and kidney.
Example: synthesis of blood glucose from lactate in the liver during recovery from intense muscular exertion.
Let us discuss other options:
Fatty acid molecules are joined together in groups of three, forming a molecule called triglyceride.Urea is produced from ammonia through the ornithine cycle and it is excreted in the urine.Ketone bodies are readily transported into tissues outside the liver, where they are converted into acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A) which enters the citric acid cycle and is oxidized for energy.Hence through the gluconeogenesis process amino acids are converted into glucose when a carbohydrate diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs.
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Which type of plant separates initial co2 fixation and the calvin cycle by time?.
C4 plants separate initial co2 fixation and the Calvin cycle in time.
By utilizing an additional enzyme termed PEP during the initial stage of carbon fixation, C4 plants, such as maize, sugarcane, and sorghum, avoid photorespiration. This process happens in the mesophyll cells, which are close to the stomata where oxygen and carbon dioxide enter the plant.
The primary difference between C3 and C4 photosynthesis is that C3 photosynthesis uses the Calvin cycle to produce a three-carbon compound, and C4 photosynthesis uses the Calvin cycle to produce an intermediate four-carbon compound that splits into a three-carbon compound.
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what advantage might a segmented worm have over a non-segmented worm (e.g. ascaris) have in terms of movement?
Round worms lack a complete circulatory system, whereas segmented worms do. The circulatory system of a segmented worm includes blood, the heart, the capillary system, and hemoglobin.
Flatworms have a ribbon-like body with no cavity. Roundworms are worms with a body cavity but no segments. Segmented worms have a body cavity as well as segmented bodies.
The Annelida consist of segmented worms. They lack legs and a hard skeleton. Unlike mollusks, the bodies of annelids are divided into many small segments, similar to rings joined together.
The earthworm can move more easily if it is segmented. Setae are muscles and bristles found in each segment or section. When moving through soil, the bristles or setae help anchor and control the worm. The bristles secure a section of the worm to the ground while the rest of the body protrudes forward.
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Hello! I need help!!
Will name brainliest!
Answer:
you sure this is biology? seams mor3 like history
What is the process in which an mrna molecule is used to synthesize a specific polypeptide on a ribosome?.
the process by which an mRNA molecule is used to synthesize a specific polypeptide on the ribosome is called translation.
The translation is the process by which the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA is translated into the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain. During this process, selects 'read' information about messenger RNA (mRNA) and its function to make a protein.
The translation process itself is divided into 3 stages:
Initiation stage: In this stage, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carries the amino acid methionine (which matches the start codon, AUG). This part is necessary for the translation stage to begin.Elongation: the stage where the amino acid chain is extended.Termination: the polypeptide chain is released.Learn more about translation mRNA here https://brainly.com/question/510682
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for each glucose that enters glycolysis, _____ nadh h are produced by the citric acid cycle.
Answer: 6
Explanation:
We can learn about the climate of different periods throughout history by studying what aspect of the bubbles trapped in ice core samples?.
The earliest evidence that the concentration of carbon dioxide and the global temperature have been correlated for at least the last million years of Earth's history came from scientists' examination of the gases trapped in ice cores.
Ice cores can provide us with information about historical climate shifts?Ice cores provide direct data on past changes in greenhouse gas concentrations as well as direct evidence of the potential for sudden climate change in certain situations.
How do ice cores help us understand past climates?They gather ice cores in numerous locations all over the planet to research regional climate variability and to compare and distinguish it from global climate signals. They gather samples from the ice, known as ice cores, which contain a record of how our planet appeared hundreds of thousands of years ago.
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What type of inheritance results when the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between both homozygotes?.
It is known as incomplete dominance when there is an intermediate heterozygote phenotype between the two homozygote phenotypes.
What do genotype and phenotype exactly mean?Genotype refers to each person's unique DNA pattern. This phrase more particularly refers to the two alleles that a human received for a single gene. The observable manifestation of this gene is how a patient's disease presents clinically.
