Plz, solve this teacher put this on worksheet help!!

Answer:

2hours  = 13 games 12 divided by 2

 13

x 6

--------

78

joseph plays 78 matches of among us a day

Answer:

0.125, 0.375, 0.375, 0.125

Step-by-step explanation:

For a binomial distribution :

nCk * p^k * (1 – p)^(n – k)

P(0 successes) = 0 head, k = 0

n = 3 = number of flips

P(success) = 0.5

3C0 * 0.5^0 * 0.5^3

1 * 0.5^0 * 0.5^3 = 0.125

P( 1 success) = 1 head, k = 1

n = 3 = number of flips

P(success) = 0.5

3C1 * 0.5^1 * 0.5^2

3 * 0.5^1 * 0.5^2 = 0.375

P(2 successes) = 2 head, k = 2

n = 3 = number of flips

P(success) = 0.5

3C2 * 0.5^2 * 0.5^1

3 * 0.5^2 * 0.5^1 = 0.375

P(3 successes) = 3 head, k = 3

n = 3 = number of flips

P(success) = 0.5

3C3 * 0.5^3 * 0.5^0

1 * 0.5^3 * 0.5^0 = 0.125

Answer:

0.125, 0.375, 0.375, 0.125

second part is 0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=41.2

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

x=41.2

Step-by-step explanation:

First, subtract 7.8 from both sides of the equation, resulting in x-18=23.2

Then, add 18 to both sides of the equation, creating x=41.2

Hope this helps.

Answer:

24 women's magazines

Step-by-step explanation:

50% = 0.5

48*0.5=24

Answer: The answer is that there are 24 women's magazines in the bookstore.

Step-by-step explanation: What is 50%? It is 1/2. So what is half of 48? 24.

Answer:

cant see it

Step-by-step explanation:

can you flip it pls

Answer:

Answer

3.0/5

8

hannahl52

Expert

1.4K answers

1.2M people helped

This is how you would determine the equation and solve the problem:

- First, it is important that you find how much each eraser cost. You do know that 66 erasers cost $6.60. So create an equation.

- The equation would be: 66/6.60

which means each eraser was 10 cents each

- Now you can create a equation that would determine the cost of 333 erasers since you know how much each eraser actually cost. The equation would be:

- .10×333=?

To create that equation all you need to do is multiply the price of the erasers (10 cents) by how many erasers you are buying (333).

Answer:

E

None of the above

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is 48

y=8x5+8

Answer:

[tex] \sqrt{3 \times 2 {?}^{2} } = \sqrt{12} = 3.46[/tex]

Answer: 118.91 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, we are informed that the average yearly rainfall in Lakeview is 21.62 inches.

To calculate the total amount of rainfall in inches, in Lakeview in 5.5 years, we multiply 21.62 by 5.5. This will be:

= 21.62inches × 5.5

= 118.91 inches

Answer:

Option (3)

Step-by-step explanation:

w = [tex]\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}[\text{cos}(225) + i\text{sin}(225)][/tex]

Since, cos(225) = cos(180 + 45)

                          = -cos(45) [Since, cos(180 + θ) = -cosθ]

                          = -[tex]\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}[/tex]

sin(225) = sin(180 + 45)

             = -sin(45)

             = -[tex]\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}[/tex]

Therefore, w = [tex]\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}[-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}+i(-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})][/tex]

                      = [tex]-\frac{2}{4}(1+i)[/tex]

                      = [tex]-\frac{1}{2}(1+i)[/tex]

z = 1[cos(60) + i(sin(60)]

  = [tex][\frac{1}{2}+i(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2})[/tex]

  = [tex]\frac{1}{2}(1+i\sqrt{3})[/tex]

Now (w + z) = [tex]-\frac{1}{2}(1+i)+\frac{1}{2}(1+i\sqrt{3})[/tex]

                   = [tex]-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{i}{2}+\frac{1}{2}+i\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}[/tex]

                   = [tex]\frac{(i\sqrt{3}-i)}{2}[/tex]

                   = [tex]\frac{(\sqrt{3}-1)i}{2}[/tex]

Therefore, Option (3) will be the correct option.

Answer:

Approximately 50% of the Apple computers can be used for editing movies.

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, you can use a rule of three to find the percent that represent the 7 computers that have the specialized movie editing software given that there are 14 Apple computers which represents 100%:

14 → 100%

7   →   x

x=(7*100)/14=50%

According to this, the answer is that approximately 50% of the Apple computers can be used for editing movies.

Answer:

26 5/32 in. or 2 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we are taking into account 1/8in for each saw cut the total length of the 4 pieces of wood will be 3/8in less than the single long piece (3 cuts * 1/8).

Let's first convert the piece of wood to inches:

8 3/4ft = 8.75ft

8.75 ft *(12in./1ft) => 8.75 *12= 105 inches

Now we can subtract the 3/8in that will be lost from making 3 cuts:

105in. - 3/8in. = 104 5/8in.

