prove capacitance ( c=q/v) in gows low

Answers

Answer 1

The equation [tex]C =\frac{Q}{V}[/tex] can be derived from Gauss's law when applied to a parallel plate capacitor. This equation represents the relationship between capacitance, charge, and voltage in a capacitor.

Gauss's law states that the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the charge enclosed by that surface. When applied to a parallel plate capacitor, we consider a Gaussian surface between the plates.

Inside the capacitor, the electric field is uniform and directed from the positive plate to the negative plate. By applying Gauss's law, we find that the electric flux passing through the Gaussian surface is equal to the charge enclosed divided by the permittivity of free space (ε₀).

The electric field between the plates can be expressed as [tex]E =\frac{V}{d}[/tex], where V is the voltage across the plates and d is the distance between them. By substituting this expression into Gauss's law and rearranging, we obtain [tex]Q =\frac{C}{V}[/tex], where Q is the charge on the plates and C is the capacitance.

Dividing both sides of the equation by V, we get [tex]C =\frac{Q}{V}[/tex], which is the expression for capacitance. This equation shows that capacitance is the ratio of the charge stored on the capacitor to the voltage across it.

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Related Questions

Is it realistic that the redshift of a galaxy is equal to 2
000?) Mind that CMB formation is corresponding to z=1100

Answers

Redshift of a galaxy is a cosmological phenomenon and can be used to determine the distance of an object, velocity, and the age of the universe. The answer is yes it is possible to have a redshift of a galaxy equal to 2000.

Redshift is the phenomenon by which light or other electromagnetic radiation from an object is increased in wavelength or shifted to the red end of the spectrum, as a result of the object moving away from the observer.

The redshift (z) value of a galaxy is the ratio of the change in the wavelength of light emitted by the galaxy to the original wavelength of light. In other words, it is a measure of the degree to which light has been stretched as it travels through space. This ratio is related to the distance and velocity of the object, and also provides information about the expansion of the universe.

A redshift of z=1100 corresponds to the cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation, which is the thermal radiation left over from the Big Bang. This is often used as a reference point for redshift values. However, it is important to note that galaxies can have much higher redshift values.

For example, the most distant known galaxy has a redshift of z=11.9. This means that its light has been stretched by a factor of 12 since it was emitted, and that it is located around 13 billion light-years away from us. Thus, it is possible for a galaxy to have a redshift of 2000.

However, it is also important to note that there are many factors that can affect the measured redshift of a galaxy, including peculiar motion, gravitational lensing, and instrumental effects. Therefore, redshift measurements are subject to various sources of uncertainty.

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An object with a mass of 100 g is suspended from a spring having a spring constant of 104 dyne/cm and subjected to vibration. The object was pulled 3 cm from the equilibrium point and released from rest.
(a) Find the natural frequency ν0 and the period τ0.
(b) Find total energy.
(c) Find the maximum speed.

Answers

The natural frequency is 32.91 rad/s and the period of oscillation is 0.1916 s. The total energy of the oscillator is 0.05616 J and the maximum speed of the object is 0.9873 m/s.

Mass, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Spring constant, k = 104 dyne/cm = 104 N/m

Displacement, x = 3 cm = 0.03 m

Let's solve the problem using the following steps:

a. 1. Calculate the natural frequency

The natural frequency is given by:

ν₀ = 1/(2π) * √(k/m)

ν₀ = 1/(2π) * √(104/0.1)

ν₀ = 32.91 rad/s

Calculate the period:

2. The period of oscillation is given by:

τ₀ = 2π/ν₀

τ₀ = 2π/32.91

τ₀ = 0.1916 s

b. Calculate the total energy:

The total energy of a simple harmonic oscillator is given by:

E = (1/2) kx²

E = (1/2) * 104 * (0.03)²

E = 0.05616 J

c. Calculate the maximum speed:

The maximum speed is given by:

v_max = A * ν₀

where A is the amplitude of oscillation which is equal to the displacement x in this case. Thus,

v_max = x * ν₀

v_max = 0.03 * 32.91

v_max = 0.9873 m/s

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A rock with a weight of 10N is attached to a vertical string. The rock is moving upward but is slowing down. Shod the force that the string exerts on the rock be greater than 10N, less than 10N, or equal to 10N? Neglect air resistance and explain using the correct Newton's Law.

Answers

The force exerted by the string on the rock should be greater than 10N, according to Newton's second law of motion.

Newton's second law of motion states that the net force acting on an object is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration. In this case, the rock is moving upward but slowing down, which means its acceleration is directed downward. Since the rock's weight is 10N, which is equivalent to the force of gravity acting on it, there must be an additional force exerted by the string to counteract this downward acceleration.

To understand this, let's consider the forces acting on the rock. The force of gravity pulls the rock downward with a force of 10N. To slow down the rock's upward motion, the string must exert a force greater than 10N in the upward direction. This additional force exerted by the string balances out the downward force of gravity, resulting in a net force of zero and causing the rock to slow down.

Therefore, the force exerted by the string on the rock should be greater than 10N to counteract the force of gravity and slow down the rock's upward motion.

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At what frequency will a 50-mH inductor have a reactance XL = 7000? 0 352 Hz O 777 Hz 0 1.25 kHz O 2.23 kHz O 14 kHz

Answers

The frequency at which a 50-mH inductor will have a reactance XL = 7000 is 1.25 kHz.

Frequency is a fundamental concept in physics and refers to the number of cycles or oscillations of a wave that occur in one second. It is measured in hertz (Hz). In the context of the given question, the frequency is being asked in relation to an inductor's reactance.

Reactance is the opposition of an electrical component, such as an inductor, to the flow of alternating current (AC). The reactance of an inductor, XL, depends on its inductance and the frequency of the AC signal passing through it. In this case, when the reactance XL of a 50-mH inductor is 7000, the corresponding frequency is 1.25 kHz (kilohertz).

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The inductor in the RLC tuning circuit of an AM radio has a
value of 450 mH .
Part A: What should be the value of the variable capacitor in
the circuit to tune the radio to 730 kHz?
Express your answe

Answers

The value of the variable capacitor should be 185.2 pF to tune the radio to 730 kHz.To tune the radio to 730 kHz, the value of the variable capacitor should be 185.2 pF.

The inductor in the RLC tuning circuit of an AM radio has a value of 450 mH. What should be the value of the variable capacitor in the circuit to tune the radio to 730 kHz?The required value of the variable capacitor in the circuit to tune the radio to 730 kHz should be 185.2 pF (pico-farad).