How may a phenotype be established?We examine the alleles of the parent organisms then predict the frequency at which those genes will be expressed by the offspring in order to determine a phenotypic ratio. Most of the time, we are aware of the expression and appearance of the alleles.
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which activty occurs in the process of photosynthesis
Answer:
The three episodes that occur during the photosynthesis cycle are: Light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, which breaks down water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen. Light energy is converted into chemical energy. The reduction of carbon dioxide leads to the formation of carbohydrates.
Answer:
solar energy is harvested as chemical energy in a process that converts water and carbon dioxide to glucose
Explanation:
Which of the following is an accurate comparison of watersheds and aquifers?
A.
one involves water collection above ground and the other below ground
B.
one involves small bodies of water and the other involves large bodies of water
C.
one contains water that is retrievable and the other contains irretrievable water
D.
one contains fresh water and the other contains saltwater
On the other hand, deeper (confined) aquifers are less likely to follow surface features and have watersheds (or basins) that are governed by geologic reasons. Thus, option C is correct.
What comparison of watersheds and aquifers?In general, surface aquifers (the water table) resemble surface-water watersheds, and their flow typically does not cross borders at the surface.
Due to the fact that groundwater flows from high points (where it divides) to low places, groundwater watersheds conceptually are comparable to surface-water watersheds (outlets, discharge areas).
Therefore, A watershed is made up of both the subsurface groundwater and aquifers that provide water to the network of streams that drains the surface land area.
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how does the diaphragm help the alveoli do their job during respiration
Answer:
The diaphragm works together with the intercostal muscles of the ribs to help the alveoli by expanding the chest cavity, thus increasing the volume. As the volume of the chest cavity increases the pressure inside it drops, allowing air from outside the body to be pulled in and fill the lungs/alveoli.
The diaphragm helps the alveoli during respiration by creating changes in air pressure that facilitate the movement of air in and out of the lungs.
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the chest cavity, separating the thoracic (chest) cavity from the abdominal cavity. During respiration, the diaphragm plays a crucial role in facilitating the movement of air in and out of the lungs.
When the diaphragm contracts, it flattens and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This expansion of the thoracic cavity lowers the air pressure within the lungs, creating a partial vacuum. As a result, air from the external environment, which has a higher pressure, rushes into the lungs through the airways and eventually reaches the alveoli.
Alveoli are small, thin-walled sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles in the lungs. They are the primary sites of gas exchange, where oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses into the bloodstream and carbon dioxide, a waste product, diffuses out of the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled.
The movement of the diaphragm creates changes in pressure within the thoracic cavity, causing air to move into the lungs and reach the alveoli. As the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases, increasing the air pressure within the lungs. This higher pressure forces air out of the lungs and out through the airways during exhalation.
In summary, the diaphragm's contraction and relaxation create changes in air pressure that enable air to be drawn into the alveoli during inhalation and expelled from the alveoli during exhalation. This process facilitates efficient gas exchange between the alveoli and the bloodstream, allowing oxygen to be taken in and carbon dioxide to be eliminated from the body.
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Bell-shaped distributions produced by plotting results of f2 and f3 crosses are typical of which type of inheritance?.
Plotting the results of f2 and f3 crossings resulted in Bell-shaped distributions, which represent multiple-factor inheritance.
What transpires when an inheritance ends?Lauren responds by fighting back, and as they struggle, Carson makes the claim that he is Lauren's biological father. However, Catherine seizes his gun and shoots Carson to death. All traces of Carson's captivity are eliminated when Lauren and Catherine work together to ignite the bunker by dousing it in gasoline and setting it on fire.
What is a bequest and why is it significant?Evolutionary change requires the inheritance of genetic material. It explains the genetic transmission process from one generation to the next. The fact that genetic inheritance is rarely taken into account in life history research may therefore at first seem surprising.
