at a well child visit, the nurse notes a 9-year-old child to be in the 97th percentile kg weight. which screening measure is most important for the provider to include in this visit?
At a well child visit, the nurse notes a 9-year-old child to be in the 97th percentile kg weight. Cholesterol panel screening measure is most important for the provider to include in this visit.
Over 2 year old children who fit certain criteria should have their hypercholesterolemia and hyperlipidemia assessed. The child's weight must be at or above the 85% percentile, which is one of the prerequisites. BMI can be calculated using height and weight, however this method does not screen for additional illnesses. Congenital heart disease has nothing to do with a heavy weight. A comprehensive cholesterol test, sometimes referred to as a lipid panel or lipid profile, may measure the amount of cholesterol and triglycerides in your blood. A cholesterol test can help determine your risk of accumulating fat deposits (plaques) in your arteries, which can limit or clog arteries throughout your body (atherosclerosis). A cholesterol test is a crucial instrument. High cholesterol is a major risk factor for coronary heart disease. High cholesterol typically has no noticeable side effects. A comprehensive cholesterol test is carried out to determine whether your cholesterol is high and to evaluate your risk of heart attacks, different types of heart disease, and blood vessel issues.
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the nurse is reading the primary health care provider's (phcp) documentation regarding a pregnant client and notes that the phcp has documented that the client has a platypelloid pelvic shape. the nurse recognizes which characteristics to be present in the platypelloid pelvis? select all that apply.
Characteristics to be present in the platypelloid pelvis are
Shallow depth Wide suprapubic archCompatible with vaginal deliveryFlattened anteroposteriorly and wide transverselyPlatypelloid. A flat pelvis is another name for the platypelloid pelvis. This is the most uncommon. It's large but shallow, and it looks like an egg or oval on its side.
A flat pelvis is another name for the platypelloid pelvis. This is the most uncommon. It's large but shallow, and it looks like an egg or oval on its side.
This plane is more or less round in the normal male pelvis, with nearly equal anteroposterior and transverse diameters. The plane of the superior strait in the normal female pelvis, on the other hand, is described as more oval, with a transverse diameter averaging 13 cm.
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Knowledge about memory is known as?
Knowledge about memory is known as?
Answer:
Metacognition
which client is at highest risk for developing a hospital-acquired infection? a client with an i1619 a client with crohn's disease a client with a laceration to the left hand a client who's taking prednisone (deltasone)
A client with Crohn's disease is at highest risk for developing a hospital-acquired infection or nosocomial infection.
What are nosocomial infections?
Nosocomial infections, also referred to as healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), are infections acquired during the healthcare delivery process that were not present at the time of admission. They can occur in a variety of health care delivery settings, such as hospitals, long-term care facilities, and outpatient facilities, and can also occur after discharge. HAIs also include occupational infections that can affect personnel.Infection occurs when the pathogen(s) spreads to a susceptible patient host. In modern healthcare, these infections are associated with invasive procedures and surgery, embedded medical devices and prosthetic devices.The etiology of HAI is based on the source or type of infection and the pathogen responsible, which may be bacterial, viral, or fungal.HAI is the most common adverse event in healthcare that affects patient safety. They contribute to significant morbidity, mortality and financial burden on patients, families and healthcare systems.To know more about nosocomial infections, click the link given below:
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a 22-year-old client with quadriplegia in supine position is apprehensive and flushed, with a blood pressure of 210/100 mmhg and heart rate of 50 bpm. which nursing intervention should be done first?
The first nursing intervention should be to raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees.
What is quadriplegia?
Quadriplegia, also known as tetraplegia, is a form of paralysis that affects all four limbs and the torso. It is usually caused by a spinal cord injury, stroke, or disease and can cause significant difficulties with movement, as well as difficulties with sensation and autonomic functions.
Anxiety, flushing above the level of the lesion, piloerection, hypertension, and bradycardia are all indications of autonomic dysreflexia, which is usually triggered by unpleasant stimuli like a full bladder, faecal impaction, or a decubitus ulcer. Putting the client down will raise his blood pressure even further. The indwelling urinary catheter should be evaluated as soon as the HOB is raised. Nitroglycerin is used to treat chest discomfort and lower preload; it is not utilized to treat hypertension or dysreflexia.
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the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for a client with asthma. which assessment finding is the best indication that the medication has been effective?