So the total length of the 4 pieces of wood will be 104 5/8in.

Therefore, each piece will be (104 5/8in)/4 in length.

First let's convert 104 5/8in. to an improper fraction to make it easier to work with:

104 5/8in. = (104*8 + 5)/8in.

=837/8in.

Now we can divide this by 4 to get the length of each piece of wood:

(837/8in.)/4 is the same as (837/8in.)*(1/4)

Multiply numerators together, and multiply the denominators together:

(837/8in.)*(1/4) = 837/32in.

Convert back to a mixed number if needed:

837/32in.= 26 5/32in. or 2ft, 2 5/32in.

Given :

∆GHI is an isosceles triangle with a vertex angle H.

m∠H=80°

To Find :

The m∠I.

Solution :

Since, H is the vertex angle.

So, m∠I = m∠G = x

We know, by angle sum property of triangle :

m∠I + m∠G + m∠H = 180°

2x + 80° = 180°

x = 50°

Therefore, m∠I = 50° .

Answer:

the answer is actually 75 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

because i know okayyy ima math wiz u cant tell me noda honey

good job high five

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

4 1/2 = 9/2=18/4

(18/4)/(3/4)=18/3=6

so she need 6 bags

Answer: All of the trianges in this problem set are congruent

Answer:

$7,718

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Cost of car in 2007 = $34000

Cost of car in 2014 = $16200

Predicted value of car in 2021

Lets obtain the percentage Depreciation (d) :

Worth (A) of car in 2014 = $16200

Time (t) = 2014 - 2007 = 7 years

Initial cost (I) = price in 2007

A = I(1 - d/100)^7

16200 = 34000( 1 - d/100)^7

16200 = 34000(1 - 0.01d)^7

(16200/34000)^1/7= 1 - 0.01d

0.8995 = 1 - 0.01d

0.01d = 1 - 0.8995

d = 0.1005 /0.01

d = 10.05

Value of car in year 2021:

t = 2021 - 2007 = 14 years

A = I(1 - 10.05/100)^14

A = 34000(1 - 0.1005)^14

A = 34000(0.8995)^14

A = 34000 * 0.2269950

A =7717.83100

Approximate worth = $7718

Answer: 7719

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x^5

Step-by-step explanation

If this is dividing exponents, you just subtract the denominator from the numerator.

Answer:

I got negative 7 if that helps.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

4 + 2i

4 + 2 = 6

hope its helpful

Answer:

1/24

Step-by-step explanation:

Debbie cut a cord into 6 places and use five pieces to make a necklace.

i.e.

5/6 was used to make a necklace and we have 1/6 remaining cord.

However, the remaining cord was used for each of the four bracelets.

i.e.

(1/6) ÷ 4

(1/6) *(1/4) = 1/24

Thus, the fraction of the original cord that Debbie used to make this bracelets = 1/24

Answer:

676

Step-by-step explanation:

d1×d2/2

42×56/2

1352/2=676

please check it by doing again

Answer:

1176

Step-by-step explanation:

=a half the product of its diagonals

=1/2(42x56)

=1176

Answer:

3z+15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3z+15

Step-by-step explanation:

By using the distributive property of equality you can distribute the 3 into the parenthesis to find that 3 times z is 3z and 3 times 5 is 15 so 3z+15

Answer:

9/8 or 1.125

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope this helps :)

Answer:

Opt B

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4 plus 1/8

4 goes into 8 two times

1/8 stays the same

for 3/4 multiply the numerator and denominator by 2

6/8

The inverse of the function is f(x) = 8x – 3 and g ( x ) = x + 3/8. The correct option is B.

A function in mathematics set up a relationship between the dependent variable and independent variable. on changing the value of the independent variable the value of the dependent variable also changes.

The inverse function of a function f in mathematics is a function that reverses the operation of f. If and only if f is bijective, then the inverse of f exists, and if it exists.

The inverse of the function is given by,

f(x) = 8x – 3 and g ( x ) = x + 3/8

The inverse of the function is calculated by dividing the function by the coefficient of x and reversing the sign of the function.

f(x) = 8x – 3

Divide the function by 8.

f(x) = ( 8x - 3 ) / 8

Reverse the sign of the function.

f(x) = ( 8x + 3 ) / 8

Simplify the function.

f(x) = ( x + 3 / 8 ).

Therefore,  the inverse of the function is f(x) = 8x – 3 and g ( x ) = x + 3/8. The correct option is B.

To know more about function follow

https://brainly.com/question/2833285

#SPJ5

Answer:

The absolute value.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The absolute value

Step-by-step explanation:

The absolute value removes the negative sign and gives the distance from zero to the number

Answer:

-9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a and c

Step-by-step explanation:

i like froggy :)))))))

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

it doesnt

run through the origin