How to calculate the value of the variable capacitor?

The resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit can be given by the formula,f = 1/(2π √(LC))Where,f = frequency in HertzL = Inductance in HenrysC = Capacitance in FaradsGiven that the inductance, L = 450 mH = 0.45 HFrequency, f = 730 kHz = 730000 HzThe formula can be rearranged to get the capacitance,C = 1/[(2πf)^2L]So, the capacitance, C = 1/[(2π × 730000)^2 × 0.45]C = 185.2 pFTherefore, the value of the variable capacitor should be 185.2 pF to tune the radio to 730 kHz.To tune the radio to 730 kHz, the value of the variable capacitor should be 185.2 pF.

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Find the magnetic-field’s strength using information below
R_coil= 0.19m, current=1.3A, N=130
*3 decimal places/in milliTesla

Answers

The magnetic-field strength is 0.579 mT in milliTesla. Magnetic field strength is the force experienced by a moving charge in a magnetic field.

The magnetic field strength equation is given by

B = μ * I * N / 2 * R

Where,

B is the magnetic field strength

I is the current

N is the number of turns in the coil

R is the radius of the coilμ is the permeability of free space.

The given values are

[tex]R_{coil}[/tex] = 0.19m

current = 1.3A

N = 130

Substituting the given values in the formula, we get

B = μ * I * N / 2 * R

R = 0.19m

N = 130

I = 1.3A

Magnetic field strength = B = (4 * π * [tex]10^{-7}[/tex]) * 1.3 * 130 / (2 * 0.19)

On solving, we get

B = 0.579 mT

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The displacement of a wave traveling in the positive x-direction is D(x,t)=(3.5cm)sin(2.5x−134t)D(x,t)=(3.5cm)sin(2.5x−134t), where x is in m and t is in s.
A.) What is the frequency of this wave?
B.) What is the wavelength of this wave?
C.) What is the speed of this wave?

Answers

The answers to the given questions are:A) 134/(2π) HzB) 0.8π m ≈ 2.51 mC) 533.33 m/

A. The frequency of a wave is given by the formula: `f = w/2π`. Where w is the angular frequency. We can obtain the angular frequency by comparing the wave equation `y = A sin (ωt ± kx)` with the given wave equation `D (x, t) = (3.5 cm) sin (2.5x - 134t)`. From the given equation, we can see that: `ω = 134`Therefore, the frequency is given by: `f = ω/2π = 134/(2π) Hz`B. The wavelength of the wave is given by the formula `λ = 2π/k`.

From the given wave equation `D (x, t) = (3.5 cm) sin (2.5x - 134t)`, we can see that: `k = 2.5`. Therefore, the wavelength of the wave is given by: `λ = 2π/k = 2π/2.5 m = 0.8π m ≈ 2.51 m`C. The speed of a wave is given by the formula: `v = λf`. From parts (a) and (b), we know that: `f = 134/(2π) Hz` and `λ ≈ 2.51 m`. Therefore, the speed of the wave is given by: `v = λf ≈ 2.51 × 134/(2π) m/s ≈ 533.33 m/s`.Therefore, the answers to the given questions are:A) 134/(2π) HzB) 0.8π m ≈ 2.51 mC) 533.33 m/s

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A planet is in an elliptical orbit around a sun. Which statement below is true about the torque on the planet due to the sun? Since the force on the planet points along its direction of motion, the torque on it is always positive. Since the gravitational force on the planet passes through its axis of rotation, there is no torque generated by this force. Since the force on the planet changes as it moves around its orbit, the torque on it is not constant. O None of these choices is correct. Imagine propping up a ladder against a wall. Which of the following is an essential condition for the ladder to be in static equilibrium? The ladder must lean at an angle greater than 45 degrees. The ground can be frictionless. The vertical wall must be very rough. None of these choices is correct. If the speed with which a fluid flows is V and the cross-sectional area of the stream is A, then what does the quantity (AV) signify? The volume of the fluid flowing per unit area. The total mass of the fluid. None of these choices is correct. The mass of the fluid flowing per unit volume. Can water evaporate at 10°C? Why, or why not? Yes, because a small fraction of water molecules will be moving fast enough to break free and enter vapor phase even at 10°C. O No, because 10°C is too far below the boiling point of water. Yes, because 10°C is well above the evaporating point of water. No, because evaporation at 10°C requires a much higher pressure. 0 0 O

Answers

Regarding the torque on a planet in an elliptical orbit around a sun, the correct statement is: None of these choices is correct. The torque on the planet due to the sun is not determined solely by the direction of the force or the alignment of the gravitational force with the axis of rotation.

In an elliptical orbit, the force on the planet from the sun is not always along its direction of motion. As the planet moves in its elliptical path, the force vector changes its direction, resulting in a varying torque on the planet. Therefore, none of the given choices accurately describes the torque on the planet.

When propping up a ladder against a wall, an essential condition for the ladder to be in static equilibrium is that the ground cannot be frictionless. Friction between the ladder and the ground is necessary to prevent the ladder from sliding or rotating. If the ground were completely frictionless, the ladder would not be able to maintain a stable position against the wall.

The quantity (AV), where V is the speed of fluid flow and A is the cross-sectional area of the stream, represents the volume of the fluid flowing per unit time. Multiplying the velocity by the cross-sectional area gives the volume of fluid passing through that area in a given time interval.

Water cannot evaporate at 10°C because 10°C is too far below the boiling point of water. Evaporation occurs when molecules at the surface of a liquid gain enough energy to transition into the vapor phase. While some water molecules will possess sufficient kinetic energy to evaporate even at temperatures below the boiling point, the rate of evaporation is much lower compared to higher temperatures. At 10°C, the average kinetic energy of water molecules is not high enough for a significant number of molecules to escape into the vapor phase. Thus, water does not readily evaporate at 10°C.

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Boltzmann approximations to the Fermi-Dirac distribution functions are only valid when: (a) The Fermi level is mid-gap; (b) The electron and hole effective masses are equal; (c) The temperature is very low; (d) The Fermi level is thermally far removed from the band edges; (e) All of the above; (f) None of the above;

Answers

Boltzmann approximations to the Fermi-Dirac distribution functions are only valid when the Fermi level is thermally far removed from the band edges, therefore the answer is option (d).

