Solve d/4+7/8=6

What is d?

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

2 cups = 1 pt

therefore

1/2 is the equation

...

80/2 = 40

The combination of pies she can make are:

one cherry pie, one peach pie and one apple pie

A bar graph is defined as a diagram in which the numerical values of variables are represented by the height or length of lines or rectangles of equal width.

We are given the following parameters:

Number of apples to make one apple pie = 6

Number of peaches to make one peach pie = 9

Number of cherries to make one cherry pie = 32

From the bar graph, she has:

26 apples

12 peaches

34 cherries

Since she wants to make 3 pies, then she can make:

one cherry pie, one peach pie and one apple pie

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??? The answer is not able to be found for the fact that there are 3 numbers all coming from x.

Answer:

1 1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

you you have to add 7/8 + 3/16 to get the answer of one whole and 1/16

To find the vector function that represents the curve of intersection between the paraboloid z = 2x^2y^2 and the parabolic cylinder y = 3x^2, we can parameterize the curve using a parameter t. The vector function r(t) will consist of x(t), y(t), and z(t), where each component is expressed in terms of t.

First, we need to find the relationship between x and y by setting the equation of the parabolic cylinder equal to the y-coordinate of the paraboloid. Substituting y = 3x^2 into z = 2x^2y^2, we get z = 2x^2(3x^2)^2 = 18x^6.

Now, we can express x and z in terms of t. Let's set x(t) = t, which allows us to write z(t) = 18t^6. The y-component can be obtained by substituting x(t) into the equation of the parabolic cylinder: y(t) = 3(t^2).

Finally, we can combine the x(t), y(t), and z(t) components to form the vector function r(t) = (x(t), y(t), z(t)). In this case, r(t) = (t, 3t^2, 18t^6) represents the curve of intersection between the two surfaces.

Note that this vector function parameterizes the curve and allows us to describe various points on the curve by plugging in different values of t.

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Answer:

x = 1/2

y = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

The diagonals of a parallelogram cut each other in half. That means that x lengths are equal and the y lengths are equal

Equations

3y = y + 6

10x = 6x + 2

Solution for x

10x = 6x + 2                     Subtract 6x from both sides

10x - 6x = 6x - 6x + 2

4x = 2                              Divide by 4

4x/4 = 2/4

x = 1/2

Solution for y

3y = y + 6

3y - y = y- y + 6

2y = 6

y = 3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

I think that is your answer because in the Himalayas it lies between latitudes 26.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

se gana 10000 y 2

The particular solution that satisfies the given condition is s = (16/3)t³ + (9/2)t² - 6t + 120

To find the particular solution of the differential equation ds/dt = 16t² + 9t - 6 with the condition s = 120 when t = 0, we need to integrate the right-hand side of the equation with respect to t and then solve for the constant of integration using the given condition.

First, let's integrate the right-hand side of the equation:

∫(ds/dt) dt = ∫(16t² + 9t - 6) dt

Integrating term by term, we get:

s = (16/3)t³ + (9/2)t² - 6t + C

Now, we can use the given condition s = 120 when t = 0 to determine the value of the constant of integration C:

120 = (16/3)(0)³ + (9/2)(0)² - 6(0) + C

120 = C

Therefore, the particular solution that satisfies the given condition is:

s = (16/3)t³ + (9/2)t² - 6t + 120

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a)The force on electron B doubles the force acting on electron A

The correct answer is (b)

b)The path radius for electron A is half that of electron B .

The correct option is (a)

Moving charges are sources of the magnetic field and also recipients of the magnetic interaction. Stationary charges interact with the electric field but are not influenced by the magnetic field. The magnetic force acting on a moving charge is proportional to the value of the charge, to its velocity, and the absolute value of the magnetic field. The absolute value of the force also depends on the relative direction of the magnetic field and the velocity.

The magnetic force acting on the electron equals:

[tex]F_A =ev_A(B).....(1)\\\\F_B =ev_B(B).....(2)[/tex]

proportional to the vector product between the velocity and the magnetic field. The magnetic field and the velocity vectors are perpendicular, consequently, the absolute value of the vector product reduces to the product of the absolute values,

[tex]|F_A| =e|v_A||B|\\\\|F_B| =e|v_B||B|[/tex]

The only difference between the forces strives in the value of the velocities. The velocity of electron B is twice that of electron A . Therefore, the force on electron B doubles the force acting on electron A

The correct answer is (b)

b) To analyze the orbit of the electrons due to the magnetic force let us use Newton's second law. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity not changing its absolute value but only its direction. The acceleration resulting from the force is centripetal. In scalar form

[tex]F_A =ev_A(B)=ma_c_A\\\\F_B =ev_B(B)=ma_c_B[/tex]

Substituting the centripetal acceleration in terms of the velocities and the radiuses,

[tex]ev_AB=m\frac{v^2_A}{R_A} \\\\ev_BB=m\frac{v^2_B}{R_B}[/tex]

Solving for the radius,

[tex]R_A=\frac{mv_A}{eB} \\\\R_B=\frac{mv_B}{eB}[/tex]

The orbital radius is directly proportional to the velocity of the electron. As a result the path radius for electron A is half that of electron B .