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Priya, an 8-year old, is experiencing a major growth spurt. This past year, she has grown 3 inches in height. Which phase of puberty is priya most likely experiencing?.
Priya is in adrenarche phase of puberty.
Adrenarche is a normal physiological increase in androgen production in the adrenal glands that causes pubic and armpit hair growth, increased oiliness of the skin and hair, adult body odor, and mild acne.
Adrenarche is another developmental stage that usually occurs at least two years before puberty.
Puberty is the process of physical changes in which a child's body matures into that of an adult capable of sexual reproduction. It is caused by hormonal signals from the brain to the gonads and testicles in boys and in ovaries in girls.
You can start from 9 years old. Puberty is a process that takes several years. Most girls hit puberty by the time she's 14. Most boys finish puberty by the age of 15 or he is 16.
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A species of mouse that was once killed.by a certain disease is now resistant to the disease? Which state,e explains how
this most likely happened?
Th mice had no genetic variation so they were able to eventually resist the disease together
Some individual mice grew stronger so they could resist the disease and pass the resistance to their offspring
The mouse species wanted to change its genes so it could resist the disease
Some individual mice that were resistant to the disease survived and reproduced offspring. Those that weren't resistant died.
A species of mouse which was once killed by a certain disease is now resistant to the disease because some individual mice that were resistant to the disease survived and reproduced offspring. Those that weren't resistant died. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is the transfer of resistant genes?Resistant genes is the gene which contains the information for the production of a protein that makes an antibiotic ineffective on that organism and hence confers resistance against that antibiotic to a pathogen.
The transfer of resistant genes can occur in organisms. Acquired resistance from the parents can occur through horizontal transfer of genes between the bacterial species, or by vertical transmission that can occur between mother and offspring at birth and during lactation period, or spontaneously due to the exposure to an antibiotic. These genes help the organism to survive in the antibiotic medium and produce offspring.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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6. What is thermal energy?
A) energy from sound
B) potential energy in chemical compounds
C) the movement of electrons
D) heat
Answer:
D) heat.
Explanation:
"Thermal", as defined by Oxford Languages, is relating to heat. In the case of thermal energy therefore, it is simply referring to how energy would react to either the heat, or the lack thereof.
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at what point of an embryos development does its brand new neural structures turn on or quicken activating the senses of the body
Once stem cells turn into nerve and glial cells.
The outer trophoblast will form structures that will aid the growing embryo's implantation in the mother's uterus. Because the inner cell mass continues to differentiate and parts of it will eventually become the embryo, it is sometimes referred to as the embryoblast (the suffix "blast" means "to make").
First, the zygote develops into a solid ball of cells. The blastocyst develops into a hollow ball of cells. The blastocyst implants in the uterine wall, where it develops into an embryo attached to a placenta and surrounded by fluid-filled membranes.
A multicellular organism's embryo is the first stage of development.
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Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of
a. adenine in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine
b. thymine in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine
c. adenine in DNA is about greater than the percentage of thymine
d. thymine in DNA is about greater than the percentage of guanine
Answer:
Thymine is about equal to the percentage of adenine.
The most common human health response to air pollution is?
A. inflammatory responses in sensitive tissues.
B. lung cancer.
Answer: correct answer is A Inflammatory response in sensitive tissues
Explanation:
The most common human health response to air pollution is inflammatory responses in sensitive tissues. Thus the correct option is A.
What is Air pollution?
Any unwanted substance entering into the environment degrades the quality of air and makes it difficult in breathing, causing various health issues is refers as air pollution.
Particles and some gases in the air that contribute to air pollution are produced by factories, soil, dust, mould spores, flames, volcanoes, and vehicle and smoke from truck emissions.
As air pollution is reactive, it has been demonstrated that breathing it causes inflammation of the airways. Your muscles can become weakened and your heart's arteries can constrict as a result of the immune system's reaction to the particles, increasing your risk of having a heart attack.
Therefore, option A is appropriate.
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