Fermi-Dirac Distribution Function

The Fermi-Dirac distribution function is a probability function used in quantum statistics to describe the likelihood of discovering electrons in different energy levels in a system at thermal equilibrium.

It was created by Enrico Fermi and Paul Dirac as a modification of the classical Maxwell–Boltzmann distribution function for particles with half-integer spin. Boltzmann approximations are only valid when the Fermi level is thermally far removed from the band edges.

It is impossible to calculate the exact Fermi function in general. This is due to the fact that the energy integrals in the expression cannot be performed explicitly. Boltzmann approximations can be used to solve this problem.

When the temperature is high and the Fermi energy is far away from the conduction and valence band edges, the Boltzmann approximation is very accurate. At low temperatures, the Fermi-Dirac function reduces to a step function.

Thus, Boltzmann approximations to the Fermi-Dirac distribution functions are only valid when the Fermi level is thermally far removed from the band edges, therefore the answer is option (d).

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A 9.5 m long uniform plank has a mass of 13.8 kg and is supported by the floor at one end and by a vertical rope at the other so that the plank is at an angle of 35 ∘
. A 73.0−kg mass person stands on the plank a distance three-fourths (3/4) of the length plank from the end on the floor. (a) What is the tension in the rope? (b) What is the magnitude of the force that the floor exerts on the plank?

Answers

(a) The tension in the rope is 6,645.5 N.

(b) The magnitude of the force that the floor exerts on the plank is 6,114.3 N.

(a)

The given values are as follows: m = 13.8 kgL = 9.5 mθ = 35°M = 73.0 kgWe need to find the tension in the rope.

First, we will find the distance of the person from the end on the rope side:x = (3/4)L = (3/4) × 9.5 m = 7.125 m

Now, we can find the forces acting on the plank and person.

Let's calculate the force due to gravity acting on the person:

Fg = Mg

Fg = 73.0 kg × 9.8 m/s²

Fg = 715.4 N

The force due to gravity acting on the plank:

Fg' = mg

Fg' = 13.8 kg × 9.8 m/s²

Fg' = 135.24 N

The force exerted by the rope on the plank:

Fr = T

Fr = T sin θ

Fr = T sin 35°

The force exerted by the floor on the plank:

Ff = T cos θ + Fg'

Ff = T cos 35° + Fg'

Ff = T cos 35° + 135.24 N

The forces acting on the person can be represented as:

F1 = FgF1 = 715.4 N

The forces acting on the plank can be represented as:

F2 = T sin 35° + Fg' + Ff

F2 = T sin 35° + 135.24 N + T cos 35°

Now, we can use the equation of torque to find T. The equation of torque is given as follows:Στ = Iα

As the plank is uniform, we can find the moment of inertia of the plank. I = (1/3) mL²I = (1/3) × 13.8 kg × (9.5 m)²I = 929.45 kg m²

As the plank is in equilibrium, the net torque acting on it is zero. Therefore, we can write:

Στ = 0The torque due to the weight of the person:

F1(x/2)The torque due to the weight of the plank:

Fg'(L/2)The torque due to the tension in the rope:

Fr(L - x)Now, we can write the equation of torque:

Στ = F1(x/2) + Fg'(L/2) - Fr(L - x) = 0(715.4 N)(7.125 m/2) + (135.24 N)(9.5 m/2) - T sin 35°(9.5 m - 7.125 m) = 0

Simplify and solve for T:

T sin 35° = (715.4 N)(7.125 m/2) + (135.24 N)(9.5 m/2) - (9.5 m - 7.125 m)(135.24 N)T sin 35° = 3571.69 NT = 6,645.5 N

Therefore, the tension in the rope is 6,645.5 N.

(b) The force exerted by the floor on the plank is given as:

Ff = T cos 35° + Fg'

Ff = (6,645.5 N) cos 35° + 135.24 N

Ff = 6,114.3 N

Therefore, the magnitude of the force that the floor exerts on the plank is 6,114.3 N. Answer: (a) The tension in the rope is 6,645.5 N.

(b) The magnitude of the force that the floor exerts on the plank is 6,114.3 N.

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A generator connected to an RLC circuit has an rms voltage of 150 V and an rms current of 33 mA .A generator connected to an RLC circuit has an rms voltage of 150 V and an rms current of 33 mA .
If the resistance in the circuit is 3.0 kΩ and the capacitive reactance is 6.7 kΩ , what is the inductive reactance of the circuit?

Answers

The required solution is:Inductive reactance of the circuit is 1.38 kΩ.

Given information: The rms voltage (Vrms) of the generator = 150 VThe rms current (Irms) in the circuit = 33 mAThe resistance (R) in the circuit = 3.0 kΩThe capacitive reactance (Xc) = 6.7 kΩThe formula to calculate the inductive reactance (XL) of the circuit is given as,XL = √[R² + (Xl - Xc)²]where,XL is the inductive reactanceXc is the capacitive reactance of the circuit. R is the resistance of the circuit.

Substituting the given values in the formula,XL = √[ (3.0 kΩ)² + (Xl - 6.7 kΩ)²]⇒ XL² = (3.0 kΩ)² + (XL - 6.7 kΩ)²⇒ XL² = 9.0 kΩ² + XL² - 2 * 6.7 kΩ * XL + (6.7 kΩ)²⇒ 0 = 9.0 kΩ² - 2 * 6.7 kΩ * XL + (6.7 kΩ)²⇒ 0 = (3.0 kΩ - XL) (3.0 kΩ + XL) - (6.7 kΩ)²XL = (6.7 kΩ)² / (3.0 kΩ + XL)⇒ (3.0 kΩ + XL) XL = (6.7 kΩ)²⇒ XL² + 3.0 kΩ * XL - (6.7 kΩ)² = 0Solving for XL using the quadratic formula, we get,XL = 1.38 kΩ and XL = -4.38 kΩ.

Since inductive reactance can never be negative, we ignore the negative value.So, the inductive reactance of the circuit is 1.38 kΩ (approximately).Hence, the required solution is:Inductive reactance of the circuit is 1.38 kΩ.

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Q2 (a) Define the following forcing functions with suitable sketches. (ii) Impulse (iii) Sinusoidal (4]

Answers

The impulse is a forcing function that refers to an abrupt, brief, and intense disturbance. It has an infinite value at the beginning of the time axis and then returns to zero as time progresses. This type of forcing function is also known as a Dirac Delta function.

It represents an instant release of energy, and it can be used to model physical events such as a hammer hitting a nail or a bullet being fired.