A patient who has been prescribed epinephrine arrives at the emergency department (ED) with a severe asthma attack i.e. cigarette smoking.
Smaller attacks may resolve on their own or may also require medication, typically an inhaler that appears briefly. With the right care, more severe asthma attacks can be reduced. Even mild episodes can only last a few minutes, whereas more severe ones can linger for hours or even days. Common cough, especially at night, is one of the early warning signs and symptoms of a bronchial asthma attack. Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. experiencing extreme fatigue or susceptibility while exercisingExercise, some medications, unfavorable weather, such as thunderstorms or excessive humidity, breathing cold, dry air, and various substances, food additives, and scents can all trigger an allergic reaction.
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A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.
A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.
The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.
DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:
Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:
Dehydration:
Hypertensive heart disease:
Left ventricular failure:
Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.
What does septic mean?
The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.
What triggers septicaemia in a person?
The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.
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a client is taking clonidine for treatment of hypertension. the nurse should teach the client about which common adverse effects of this drug? select all that apply.
a client is taking clonidine for treatment of hypertension. the nurse should teach the client about (1,3,5) Dry mouth, impotence, and sleep disturbances are possible adverse effects.
Descriptions. To treat high blood pressure, clonidine may be used either alone or in combination with other medications (hypertension). The heart and arteries work harder when there is high blood pressure. The heart and arteries might become dysfunctional if it persists for a long time. The group of drugs referred to as antihypertensives includes clonidine. It alters some of the nerve impulses in the brain. Because of this, blood arteries loosen up and allow for easier blood flow, which decreases blood pressure. By causing the brain to relax blood arteries, which aids in boosting blood flow, clonidine lowers blood pressure.
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a client is admitted with a myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. while auscultating the heart, the nurse notes an irregular heart rate and hears an extra heart sound at the apex after the s2 that remains constant throughout the respiratory cycle. how should the nurse document these findings?
An S3 heart sound occurs early in diastole as mitral and tricuspid valves open and blood rushes into ventricles.
A heart attack, also called a myocardial infarction, takes place while part of the coronary heart muscle would not get enough blood.
The more time that passes with out remedy to restore blood waft, the greater the damage to the coronary heart muscle. Coronary artery disorder (CAD) is the principle motive of heart assault.
Hospitals usually use strategies to restore blood flow to part of the heart muscle damaged all through a coronary heart attack: you may receive clot-dissolving tablets (thrombolysis), balloon angioplasty (PCI), surgery or a combination of treatments.
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A client is admitted with a myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. An S3 heart sound occurs early in diastole as the mitral and tricuspid valves open and blood rushes into the ventricles.
One of the most important aspects of care of the patient with myocardial infarction is the assessment. Assess for chest pain not relieved by rest or medications. Monitor vital signs, especially the blood pressure and pulse rate. Assess for presence of shortness of breath, dyspnea, tachypnea, and crackles.
For patients with myocardial infarction is assigned diet in which reduced energy value of food, with a gradual increase of it, limited salt, animal fats, cholesterol, nitrogenous substances. This diet should be enriched with ascorbic acid, lipotropic substances, potassium salts.
The best approach currently is to administer thrombolytic therapy as soon as possible to all patients without contraindications who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and have ST-segment elevation on the ECG or new-onset left bundle-branch block, unless an alternative reperfusion strategy is planned.
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the nurse determines that a client has an antenatal or intrapartum risk score of 2. based on this information, which activity level should the nurse recommend to the client during labor?
Ambulate ad lib, During labor and birth, the lady should be encouraged to ambulate as desired.
Ad lib feeding is the practice of feeding babies "when wanted," that is, when they are hungry, rather than on a set schedule. It's sometimes referred to as "feeding on demand." Ad lib feeding is derived from the Latin phrase ad libitum, which means "at will."
Antenatal care is the medical attention you receive while pregnant. It is also known as maternity care or pregnancy care. Appointments with a midwife or a doctor who specializes in pregnancy and birth will be made available to you.
Placental abruption, ruptured uterus, moderate-to-heavy meconium stained amniotic fluid, and cesarean delivery were all identified as independent intrapartum risk factors. In the HIE group, 70.3% had an intrapartum risk factor, compared to 29.6% in the non-HIE group.
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a pregnant client is seen in the health care clinic for a regular prenatal visit. the client tells the nurse that she is experiencing irregular contractions, and the nurse determines that the client is experiencing braxton hicks contractions. which nursing action would be appropriate?