The correct option is (a)

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Answer:

Point form -

[tex](2-\frac{5}{2})[/tex]

Equation form -

[tex]x=2, y=-\frac{5}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

if you have any questions feel free to ask

Answer:

i know right? It's so difficult till I'm brainless when I try to solving it

Answer:

same tbh

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation is separable. The solution to the initial value problem is y(t) = y(0) = -3.

A. The equation is separable. The solution to the initial value problem is y(t) = ___

To determine whether the given differential equation is separable, we need to check if it can be written in the form dy/dt = g(t) * h(y), where g(t) is a function of t only and h(y) is a function of y only.

In this case, the equation is dy/dt = 2ty + 1. We can rearrange it as:

dy = (2ty + 1) dt

Now, we can see that we have both y and t terms on the right-hand side, indicating that the equation is not yet separable.

Therefore, the correct choice is B. The equation is not separable.

Unfortunately, no solution can be provided for the initial value problem y(0) = -3 since the equation is not separable.

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The probability represents the combination consists only of even numbers as per given condition is equal to 0.020.

Total numbers in combination lock = 38

Numbers from 0 to 37.

To find the probability that the combination consists only of even numbers,

Determine the total number of combinations that can be formed using only even numbers

And divide it by the total number of possible combinations.

Total number of even numbers in the lock

= 19 (since there are 19 even numbers from 0 to 37)

Calculate the total number of combinations using only even numbers,

Use the concept of combinations (nCr).

Since there are 19 even numbers to choose from,

Choose 4 numbers without repetition, the number of combinations is,

Number of combinations

= ¹⁹C₄

= 19! / (4!(19-4)!)

= (19 × 18 × 17 × 16) / (4 × 3 × 2 × 1)

= 3876

Now, calculate the total number of possible combinations without any restrictions.

Since we have 38 numbers to choose from,

and  choose 4 numbers without repetition, the number of combinations is,

Number of total combinations

= ³⁸C₄

= 38! / (4!(38-4)!)

= (38 × 37 × 36 × 35) / (4 × 3 × 2 × 1)

= 194,580

Finally, find the probability by dividing the number of combinations using only even numbers by the total number of combinations,

Probability

= Number of combinations using only even numbers / Total number of combinations

= 3876 / 194580

≈ 0.0199

≈ 0.020 Rounded to three decimal places.

Therefore, the probability that the combination consists only of even numbers is approximately 0.020.

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A

see attached for explanation

I hope it helps

Since the mean and variance of y are the same as those of a normal random variable, y is a normal random variable.

The given moment generating function is Mx(t) = e^(t(4 + 5t + 17t^2/2)), where t is the moment. The moment generating function of a normal random variable is given by Mx(t) = e^(μt + σ^2t^2/2).Comparing the two, we get:μ = 4σ^2 = 17/2We can now compute the first and second moments of y, using the moment generating function: My(t) = e^(t(34 + 5t)) × e^(t(4 + 5t + 17t^2/2))= e^(34t + 9t^2 + 17t^3/2 + 4t + 5t^2) = e^(34t + 14t^2 + 17t^3/2)So,μy = My(0) = 1 and σy^2 = My''(0) - My'(0)^2= (17/2) - 4 = 9/2

Since the mean and variance of y are the same as those of a normal random variable, y is a normal random variable.

This completes the proof using the moment generating function uniqueness theorem.

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The moment generating function (MGF) of a random variable is a mathematical function that uniquely defines the probability distribution of that variable. Therefore, if the MGF of a random variable is the same as that of a known distribution, the random variable follows that distribution.

This is known as the uniqueness theorem of moment generating functions.

Using the given moment generating function of a random variable X (Max+b)(+).etMy.lat), we need to prove that X follows a normal distribution. Here, Max+b = a, My = m, and  = s (standard deviation).

Using the MGF, we can find the moments of the distribution. Differentiating the MGF 'n' times gives the nth moment about zero. We can use this to find the mean and variance of the distribution.

Therefore, the mean of the distribution is the first derivative of the MGF at t=0,

and the variance is the second derivative of the MGF at t=0.

Using facts (i) and (ii), we can write the MGF of X as:

(Mx(t)) = [(b + mt) + a(s^2 + m^2)/2] / [(s^2/2) + (t^2/2)]

Taking the first derivative of Mx(t) and substituting t=0, we get:

[tex]E(X) = [(b + m*0) + a(s^2 + m^2)/2] / [(s^2/2) + (0^2/2)]E(X) = (b + am) / (s^2/2) + 0E(X) = (2(b + am))/s^2[/tex]

This gives us the mean of the distribution as

(2(b + am))/s^2

Taking the second derivative of Mx(t) and substituting t=0, we get:

[tex]Var(X) = [(b + m*0) + a(s^2 + m^2)/2] / [(s^2/2) + (0^2/2)]Var(X) = [a(s^2 + m^2)/2] / (s^2/2) + 0Var(X) = a(s^2 + m^2)/s^2 - 1[/tex]

We know that the MGF of a normal distribution with mean m and variance s^2 is given by:

[tex](Mn(t)) = e^(mt + s^2t^2/2)[/tex]

Comparing this with the given MGF of X, we see that they are equal.