Sinusoidal forcing functions are also referred to as harmonic forcing functions because they are used to describe sinusoidal wave patterns. Sinusoidal functions have an equation of the form f(t) = A sin (ωt + φ), where A represents the amplitude, ω is the angular frequency, and φ is the phase angle. The angular frequency is expressed in radians per second, while the phase angle determines the initial position of the sinusoidal wave.

The sinusoidal forcing function is a periodic function that oscillates back and forth, reaching maximum and minimum values repeatedly. The amplitude determines how high or low the sinusoidal function will reach while the frequency determines the number of oscillations per unit time. It is used to model physical phenomena such as the vibration of a spring or the movement of a pendulum.

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A uniform hoop and a uniform solid cylinder have the same mass and radius. They both roll, without slipping, on a horizontal surface. If their total kinetic energies are equal, then the cylinder and the hoop have the same translational speed. the cylinder has a greater translational speed than the hoop. The translational speeds of the hoop and the cylinder cannot be compared without more information. the hoop has a greater translational speed than the cylinder.

Answers

If a uniform hoop and a uniform solid cylinder with the same mass and radius roll without slipping on a horizontal surface and have equal total kinetic energies, the hoop and the cylinder will have the same translational speed

When a hoop or a solid cylinder rolls without slipping, its total kinetic energy consists of both rotational and translational components. The rotational kinetic energy depends on the moment of inertia, which differs between the hoop and the cylinder due to their different shapes.

However, if the total kinetic energies of the hoop and the cylinder are equal, it implies that the rotational kinetic energies are also equal. Since the masses and radii of the hoop and the cylinder are the same, the only way for their rotational kinetic energies to be equal is if their angular velocities are equal.

Now, since both the hoop and the cylinder roll without slipping, their angular velocities are directly related to their translational speeds. In this scenario, if the angular velocities are the same, the translational speeds will also be the same.

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Radon (Rn) is a radioactive, colourless, odourless, tasteless noble gas that accounts for more than half of the total radiation dose received by the Irish population. Radon-222 has a half-life of 3.8 days and the activity of 1 g is 3.7 x 10¹⁰ Bq. (i) Radon-222 undergoes alpha decay. Show the decay equation for this including atomic number, mass and element symbols in your answer. (ii) Calculate the decay constant for Radon-222. (iii) Calculate the number of Radon-222 atoms present in 1g.

Answers

Radon-222 has a half-life of 3.8 days and the activity of 1 g is 3.7 x 10¹⁰ Bq. (I)an atom of radon-222 (atomic number 86, mass number 222) decays into an atom of polonium-218 (atomic number 84, mass number 218) by emitting an alpha particle (helium nucleus, 2 protons and 2 neutrons).(II)The decay constant for Radon-222 is 3.16 × 10⁻⁵ s⁻¹.(iii)There are 1.1 × 10¹⁵ radon-222 atoms present in 1 g.

(i) The decay equation for the alpha decay of radon-222 is as follows:

86 222 Rn → 2 4 He + 84 218 Po

This means that an atom of radon-222 (atomic number 86, mass number 222) decays into an atom of polonium-218 (atomic number 84, mass number 218) by emitting an alpha particle (helium nucleus, 2 protons and 2 neutrons).

(ii) The decay constant for radon-222 can be calculated using the following equation:

λ = ln(2) / T

where:

   λ is the decay constant (s⁻¹)

   ln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2 (0.693)

   T is the half-life (s)

Substituting the values for T, we get:

λ = ln(2) / 3.8 days

= 0.063 days⁻¹

= 3.16 × 10⁻⁵ s⁻¹

(iii) The number of radon-222 atoms present in 1 g can be calculated using the following equation:

N = A / λ

where:

   N is the number of atoms

   A is the activity (Bq)

   λ is the decay constant (s⁻¹)

Substituting the values for A and λ, we get:

N = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq / 3.16 × 10⁻⁵ s⁻¹

= 1.1 × 10¹⁵ atom

Therefore, there are 1.1 × 10¹⁵ radon-222 atoms present in 1 g.

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In Circuit 64 your voltmeters were accurate in the sense that they (more or less) correctly read the actual voltages in the circuits, but they were inaccurate (for very large resistors) in that these readings are NOT the true voltage across the second resistor when the meter is not there. Now suppose you are in a different setting, with two voltmeters and a high resistance circuit. If meter A "correctly" reads 6.70 volts across a resistor in a circuit and meter B "correctly" reads 6.90V across the same resistor in the same circuit, which meter is giving you the value closest to the true value with no meters present? Explain. (4) 6. The last line of the first column (V1 reading WITHOUT the Simpson) is for the 4.7MQ. Take the value you have and use it to solve for the actual resistance of the Fluke meter. How? Suppose the resistors are both 4.70MQ and use your voltage of the power supply (if you did not write it down, use 3.00V). Remember the question that asked you to find the AV of R* when you knew IR of the other resistor? Well, here you know AV of the parallel combination of R₂ and the meter. "Reverse engineer" things to find the total current from the power supply, then the total resistance (and or you can go directly to find the Reg of the parallel combination, then solve for the meter resistance.

Answers

In the given scenario, if meter A correctly reads 6.70 volts across a resistor in a circuit and meter B correctly reads 6.90 volts across the same resistor in the same circuit, meter A is providing a value closer to the true voltage with no meters present.

When using voltmeters in high-resistance circuits, the presence of the voltmeter can affect the actual voltage across the resistor being measured. In this case, we have two voltmeters, A and B, both reading the voltage across the same resistor. If meter A reads 6.70 volts and meter B reads 6.90 volts, we need to determine which value is closer to the true voltage.

Since the voltmeters are accurate in the sense that they correctly read the actual voltages in the circuits, we can infer that the true voltage across the resistor lies between the readings of meters A and B. Considering that meter A reads 6.70 volts and meter B reads 6.90 volts, we can conclude that meter A provides a value closer to the true voltage. This is because the actual voltage is likely slightly lower than the reading on meter B, making meter A's reading more accurate in this case.

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Two railroad cars are about to collide. One is stationary (v=0) and has a mass of 5000 kg.
The other one is moving left towards it 2 m/s and its mass is 2000 kg. Assuming it is a
totally inelastic collision, how fast and what direction will the two cars be moving after the
collision?

Answers

After the collision, the two railroad cars will move together at a final velocity of 4/7 m/s in the leftward direction.