The nursing action would be appropriate Inform the client.
Things like lacking length, sore or soft breasts, feeling more worn-out and nausea are commonplace symptoms of early pregnancy. a few humans have signs of pregnancy earlier than they omit their length. Take an at-home pregnancy check if you assume you might be pregnant.
Stomach or tummy pain is commonplace during pregnancy. inside the first trimester, it's miles not unusual to experience mild pains in the lower tummy area. these are a result of hormonal changes in your developing womb.
Multiplied stages of the hormones progesterone can also make you produce more fluid. improved discharge is an everyday part of being pregnant, but it's critical to keep an eye on it and tell your physician or midwife if it changes in any way.
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based on the information presented which of the following best explains why the resaeachre measured ocugen consumption as an indicator of the effectivenesas of drug x
Oxygen accepts electrons in oxidative phosphorylation, a process necessary for melanoma cell survival.
In medicine, efficacy is defined as a given intervention's ability to produce beneficial change (for example a drug, medical device, surgical procedure, or a public health intervention). The efficacy of an intervention is frequently determined in relation to other available interventions with which it will be compared. Specifically, efficacy is defined as "whether a drug shows a health benefit over a placebo or other intervention when tested in an ideal situation, such as a tightly controlled clinical trial."
These studies concentrate on a single primary parameter that must be statistically different between the placebo and intervention groups. These types of comparisons are known as 'explanatory' randomized controlled trials, whereas 'pragmatic' trials are used to determine the effectiveness of an intervention in terms of non-specific parameters.
Effectiveness refers to "how the drug works in a real-world situation," and it is "often lower than efficacy due to interactions with other medications or the patient's health conditions, insufficient dose or duration of use not prescribed by the physician or followed by the patient, or use for an off-label condition that had not been tested."
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Which theoretical approach focuses on understanding how mental health conditions are related to non-secure attachment styles, maladaptive coping strategies, and interpersonal problems?.
There is a need of psychological theoretical approach for understanding how mental health conditions or issues are related to non-secure attachment styles, maladaptive coping strategies, and interpersonal problems.
What is meant by Psychology?The scientific study of mind and its behavior is termed as Psychology. It studies to understand ones mental condition, problems and brain function and its behavior.
Mental health:Mental health regards to ones psychological, emotional and social well being.Mental health helps to identify how we deal with:StressRelate to others.how we make healthy choices.Maladaptive Coping strategies:An ineffective or unhealthy way or method of decreasing the stress or anxiety is termed as Maladaptive Coping strategies.
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an elective cesarean delivery is being planned for a pregnant client. the nurse is reviewing the plans for the surgery with the client. a low transverse uterine incision will be used. the client asks the nurse to explain why this approach is being used. the nurse's response is based on which premise?
An elective cesarean delivery is being planned for a pregnant client and a low transverse uterine incision will be used,so the nurse's response is to prevent the fetal risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
In instances once the fetus is extremely tiny, particularly just in case of a delivery, the little fetus head could become entrapped by the little low transverse uterine incision area and uterine contractions, so classical cesarean delivery is fascinating to stop the craniate risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
Brain Bleed, Hemorrhage (Intracranial Hemorrhage) Brain bleeds – trauma between the brain tissue and bone or among the brain tissue itself – will cause brain injury and be severe. Some symptoms embody headache; nausea and vomiting; or sharp tingling, weakness, symptom or palsy of face, arm or leg.
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the health care provider orders 1,000 ml d5w to be infused over 8 hours. the iv tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. the nurse should run the iv infusion at a rate of:
The nurse should run the iv infusion at a rate of 8 gtt/min.
What is infusion about?By allowing the plant material to stay suspended in the solvent for an extended period of time, infusion is the process of extracting chemical compounds or flavors from plant material in a solvent like water, oil, or alcohol. The resulting liquid is also referred to as an infusion.
When a patient is unable to take medication orally or when an intravenous route is more effective for a treatment, IV therapy is frequently used in hospitals. Treatment for cancer, dehydration, gastrointestinal disorders, and autoimmune diseases are a few examples.
Since the health care provider orders 1,000 ml d5w to be infused over 8 hours. the iv tubing delivers 15 drops/ml, the rate will be:
((200 mL x 60 gtt/mL) ÷ (24 hrs. x 60 min) = 8.3
= 8 gtt/min)
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A variety of factors can increase or decrease osteoporosis risk. Indicate which person is at the highest risk for osteoporosis.