Therefore, X follows a normal distribution with mean (2(b + am))/s^2 and variance a(s^2 + m^2)/s^2 - 1.

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Answer:

Angle EHG

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want explanation tell me in comments

Answer:

the correct answer is angle EHB

a. Probability of losing the second thumb war is also 0.38.

b. Probability of losing the third thumb war is also 0.38.

Given that Nate loses 38% of all thumb wars.

We can use the probability of losing the thumb war as

p=0.38.

The probability of winning is

1-0.38=0.62.

a) Probability of losing two thumb wars in a row is:

P(loses two in a row) = P(loses first) × P(loses second)

The probability of losing the first thumb war is 0.38.

The probability of losing the second thumb war is also 0.38

So,

P(loses two in a row) = (0.38) × (0.38)

= 0.1444

b) Probability of losing three thumb wars in a row is:

P(loses three in a row) = P(loses first) × P(loses second) × P(loses third)

The probability of losing the first thumb war is 0.38.

The probability of losing the second thumb war is also 0.38

The probability of losing the third thumb war is also 0.38.

So,

P(loses three in a row) = (0.38) × (0.38) × (0.38)

= 0.054872

c) When events are independent, their complements are independent as well.

If the probability of winning the thumb war is p, then the probability of losing the thumb war is 1-p.

The complement of "losing three in a row" is "not losing three in a row".

P(not loses three in a row) = 1 - P(loses three in a row)P(not loses three in a row)

= 1 - 0.054872

= 0.945128

The probability that Nate loses three thumb wars in a row, but does not lose four in a row is the probability of losing three minus the probability of losing four in a row.

P(loses three but not four in a row) = P(loses three in a row) - P(loses four in a row)

P(loses four in a row) = P(loses three in a row) × P(does not lose the next)

P(loses four in a row) = (0.38) × (0.38) × (0.38) × (0.62)

= 0.02081416

P(loses three but not four in a row) = 0.054872 - 0.02081416

= 0.03405784

The probability that Nate loses two thumb wars in a row is 0.1444

The probability that Nate loses three thumb wars in a row is 0.054872.

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Answer:

5.86

Step-by-step explanation: its right on delta math

Answer: 60

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Triangle JKLM ~ Triangle STUV

Answer:

384

Step-by-step explanation:

v= L x W x H

v= 4 x 2 x 1.2

v= 9.6

9.6 x 40 = 384

lmk if you have any questions  :)

Answer:

A

Step-By-Step Explanation:

Step One: The first step is to figure out the volume of one. The volume formula is length times width times height. We have all the dimensions so: 4 times 2 times 1.2= 9.6.

Step Two: Now, we just mutiply the number by 40 since there are 40 slabs: 384.

Answer:

yes and no....It depends if u got the answer correct then u got ur mark but if the teacher expects your answer a certain way then u might lose maybe just 1 mark but dont stress it looks good and u should get full marks

The 90% confidence interval is approximately 2,400 and 3,400.

The 90% confidence interval of the true population mean can be calculated using the formula: sample mean ± (critical value * standard error). Since the sample size is small (n=27), we need to use the t-distribution and its corresponding critical value. For a 90% confidence level with 26 degrees of freedom (n-1), the critical value is approximately 1.706.

Using the given values, the standard error is calculated as the sample standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size: 900 / sqrt(27) ≈ 171.97.

Substituting the values into the formula, the 90% confidence interval is approximately 3,000 ± (1.706 * 171.97), which yields a range of approximately 2,424.5 to 3,575.5.

Therefore, the closest option to the 90% confidence interval is 2,400 and 3,400.

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The calculated value of the standardized score for this sample average is 2

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

Population mean = 2

Population standard deviation = 0.6

Sample size = 36

Sample mean = 2.2

The standardized score for this sample average can be calculated using

z = (Score - Sample mean)/(Sample standard deviation)

Where

Standard deviation = Population standard deviation/√n

So, we have

Standard deviation = 0.6/√36

Evaluate

Standard deviation = 0.1

So, we have

z = (2.2 - 2)/0.1

Evaluate

z = 2

Hence, the standardized score for this sample average is 2

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Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for a GS is:

a1, a1r,  a1 r^2, a1r^3 .....

Examples are:

1. First  term a1 =2 and common ratio r = 3, the first 4 terms are:

2,  2*3,  2*3^2,  2*3^3

= 2, 6, 18, 54

2. a1 = 1 , r = 0.5:

1, 0.5,  0.25,  0.125  .....

3. a1 = -4,  r = -2:-

-4,  8, -16,  32  ...

4.  a1 = 0.1,  r = -3:

0.1,  -0.3,  0.9, -2.7 .....

5. a1 = 2, r = 1/3:

2,  2/3,  2/9,  2/27 .....