In the given scenario, two railroad cars, one stationary and one moving leftwards at 2m/s, with masses of 5000 kg and 2000 kg respectively, are about to collide.

Since the collision is inelastic, the two objects will stick together and move together after the collision at a common speed.

Let the final common speed of both objects be v. Applying the principle of conservation of momentum, we have:

Initial momentum = Final momentum (5000 kg) × (0 m/s) + (2000 kg) × (−2 m/s) = (5000 kg + 2000 kg) × v

∴ −4000 = 7000v

v = −4000 / 7000 = −4/7 m/s

As the final velocity is negative, this indicates that the combined object will move to the left, which is the direction of the initial velocity of one of the objects.

Hence, the final velocity of the combined object is 4/7 m/s leftwards.

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A plane flies east 300 km for 1.00 hr, then turns north and continues another 300 km for 1.00 hr. What direction was the average acceleration of the plane? north northwest southeast southwest northeast

Answers

The plane initially flies east for 1.00 hour and then turns north for another 1.00 hour. The average acceleration of the plane is in the northeast direction.

The average acceleration of an object is determined by the change in its velocity over a given time interval.

In this case, the plane initially flies east for 1.00 hour and then turns north for another 1.00 hour.

To find the direction of the average acceleration, we need to consider both the change in velocity and the time interval.

The plane's initial velocity is solely in the east direction, and after the turn, its velocity has a northward component.

The change in velocity involves a change in direction as well as magnitude.

Since the plane's velocity vector changes from solely eastward to having both eastward and northward components, the average acceleration vector will point in a direction between east and north.

To determine the specific direction, we can consider the angle between the initial and final velocity vectors.

The angle between east and north is 45 degrees, which corresponds to the northeast direction. Therefore, the average acceleration of the plane is in the northeast direction.

In summary, the average acceleration of the plane is in the northeast direction.

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A 1.4 kg toy has an acceleration of 0.23 m/s2 when pushed with a force. A second toy has an acceleration of 0.75 m/s2 when pushed with the same force. What is the mass (in kg) of the second toy? Hint: Only enter the numerical value of your answer to two decimal places.

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the required mass of the second toy is 0.43 kg.

The given force pushes a toy with a mass of 1.4 kg with an acceleration of 0.23 m/s². We are to calculate the mass of another toy that is pushed with the same force and has an acceleration of 0.75 m/s².We can use the following equation: force = mass × acceleration.

Therefore, we can write the following equations for the two toys:Force = (1.4 kg) × (0.23 m/s²)Force = mass × (0.75 m/s²)Solving the two equations for mass, we get:mass = Force/accelerationFor the first toy, we have:mass = (1.4 kg × 0.23 m/s²)/ (0.23 m/s²) = 1.4 kgFor the second toy, we have:mass = Force/acceleration = (1.4 kg × 0.23 m/s²)/ (0.75 m/s²) = 0.428 kgSo, the mass of the second toy is 0.43 kg (to two decimal places).Hence, the required mass of the second toy is 0.43 kg.

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choose the correct answer For this system The heater is off when O Comparator Reference value Te • TaTd • Ta=0 • Td=0 True Emor Heater signal False Temperature measuring device Room Any values for dynamic characteristics are indicated in instrument data sheets and only apply when the instrument is used underspecified environmental conditions. Room temperature . true or false?

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The statement "The heater is off when O Comparator Reference value Te • TaTd • Ta=0 • Td=0" is true and The second statement "Any values for dynamic characteristics are indicated in instrument data sheets and only apply when the instrument is used under specified environmental conditions. Room temperature." is false.

The statement is false because instrument data sheets provide detailed information about the dynamic characteristics of instruments, such as response time, accuracy, or frequency response. However, these characteristics are specified under specific environmental conditions, which may include temperature ranges, humidity levels, or other factors. Merely assuming "room temperature" is not sufficient to accurately apply the specified values.

Instrument performance can be significantly influenced by environmental factors, and variations in temperature can affect the instrument's behavior and measurements. Different materials used in instrument construction can exhibit varying thermal expansion properties, leading to potential changes in calibration and accuracy.

To ensure the instrument operates as intended and provides accurate results, it is crucial to consult the instrument data sheet and consider the specified environmental conditions. Adhering to the recommended operating conditions will help maintain the instrument's performance, reliability, and accuracy in real-world applications.

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A small and a large block (mass M and 2M respectively) are arranged on a horizontal surface as shown below. A student pushes on the left side of the small block so that the entire system accelerates to the right. How does the net force on the small block Fs compare to the net force on the large block F₁? Fs=FL Fs < FL 0/2 pts Fs > FL

Answers

The net force on the small block (Fs) is equal to the net force on the large block (F₁).

According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. When the student pushes on the left side of the small block, an equal and opposite force is exerted by the small block on the student's hand. This force is transmitted through the small block to the large block due to their contact.

Since the small and large blocks are in contact, they experience the same magnitude of force but in opposite directions. Therefore, the net force on the small block is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the net force on the large block.

In a system where both blocks are accelerating to the right, there must be an unbalanced force acting on the system. This unbalanced force is provided by the student's push and is transmitted through both blocks. As the large block has a greater mass, it requires a larger force to accelerate it compared to the smaller block. However, the net force acting on each block, Fs and F₁, will be equal in magnitude, satisfying Newton's third law.

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Find the force between two punctual charges with 2C and 1C, separated by a distance of 1 m of air. Write your answer in Newtons. NOTE: Constant k = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²C⁻²
A. 1.8×10⁹ N B. 18×10⁹ N C. 18×10⁻⁶ N D. 1.8×10⁻⁶ N

Answers

The force between two punctual charges of 2C and 1C, separated by 1m in air, is 18 × 10^9 Newtons. The correct answer is option B.

The force between two punctual charges can be calculated using Coulomb's Law:

F = k * (|q₁| * |q₂|) / r²,

where F is the force, k is the electrostatic constant, |q₁| and |q₂| are the magnitudes of the charges, and r is the distance between them.

Given:

|q₁| = 2 C,

|q₂| = 1 C,

r = 1 m,

k = 9 × 10^9 Nm²C⁻².

Substituting the values into the formula:

F = (9 × 10^9 Nm²C⁻²) * (|2 C| * |1 C|) / (1 m)²

  = (9 × 10^9 Nm²C⁻²) * (2 C * 1 C) / (1 m)²

  = (9 × 10^9 Nm²C⁻²) * 2 C² / 1 m²

  = 18 × 10^9 N.