Female, smokes, slender frame, and sedentary lifestyle.
Females, sedentary lifestyles, and smokers are at the highest risk for osteoporosis. Diet, exercise, alcohol use, and smoking history are all aspects of your lifestyle. Medication interactions and existing or former medical problems may increase the risk of fracture and lower bone mass.
What are the two main causes of osteoporosis?
Low levels of estrogen from premenopausal women's unusual lack of menstruation brought on by hormone abnormalities or excessive physical activity. Low testosterone levels in males. Osteoporosis is a risk for men who have diseases that lower their testosterone.
A diet deficient in calcium and vitamin D, smoking, drinking alcohol and/or caffeine, and not engaging in weight-bearing exercise are all lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis. Men and women of all races can develop osteoporosis. However, older, postmenopausal white and Asian women are most at risk.
Therefore, Medication, a balanced diet, and weight-bearing exercise can all help stop bone loss or strengthen already brittle bones.
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which information in the client's history indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad) and requires the nurse to provide disease management education? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
Family history of hyperlipidemia, frequent consumption of high fat diet, smoking two packs of cigarettes per day all indicate an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad).
What are the reasons for this?
Coronary artery disease (CAD) occurs when the coronary arteries are narrowed or blocked, usually due to plaque buildup.
The patient has an increased risk for CAD due to the following reasons:
Family history of hyperlipidemia indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad) because in the development of CAD, genetic predisposition is a significant factor.
Frequent consumption of high fat diet indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad) because unhealthy habits like consuming fatty foods are one of contributing risk factors to CAD.
Smoking two packs of cigarettes per day also indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad). Some other risk factors that were identified by the nurse include reported job stress and obesity.
Therefore, family history of hyperlipidemia, frequent consumption of high fat diet, smoking two packs of cigarettes per day all indicate towards an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad).
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a nurse is caring for an adolescent after surgery. which post-operative teaching statement is best to use for the adolescent?
"It is important to take your pain medication as directed to help manage your pain after surgery. Make sure to tell your healthcare provider if you are experiencing pain that is not relieved by the medication."
What post-operative teaching statements for adolescents?Some appropriate post-operative teaching statements for adolescents might include:
"It is important to take your pain medication as directed to help manage your pain after surgery. Make sure to tell your healthcare provider if you are experiencing pain that is not relieved by the medication."
"You will need to rest and take it easy for a few days after surgery. Avoid strenuous activities and follow your healthcare provider's instructions for activity level."
"You may notice some swelling or bruising around the incision site. This is normal and should resolve over time. If you notice any redness, drainage, or other signs of infection, be sure to let your healthcare provider know."
"If you were given any specific instructions for wound care, make sure to follow them carefully. This may include keeping the wound clean and dry, changing the dressing, and applying ointment as directed."
"It is important to follow a healthy diet after surgery to help your body heal. Make sure to drink plenty of fluids and eat a well-balanced diet that includes protein and other nutrients."
By using clear, concise language and providing specific instructions, the nurse can help the adolescent understand their post-operative care and take an active role in their own recovery.
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the nurse is caring for an asian patient who is being admitted to the hospital. which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when interviewing this patient?
The nurse is caring and seeing for an Asian patient who is being admitted to the hospital. Observe the patient's use of eye contact. Action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when interviewing this patient carefully.
The most successful technique to communicate with the patient will be determined by observing how often the patient makes eye contact with the nurse. Depending on the patient's particular cultural values, it may be okay to look straight at the patient or to avoid making eye contact. Instead of questioning the patient's family about their views, the nurse should evaluate the patient.
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a client has been receiving an iv antibiotic for an infection. when the iv infiltrates, the client receives a prescription for the same antibiotic in oral form. the nurse notes that the oral form provides 100% bioavailability. what instruction is important to provide the client?
The oral form of the medication will be just as effective as the IV form, and the client should be instructed accordingly.
By receiving intravenous (IV) antimicrobial therapies inside a clinic or at home, patients can avoid hospitalization for severe infections. IV antibiotics are antibiotics that are injected directly into a vein to enter the blood stream and bypass the digestive tract. Because intravenous antibiotics reach tissues faster as well as at higher concentrations than oral antibiotics, they are used for severe infections such as sepsis.
