The area of a rectangular living room is 99 square feet. The width of the room is 9 feet. What is the perimeter of the room?

Answer:

Mean

Step-by-step explanation:

best measure of central tendency to use when your data distribution is continuous and symmetrical

*it depends on what you are trying to show from this set of data!

Answer:

x = 100°

Step-by-step explanation:

because it is a vertical angle to 100°

4

p=2(l+b)

p=2(6+2)

p=16

p=4l

16=4l

l=4

Answer:

1302

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 56.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

in a span of 30 years, the family would pay $40,410 in rent.

Step-by-step explanation:

you simply multiply $1,347 by 30!

(comment any questions)

Answer:

1. Yes they are

2. No they are not

hope this helps :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. 3x-7y and -7y+3x

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 3x -7y and -7y +3x

This is correct because the terms remain unchanged. The -7y stays a -7y and the positive 3x stays a positive 3x.

2. 3x -7y and 7y -3x

This is not correct because the signs of the 3x and 7y switch. For the expressions to be equivalent, the signs must remain unchanged.

3. 3x -7y and 3y -7x

This is not correct because the variables of the 3 and 7 switched. The variables need to stay the same, for the expressions to be equivalent.

4. 3x-7 and -3y+7x

This is not correct because both the variables and the signs of the expressions changed. Both the signs and variables would need to stay the same in order to be equivalent.

Answer:

1/3 of 45 = 15 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of rectangular prism = (B)(h)

volume of rectangular pyramid = 1/3(B)(h)

Answer:

B) 60.21 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a triangle = 1/2bh

You can‘t used mixed measurements (feet and inches), so you have to convert each length to inches

8’6”=102’

14’2”=170’

Now find the area

1/2 x 102 x 170 = 8670 in²

This is one of the answers, but the quetion asks how many quart feet you need.

So, convert it back to feet.

8670 x 0.06944444444 = 60.2083333

(You could also have converted the two lengths to feet. 8’6” = 8.5 ft.  14’2” = 14.16666666.  This way would probably have been faster.

1/2 x 8.5 x 14.166666 = 60.20833333)

Answer:

600

Step-by-step explanation:

anything times 1 is itself

Answer:

It is not technically a function.  This is because by definition, a function should produce a distinct output value for every unique input value.  In this case 8 and 6 both give you four, so it is not a function.

Answer:

assuming you want to cover 18 ft x 15 ft:

18 x 15 = 270 ft²

1.5 x 1.5 = 2.25 ft² per tile

270 ft²/ 2.25 per tile = 120 tiles

Answer:

The Answer Is 6

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of students 6th graders who will need to join the club will be 18.

The utilization of two or more additional numbers that compares is known as the ratio.

The chart below displays the number of students in each grade that are members of Lone Star Middle School's spirit club.

If ten additional eighth-grade students join the group. If the ratio of eighth students to sixth graders remains constant.

Let 'x' be the number of students who join the club in 6th grade. Then the equation is given as,

x / (2 × 10 + 10) = 6 / 10

Simplify the equation, then we have

x / (2 × 10 + 10) = 6 / 10

x / 30 = 3 / 5

x = 30 (3/5)

x = 18

The number of students 6th graders who will need to join the club will be 18.

More about the ratio link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/13419413

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Answer:1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

For one roll it’s1/6

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling exactly one 6 = 16×(56)5=312546656

Answer: x=16

Step-by-step explanation: multiply both sides by 4 , 4*4 that should get you to x=16

hope this helps

Answer:

3.75

Step-by-step explanation:

¼x = 4

x = 4 - 1/4

x = 4 - 0.25

x = 3.75

i think this is the answer

Answer:

The area of the grass covered by the sprinkler water is approximately 78.54 feet^2

Answer:

78.54 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

10 is the diameter so 5 is the radius,

A = πr2 = π·52 ≈ 78.53982

Answer:

Frame A width = 6.67 inches

Frame B width = 6 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

WA = width of frame A

WB = width of frame B

(WA)(6.75) = 45

WA = 6.67

(WB)(7.5) = 45

WB = 6

Answer:

180 and 2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

for the second collum over 3 it would be 180

For the one under 150 it would be 2.5

let me know if you need a better explanation

Answer:

3=45   150=5              

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: y=-4x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

M is the slope in slope intercept form.

y=mx+b

And b is the Y intercept because when you plug in zero for x you get y=b.

So we know

y=-4x+b

Because m is the slope

And y is 6 because it is shown in the parentheses

So we know the answer is y=-4x+6

Answer:

i think letter D or C i also have this question

Answer:

its b

Step-by-step explanation:

i just did it

Answer:

pictograph is a type of graph that use images to represent data or a given information and it is also called picture graph

Answer: C 30 it was correct on my test

The estimated probability that at least two of the puppies will be female is 60%.

Probability deals with the occurrence of a random event. The chance that a given event will occur. It is the measure of the likelihood of an event to occur.The value is expressed from zero to one.

For the given situation,

Let heads (H) be the female puppy

Let tails (T) be the male puppy.

The simulation results are the sample spaces.

[tex](THTT, TTTH, TTHH, HTTT, TTTT, HHHH, HTHT, HHHT, THTH, THTH)[/tex]

⇒ [tex]n(s)=10[/tex]

The event is the probability that at least two of the puppies will be

female.

[tex]e=(TTHH, HHHH, HTHT, HHHT, THTH, THTH )\\[/tex]

⇒ [tex]n(e)=6[/tex]

The estimated probability that at least two of the puppies will be

female, [tex]P(e)=\frac{n(e)}{n(s)}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]P(e)=\frac{6}{10}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]P(e)=0.6[/tex]

Thus the percentage of the female puppies = [tex](0.6)(100)[/tex]

⇒ [tex]60\%[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that the estimated probability that at least two of the puppies will be female is 60%.

Learn more about probability here

https://brainly.com/question/16086035

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Answer:500

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Part A)

Ashley will be on the sixth page.

Part B)

[tex]\displaystyle p=\frac{1}{3}m+5[/tex]

Part C)

Six minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Ashley is on the first page and she can read one page per minute.

Emma is on the fifth page and she can read one page every three minutes.

Part A)

We can write an equation for Ashley. Let m represent the amount of minutes that has passed.

Since she is already one the first page, our initial value is 1.

She reads one page every minute. So, after m minutes, she would have read m pages.

Therefore, our equation is:

[tex]p=m+1[/tex]

Where p is the total pages read after m minutes.

Then after five minutes, Ashley will be on the:

[tex]p=(5)+1=6[/tex]

Ashley will be on the sixth page after five minutes.

Part B)

Since Emma reads one page every three minutes, we can say that she reads 1/3 of a page every minute.

Since she started on page five, her equation is:

[tex]\displaystyle p=\frac{1}{3}m+5[/tex]

Part C)

So, both of their pages read must be equivalent. Therefore:

[tex]\displaystyle m+1=\frac{1}{3}m+5[/tex]

Solve for m. Subtract 1/3m from both sides:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}m+1=5[/tex]

Subtract 1 from both sides:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}m=4[/tex]

Finally, multiply both sides by 3/2:

[tex]\displaystyle m=4\Big(\frac{3}{2}\Big)=6[/tex]

So, it will take six minutes before Ashley and Emma have read the same number of pages.