Therefore, the force between the two charges is 18 × 10^9 Newtons.

The correct answer is option B: 18×10⁹ N.

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A flashlight bulb carries a current of 0.33 A for 94 s .
How much charge flows through the bulb in this time?
Express your answer using two significant figures.
How many electrons?
Express your answer using two significant figures.

Answers

The number of electrons that flow through the bulb in this time is approximately [tex]1.94 * 10^{20[/tex] electrons.

To determine the charge that flows through the flashlight bulb, we can use the equation:

Q = I * t

Where:

Q is the charge in Coulombs (C),

I is the current in Amperes (A), and

t is the time in seconds (s).

Given:

Current, I = 0.33 A

Time, t = 94 s

Using the formula, we can calculate the charge Q:

Q = 0.33 A * 94 s

= 31.02 C

Therefore, the charge that flows through the bulb in this time is approximately 31.02 Coulombs.

To find the number of electrons, we can use the fact that 1 electron has a charge of approximately[tex]1.6 *10^{(-19)[/tex]Coulombs.

Number of electrons = [tex]Q / (1.6 * 10^{(-19)} C)[/tex]

Substituting the value of Q:

Number of electrons = [tex]31.02 C / (1.6 * 10^{(-19)} C)[/tex]

≈ [tex]1.94 * 10^{20[/tex]electrons

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A +10 C charge exerts a force on an electron that is: Select one: a. Attractive and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the charges b. Attractive and directly proportional to the square of the distance between the charges c. Repulsive and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the charges d. Repulsive and directly proportional to the square of the distance between the charges

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A +10 C charge exerts a force on an electron that is: c. Repulsive and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the charges.

A negatively charged subatomic particle known as an electron can be free (not bound) or attached to an atom. One of the three main types of particles within an atom is an electron that is bonded to it; the other two are protons and neutrons. The nucleus of an atom is made up of protons and electrons together. The positive charge of a proton balances the negative charge of an electron. An atom is in a neutral condition when it contains the same amount of protons and electrons.

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A closely wound rectangular coil of 90 turns has dimensions of 27.0 cm by 43.0 cm. The plane of the coil is rotated from a position where it makes an angle of 31.0 with a magnetic field of 1.40 T to a position perpendicular to the field. The rotation takes 9.00×10−2 s.
Part A
What is the average emf induced in the coil?

Answers

A closely wound rectangular coil of 90 turns has dimensions of 27.0 cm by 43.0 cm. Therefore, The average emf induced in the coil is 45.4 V.

We have the given parameters as; Number of turns in the coil, N = 90Area of rectangular coil, A = l × b = 27 cm × 43 cm = 1161 cm² = 1161 × 10⁻⁴ m²

Angle between the plane of the coil and the magnetic field, θ = 31°Magnetic field, B = 1.40 T

Time of rotation, t = 9.00 × 10⁻² s

Part A: The emf induced in the coil can be calculated using the formula; EMF = -NBAωsin(ωt)

where N is the number of turns in the coil, B is the magnetic field, A is the area of the coil, ω is the angular velocity, and t is the time taken for the rotation to occur.

As the plane of the coil is rotated from a position where it makes an angle of 31.0° with a magnetic field of 1.40 T to a position perpendicular to the field.

Thus, we can calculate the average emf induced in the coil by integrating the above formula over the time interval, t. Initially, the angle between the plane of the coil and the magnetic field is 31°.

Thus, the component of the magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil is given by; B = Bsin(θ) = Bsin(31°) = 0.7244 TAt final position, the angle between the plane of the coil and the magnetic field is 90°. Thus, the component of the magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil is given by; B = Bsin(θ) = Bsin(90°) = 1.40 T

The average value of sin(ωt) over the interval (0 to π/2) is given by;∫sin(ωt)dt = [-cos(ωt)]ⁿ_0^(π/2) = 1At ωt = π/2, sin(ωt) = 1

The average emf induced in the coil can be calculated as; EMF = -NAB(1/t)sin(ωt) = -NAB(ω/π)sin(ωt)EMF = -90 × (27 × 10⁻² × 43 × 10⁻²) × (0.7244 - 1.40) × (1/9.00 × 10⁻²) × 1EMF = 45.4 V

Therefore, The average emf induced in the coil is 45.4 V.

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The center of gravity and the center of mass of an object coincides with each other when when the mass of the body is uniformly distributed the gravitational field surrounding and within the body is uniform all of the choices is correct No answer text provided. The Young's Modulus of a certain material of definite geometry depends on material and geometry geometry only neither material nor geometry material only Two rods have the same geometry (length and cross-section), but made of different materials. One is made of steel (Y = 10 x 10¹0 Pa) while the other is made of rubber (Y= 0.005 x 1010 Pa). Which is more elastic? Osteel O same for both material O rubber

Answers

The center of gravity and the center of mass of an object coincide when the mass of the body is uniformly distributed and the gravitational field surrounding and within the body is uniform and the steel rod is more elastic than the rubber rod.

The center of gravity and the center of mass of an object coincide when certain conditions are met.

One of these conditions is that the mass of the body should be uniformly distributed.

This means that the mass is evenly distributed throughout the object, without any variations.

Additionally, the gravitational field surrounding and within the body should be uniform, meaning the strength of the gravitational force remains constant throughout the object.

Moving on to the Young's modulus, it is a measure of a material's stiffness or elasticity.

It determines how much a material will deform under stress.

The higher the Young's modulus, the stiffer or more elastic the material is. In the given scenario, the steel rod has a Young's modulus of 10 x 10¹⁰ Pa, while the rubber rod has a Young's modulus of 0.005 x 10¹⁰ Pa.

Comparing the Young's moduli of the two materials, we can see that the steel rod has a significantly higher value, indicating that it is more elastic or stiffer compared to the rubber rod.

This means that the steel rod will deform less under stress and exhibit greater elasticity than the rubber rod. Therefore, the steel rod is more elastic in this scenario.

In summary, the center of gravity and center of mass coincide under specific conditions, while the Young's modulus determines the elasticity of a material.

In the given scenario, the steel rod is more elastic than the rubber rod due to its higher Young's modulus.