IV antibiotics may also be used to treat infections in areas of the body where oral antibiotics are less effective, such as spinal fluid and bone. Finally, IV antibiotics are used to treat infections that have become resistant to oral antibiotics.
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a client has a prescription for an oil retention enema and a cleansing enema. the client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the enemas. what is the most accurate response by the nurse?
Enemas are injections of fluids used to cleanse or stimulate the emptying of your bowel. This procedure has been used for years to treat constipation and similar issues. Constipation is a severe condition that slows down the movement of your stool.
What is oil retention enema?
This enema type is for people whose stool has hardened. The oil-retention enema softens the stool. The enemas used in this process usually contain 90-120 ml solution. The doctor may ask you to retain the solution for at least an hour to get effective results
One of the main reasons for enema treatment is to relieve constipation. Generally, doctors recommend other treatments, such as stool softeners or suppositories.
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a client is on several medications to control hypertension. as the nurse reviews the mechanism of action for each medication, what statement does the nurse use to describe how furosemide treats hypertension?
A client is on several medications to control hypertension and the nurse reviews the mechanism of action for each medication therefore the statement which the nurse should use to describe how furosemide treats hypertension is that it acts on the kidneys to increase the flow of urine.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complications.
Furosemide is referred to as a type of drug which works by inhibiting electrolyte reabsorption from the kidneys and enhancing the excretion of water from the body. This thereby leads to as reduction in the volume if blood in the body and decreases the pressure generated with each beat, thereby decreasing the blood pressure.
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a client comes to the clinic for diagnostic allergy testing. the nurse understands that intradermal injections are used for such testing based on which principle?
Intradermal injections are used for diagnostic allergy testing because intradermal drugs diffuse more slowly.
What is diagnostic allergy testing?A diagnostic allergy testing is a clinical testing procedure that is being carried out whereby a subject is being exposed to some specific antigens to know if they are reactive or non reactive to it.
Examples of diagnostic allergy testing include the following:
Intradermal Skin Test.
Blood Tests (Specific IgE)
Physician-Supervised Challenge Tests.
Patch Test.
The route of administration of the antigen is through an intradermal route because when injected between the skin layers just below the surface stratum corneum, the antigen diffuse slowly into the local micro capillary system.
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a nurse who is working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift enters a client's room when the pulse oximeter alarms and reads 82%. the client appears to be sleeping. which action should the nurse take first
when the pulse oximeter records with 82% and the client appers to be sleeping that indicates that the oxygen levels should be maintained.
what is the pulse oximeter ?
A non-invasive technique for checking someone's oxygen saturation is pulse oximetry. Values of peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) are normally within 2% accuracy (within 4% accuracy in 95% of instances) of readings of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) from arterial blod gas analysis, which are more accurate (and intrusive). However, the correlation between the two is strong enough that the safe, practical, non-invasive, and affordable pulse oximetry approach is useful for determining oxygen saturation in clinical settings.
Transmissive pulse oximetry is the most popular method. In this method, a sensor device is applied to a narrow area of the patient's body, often an infant's foot or an earlobe or fingertip. Heat transmission is facilitated by the greater blod flow rates in fingertip and earlobe tissues than in other tissues. Two wavelengths of light are sent from the device through the bodily part to a photodetector. It determines the absorbances caused by the pumping arterial blod alone, eliminating venous blod, skin, bone, muscle, fat, and, in most cases, nail polish, by measuring the changing absorbance at each of the wavelengths.
when the pulse oximeter records with 82% and the client appers to be sleeping that indicates that the oxygen levels should be maintained.
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an intubated patient with chest injuries sustained when his chest hit the steering wheel in a vehicle accident suddenly becomes hypotensive and hypoxemic. auscultation reveals an absence of breath sounds on the right side and decreased breath sounds on the left. the nurse observes tracheal deviation to the left. which action is the most appropriate intervention?
The intervention is to Obtain an order for a chest radiograph and prepare for the insertion of a chest tube.
An intervention is a cautiously deliberate procedure that may be performed with the aid of family and buddies, in session with a health practitioner or professional including an authorized alcohol and drug counselor, or directed by using an intervention professional (interventionist).
An intervention is an act of inserting one aspect among others, like someone seeking to assist. you can be the challenge of a faculty intervention in case your instructors name your dad and mom approximately the bad grades you've got been hiding.