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An athlete swings a 3.50−kg ball horizontally on the end of a rope. The ball moves in a circle of radius 0.820 m at an angular speed of 0.420rey/s. (a) What is the tangential speed of the bail? m/s (b) What is its centripetal acceleration? m/s 2
(c) If the maximum tension the rope can withstand before breaking is 81 N, what is the maximum tangential speed the ball can have? m/s

Answers

(a) The tangential speed of the ball can be calculated by multiplying the angular speed by the radius of the circle.  (b) The centripetal acceleration of the ball can be determined using the formula ac = ω²r, where ac is the centripetal acceleration, ω is the angular speed, and r is the radius of the circle. (c) The maximum tangential speed the ball can have is limited by the maximum tension the rope can withstand.

(a) The tangential speed of the ball can be calculated as v = ωr, where v is the tangential speed, ω is the angular speed, and r is the radius of the circle.

(b) The centripetal acceleration of the ball is given by ac = ω²r, where ac is the centripetal acceleration, ω is the angular speed, and r is the radius of the circle.

(c) To find the maximum tangential speed, we equate the centripetal force to the tension in the rope, using the formula Fc = mv²/r, where Fc is the centripetal force, m is the mass of the ball, v is the tangential speed, and r is the radius of the circle. We solve for v by substituting the maximum tension value and rearranging the equation.

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A horizontal power line carries a current of 4230 A from south to north. Earth's magnetic field (76.0μT) is directed toward the north and is inclined downward at 59.0° to the horizontal. Find the (a) magnitude and (b) direction of the magnetic force on 100 m of the line due to Earth's field.
(a) Number ___________ Units ________
(b) ______

Answers

Magnitude of the magnetic force due to Earth's field  is 320 N and  the direction of the magnetic force is westward.

The magnetic force (F) on a current-carrying wire of length l, carrying a current I in a magnetic field of strength B, can be expressed as:

F = B I l sin θ

where θ is the angle between the direction of the magnetic field and the wire.

θ = 59° (in the downward direction)

B = 76.0 μT = 76.0 × 10⁻⁶ TB = 76.0 × 10⁻⁶ TI = 4230 Al = 100 m

(a) Magnitude of the magnetic force:

F = B I l sin θ= (76.0 × 10⁻⁶) × (4230) × (100) × sin 59.0°= 320 N

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic force due to Earth's field is 320 N.

(b) Direction of the magnetic force:

As the magnetic field is directed toward the north and the current flows from south to north, the direction of the magnetic force can be determined using the right-hand rule. Place your right hand such that the thumb points towards the direction of the current, the fingers point towards the direction of the magnetic field, and the palm points towards the direction of the magnetic force. Therefore, the direction of the magnetic force is westward.

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic force is 320 N and  the direction of the magnetic force is westward.

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Analyze the operating principles and applications for any ONE (1) of the turbines listed below with appropriate sketches or diagrams: [Analisakan prinsip dan aplikasi operasi untuk mana-mana SATU (1) daripada turbin yang disenaraikan dihawah dengan lakaran atau gambar rajah yang sesuai:] (i) Kaplan turbine. [Turbin Kaplan.] (ii) Francis turbine. [Turbin Francis.] (iii) Pelton turbine. [Turbin Pelton.] (4 Marks/ Markah)

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Operating Principles: The Francis turbine is a type of reaction turbine used for converting the energy of flowing water into mechanical energy. It is specifically designed to operate with medium to high head and medium flow rates.

The key operating principles of the Francis turbine include:

1. Water Inlet: The water enters the turbine through a spiral-shaped casing known as the scroll case or volute. The scroll case gradually distributes the water uniformly around the circumference of the runner.

2. Runner: The runner consists of a set of curved blades or vanes that are fixed to a central hub. These blades are designed to efficiently harness the kinetic energy of the water and convert it into rotational mechanical energy.

3. Guide Vanes: The guide vanes are adjustable blades located in the casing just before the water enters the runner. They control the flow of water and direct it onto the runner blades at the desired angle, optimizing the turbine's performance.

4. Water Flow and Pressure: As the water passes through the runner blades, it undergoes a change in direction, creating a pressure difference across the blades. The pressure difference generates a force on the blades, causing them to rotate.

5. Shaft and Generator: The rotational motion of the runner is transmitted to a shaft connected to a generator. The generator converts the mechanical energy into electrical energy, which can be used for various applications.

Applications:

1.The Francis turbine is widely used in hydroelectric power plants due to its versatility and efficiency. It is suitable for both high head and medium head applications. Here are some of its applications:

2. Hydroelectric Power Generation: Francis turbines are commonly used in hydroelectric power plants to generate electricity. They are ideal for sites where the head of water is between 10 and 600 meters, and the flow rate is moderate.

3. Irrigation Systems: The Francis turbine can be employed in irrigation systems to drive pumps or lift water from a lower level to a higher level. It can efficiently harness the energy from water sources such as rivers, canals, or reservoirs.

4 .Pumped Storage Systems: In pumped storage power plants, excess electricity is used to pump water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir during periods of low demand. The Francis turbine is then used in reverse as a pump to release the stored water, generating electricity during peak demand periods.

5. Industrial Applications: Francis turbines can also be used in various industrial applications that require mechanical energy, such as powering large fans, compressors, or mills.

Overall, the Francis turbine is a versatile and efficient device used for converting the energy of flowing water into mechanical energy. Its adaptability to different head and flow conditions makes it a preferred choice for hydroelectric power generation and other water-driven applications.

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An adiabatic process is one in which i. no heat enters or leaves the system. ii. only mass is allowed crossing the boundary. iii. the temperature of the system changes. iv. the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone. O a. ii, iii and iv O b. i, ii, iii and iv O c. i, iii and iv O d. i, ii and iii

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An adiabatic process is one in which no heat enters or leaves the system, and the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done. Therefore, the correct answer is option c. I, iii, and iv.

An adiabatic process is characterized by the absence of heat transfer between the system and its surroundings. In other words, no heat enters or leaves the system during an adiabatic process

(i). However, this does not imply that only mass is allowed to cross the system boundary

(ii). Adiabatic processes can occur in both open and closed systems. Additionally, during an adiabatic process, the temperature of the system can change

(iii). This change in temperature is a result of the work done on or by the system. The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done (iv) because there is no heat transfer to account for. Thus, the correct answer is option c. I, iii, and iv.

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An alpha particle (q = +2e, m = 4.00 u) travels in a circular path of radius 4.49 cm in a uniform magnetic field with B = 1.47 T. Calculate (a) its speed, (b) its period of revolution, (c) its kinetic energy, and (d) the potential difference through which it would have to be accelerated to achieve this energy. (a) Number _____________ Units _____________
(b) Number _____________ Units _____________ (c) Number _____________ Units _____________ (d) Number _____________ Units _____________

Answers

(a) The speed of the alpha particle is 4.41 × 10⁵ m/s.

(b) The period of revolution of the alpha particle is 3.26 × 10⁻⁸ s.

(c) The kinetic energy of the alpha particle is 2.00 × 10⁻¹² J.

(d) The potential difference through which the alpha particle would have to be accelerated to achieve this energy is 6.25 × 10⁶ V.

Charge of alpha particle, q = +2e = +2 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C = +3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

Mass of alpha particle, m = 4.00 u = 4.00 × 1.66 × 10⁻²⁷ kg = 6.64 × 10⁻²⁷ kg

Radius of the path, r = 4.49 cm = 4.49 × 10⁻² m

Magnetic field, B = 1.47 T

(a) Speed of the alpha particle can be calculated using the formula

v = (qBr/m)

Here,

q = Charge on the particle,

B = Magnetic field,

r = radius of circular path,

m = Mass of the particle

Substituting the values, we get

v = (qBr/m)

 = [(+3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C) × (1.47 T) × (4.49 × 10⁻² m)] / (6.64 × 10⁻²⁷ kg)

 = 4.41 × 10⁵ m/s

Therefore, the speed of the alpha particle is 4.41 × 10⁵ m/s.

Number: 4.41 × 10⁵; Units: m/s

(b) The period of revolution of the alpha particle is given by

T = (2πr) / v

Substituting the values, we get

T = (2πr) / v

  = [(2π) × (4.49 × 10⁻² m)] / (4.41 × 10⁵ m/s)

  = 3.26 × 10⁻⁸ s

Therefore, the period of revolution of the alpha particle is 3.26 × 10⁻⁸ s.

Number: 3.26 × 10⁻⁸ ; Units: s

(c) Kinetic energy of the alpha particle is given by

K = (1/2) mv²

Substituting the values, we get

K = (1/2) mv²

  = (1/2) (6.64 × 10⁻²⁷ kg) (4.41 × 10⁵ m/s)²

  = 2.00 × 10⁻¹² J

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is 2.00 × 10⁻¹² J.

Number: 2.00 × 10⁻¹²; Units: J

(d) The potential difference through which the alpha particle would have to be accelerated to achieve this energy can be calculated using the formula

dV = K / q

Substituting the values, we get

dV = K / q

    = (2.00 × 10⁻¹² J) / (+3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)

    = 6.25 × 10⁶ V

Therefore, the potential difference through which the alpha particle would have to be accelerated to achieve this energy is 6.25 × 10⁶ V.

Number: 6.25 × 10⁶; Units: V

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Over time, deep-sea organisms have developed abilities and characteristics to cope with this deficiency. Some organisms have large mouths that enable them to catch what little food is available, while others make their own light, flashing on and off to attract prey. Recently discovered is a family of "yeti crabs," which have silky, hair-like filaments on their legs. These crabs live near hydrothermal vents. The chemicals seeping from the vents serve as an energy source for bacteria. Scientists believe that the crabs use their filaments to capture the bacteria, which provide them with nourishment.Do It!The creatures benefit from _________.A conservationistsB adaptationsC nearsightednessD domestication In September of 2021, Gustav and Iris moved from Montana to California for Gustav's job. For the California return, all qualified moving requirements were met. They paid $495 for a rental truck, $98 for gas for the rental truck, and $23 for packing materials to move their personal property to California. They also paid $220 for lodging on the way, $20 for tolls, and $59 for meals. Gustav and Iris are allowed to deduct moving expenses on their California return in what amount?$636$743$856$915 Assembly-line-balancing requires the use of rules or heuristics to assign tasks to workstations. A common heuristic is ___________.-largest number of following tasks -least task time -first-in, first-out -last-in, first-out Which of the following is consistent with an endothermic reaction that is spontaneous only at low temperatures? H>0,S>0,G According to Wilsons foreign policy, what constitutes a sufficient criterion for the U.S. to intervene in international events?a.If there was a moral imperativeb.All of the abovec.If there was a political imperatived.If there was an economic imperative Determine the largest interval in which the given initial value problem is certain to have a unique twice-differentiable solution. Do not attempt to find the solution. Interval: dx dt sin(t)- dx d Water flowing through a 2.1-cm-diameter pipe can fill Part A a 400 L bathtub in 5.1 min. What is the speed of the water in the pipe? Express your answer in meters per second. Air flows through the tube shown in (Figure 1) at a rate of PartA 1300 cm 3/s. Assume that air is an ideal fluid. The density of mercury is 13600 kg/m 3and the density of air is 1.20 kg/m 3What is the height h of mercury in the right side of the U-tube? Suppose that d 1=2.2 cm and d 2=5.0 mm. Express your answer with the appropriate units. Previous Answers Requestanswer Mincorrect; Try Again Hume claims that all the materials of thinking are provided by O a sense and experience. O b. God. O c. innate ideas. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 6.0. The refrigerator's compressor uses 105 W of electric power and is 95% efficient at converting electric power into work. Part A By what factor does the rms speed of a molecule change if the temperature is increased from 18C to 1000 C? Express your answer using two significant figures. Part B What is the rate at which heat energy is exhausted into the room? Express your answer with the appropriate units. What is an "argument" in Critical Thinking? Explain your answer with an example. Your answer should be 100 words at minimum. (10 marks) An infinite short 1V pulse ( at the signal generator) is sent down a 50 ohm transmission line. The source is matched to the line with 50 ohm between the signal generator and line. The other end of the TX-line is left open. After the pulse has reflected and returned to the source, what will the amplitude of the pulse be?. Part 3.a. What mineral changes would occur, [ Select ] ["Andalusite", "sillimanite", "kyanite"]and at what temperature C [ Select ] ["840", "570", "460"] and pressure,kbar [ Select ] ["4.8", "5.8", "2.7"]if Rock A experienced a drop in pressure to 1.5 kbar without a change in temperature? Parker has 12 blue marbles. Richard has 34 of the number of blue marbles that Parker has.Part AExplain how you know that Parker has more blue marbles than Richard without completing the multiplication.Enter equal to, greater than, or less than in each box.Multiplying a whole number by a fraction less than 1 results in a product that is the original whole number.Part BHow many blue marbles does Richard have? Enter your answer in the box. blue marbles