6 steps for intervention development: 1 apprehend trouble; 2 pick out modifiable causal elements; three decide mechanisms of change; four clarify shipping; five tests and adapt; 6 get proof of effectiveness.
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when collecting data from a pregnant client at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (dic), which factors would the nurse consider significant?
A client who is gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome; fetal demise occurred 2 months ago.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a rare and serious condition that causes blood flow to be disrupted. It's a clotting disorder that can cause uncontrollable bleeding. People suffering from cancer or sepsis may be affected by DIC.
In most cases, DIC is caused by inflammation caused by an infection, injury, or illness. Among the most common causes are: Sepsis: This is a systemic inflammatory response to infection. The most common risk factor for DIC is sepsis.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a condition that causes small blood clots to form throughout the bloodstream, obstructing small blood vessels. Excessive bleeding occurs as a result of increased clotting, which depletes platelets and clotting factors needed to control bleeding.
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a college student asks the nurse in the campus student health center about obtaining medication for motion sickness before a scuba diving trip. what instruction should the nurse give the student regarding the use of prescription-strength scopolamine (transderm-v)
Instruction should the nurse give the student regarding the use of prescription-strength scopolamine are apply the skin patch behind the ear 12 hours before your trip.
What is Scopolamine?
This skin patch is used to stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting as well as post-surgery and anaesthesia recovery nausea and vomiting. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine, two naturally occurring chemicals that might become out of balance in motion sickness, are balanced by this medication.
Before using scopolamine and each time you get a refill, read the medication guide that your pharmacist has provided. Ask your physician or pharmacist if you have any queries.
Apply the patch to a clean, dry, hairless area of the skin behind the ear after peeling off the clear backing. If you want to ensure that the patch adheres well, especially around the edges, press firmly for at least 30 seconds. Over a three-day period, the patch will gradually release the drug into your body.
It is necessary to take motion sickness medications before nausea and vomiting start. They work best when taken 12 hours before to (B) anticipated travel or exercise. Correct administration techniques for prescription-strength scopolamine are not described in (A, C, and D) (Transderm-V).
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a client diagnosed with anemia is prescribed vitamin b12 injections. in addition, which food(s) would the nurse encourage? select all that apply.
Good sources of vitamin B12 are meat, eggs and dairy products.
What is anaemia?
A condition in which the blood doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells.
Anaemia results from a lack of red blood cells or dysfunctional red blood cells in the body. This leads to reduced oxygen flow to the body's organs.
Symptoms may include fatigue, skin pallor, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, dizziness, or a fast heartbeat.
The most common cause of anaemia is not having enough iron. Your body needs iron to make hemoglobin.
Vitamin B12–deficiency anaemia, also known as cobalamin deficiency, is a condition that develops when your body can't make enough healthy red blood cells because it doesn't have enough vitamin B12. Your body needs vitamin B12 to make healthy red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
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a physician on your staff asked you to help her collect information about the effects of smoking during pregnancy on the birth weight of babies. you were asked to collect the following information: whether or not the mothers smoke during pregnancy; birth weight of the babies; apgar scores at one minute; and apgar scores at five minutes. the scales of these variables would be:
Nominal, ratio, ordinal, and ordinal are the scales of these variables.
What are Apgar scores?
When used correctly, the Apgar score is a tool for standard assessment that describes the newborn infant's status soon after birth 18. Additionally, it offers a way to document the passage from the fetus to the newborn. Apgar scores do not indicate a person's likelihood of dying or having a bad neurological outcome.
Newborns are tested shortly after birth to get their Apgar score. This examination measures a child's heart rate, muscular tone, and other indicators to determine whether further treatment or emergency care is required. Babies often undergo the test twice: once immediately following birth, and once more five minutes later.
Hence, the answer is nominal, ratio, ordinal, and ordinal are the scales of these variables.
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the nurse caring for a client at home arrives to find the client in the bedroom, unconscious and with a pill bottle of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, sertraline on the bed. which assessment has priority?
Rationale is prior assessment should be adopted in case of client is in the bedroom, unconscious and with a pill bottle of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, sertraline, on the bed.
When you are asked to explain or justify a decision you make or an action you take, you are asked to provide a rationale. The nurse should assess the patient's pulse and respiratory state in cases of suspected poisoning. These parameters would be established before checking blood pressure. While important, urinary production is not now the top priority.
Hence, rationale is adopted in case of client is in the bedroom with unconscious and pill bottle of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
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