Please someone help me.

what happen is there is a glitch probably

yes this is what happened to me. if u get too far behind they will change the due dates to your "pace" and make it easier for you.

Answer:

one and a quarter mile

please can i have brainliest

Answer:

21 millimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

ummmm yes

Answer:

The value of R is 0.7482.

Step-by-step explanation:

X Values

∑ = 35

Mean = 5

∑(X - Mx)2 = SSx = 68

Y Values

∑ = 34

Mean = 4.857

∑(Y - My)2 = SSy = 50.857

X and Y Combined

N = 7

∑(X - Mx)(Y - My) = 44

R Calculation

r = ∑((X - My)(Y - Mx)) / √((SSx)(SSy))

r = 44 / √((68)(50.857)) = 0.7482

r = 0.7482

Sorry if I get this wrong Because not for sure how you need the awnsers I dont know if this is the right way

Mx: 5.000

My: 4.857

Sum: 68.000

Sum: 50.857

sum: 44.000

X Values

∑ = 35

Mean = 5

∑(X - Mx)2 = SSx = 68

Y Values

∑ = 34

Mean = 4.857

∑(Y - My)2 = SSy = 50.857

X and Y Combined

N = 7

∑(X - Mx)(Y - My) = 44

R Calculation

r = ∑((X - My)(Y - Mx)) / √((SSx)(SSy))

r = 44 / √((68)(50.857)) = 0.7482

Meta Numerics (cross-check)

r = 0.7482

Answer:

x= 3

x= -9

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

(use math.way)

i am not quite sure but i believe it is c

Answer:

21 moats

Step-by-step explanation:

.70 x 30 = 21

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{1}{\pi}\approx0.318[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The velocity of an object moving on a line is given by the function:

[tex]\displaystyle v(t)=\frac{1}{\pi}+\sin(3t),\; \frac{\pi}{2}\leq x\leq\pi[/tex]

And we want to determine the velocity of the object when its acceleration is 3.

So, we will need to determine our acceleration function. Remember that acceleration is simply the derivative of speed. Therefore, our acceleration function a(t) will be:

[tex]\displaystyle a(t)=v^\prime(t)=\frac{d}{dt}[\frac{1}{\pi}+\sin(3t)][/tex]

Differentiate. We will use the chain rule on the second part. Hence, our acceleration function is:

[tex]\displaystyle a(t)=3\cos(3t)[/tex]

We want to find the velocity when the acceleration is 3.

So, let’s set a(t) equal to 3 and determine at what time t our function equals 3. Hence:

[tex]3=3\cos(3t)[/tex]

Divide both sides by 3:

[tex]\cos(3t)=1[/tex]

Take the inverse cosine of both sides.

Remember that cosine is 1 for every 2π. Hence:

[tex]3t=2\pi n[/tex]

Where n is an integer.

Divide both sides by 3. Therefore, our solutions are:

[tex]\displaystyle t=\frac{2\pi n}{3}[/tex]

However, our domain was π/2≤x≤π.

Hence, we can test values of n such that it is within our domain.

Testing for n=0, 1, and 2, we see that:

[tex]\displaystyle t=0, \, t=\frac{2\pi}{3},\, t=\frac{4\pi}{3}...[/tex]

However, the only solution that is within our domain is the second solution.

Hence, the acceleration is 3 when the t is 2π/3.

Therefore, our velocity at that time t is:

[tex]\begin{aligned}\displaystyle v(\frac{2\pi}{3})&=\frac{1}{\pi}+\sin(3(\frac{2\pi}{3}))\\ &=\frac{1}{\pi}+\sin(2\pi)\\&=\frac{1}{\pi}+0\\&=\frac{1}{\pi}\approx 0.318\end{aligned}[/tex]

Answer:

The 2016 season schedule has been announced and Texas is sure to have a cross-town rival with the Mesquite Marshals who are one of three expansion teams entering the CIF this year. The Marshals get to visit the Allen Event Center twice where the Revolution haven’t lost since 2014. Meanwhile, Texas will reciprocate the 2-2 series with two visits to the historic Mesquite Rodeo Arena in 2016, but will have to visit familiar foes in the Wichita Force and the Dodge City Law to maintain their championship figure.

Step-by-step explanation:

The 2016 season schedule has been announced and Texas is sure to have a cross-town rival with the Mesquite Marshals who are one of three expansion teams entering the CIF this year. The Marshals get to visit the Allen Event Center twice where the Revolution haven’t lost since 2014. Meanwhile, Texas will reciprocate the 2-2 series with two visits to the historic Mesquite Rodeo Arena in 2016, but will have to visit familiar foes in the Wichita Force and the Dodge City Law to maintain their championship figure.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

87.75-7.25=80.50

Answer:

A. 80.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4 + 8 / 2 * 3 = 18

4 + 8 = 12

12 / 2 = 6

6 * 3 = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

*Hope this helps*

Answer:

59

9/5(15)+32 =59

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

=to 50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The intensity of the 2011 earthquake was about 6 times the intensity of the 2003 earthquake.

Step-by-step explanation:

To compare the intensities, we first need to convert the magnitudes to intensities using the log formula. Then we will set up a ratio to compare the intensities.

Convert the magnitudes to intensities and write them in exponential form.

R=logI

2011 earthquake:

9.1I=logI=109.1

2003 earthquake:

8.3I=logI=108.3

Form a ratio of the intensities.

intensity for 2011intensity for 2003

Substitute in the values and divide by subtracting the exponents to find

109.1108.3100.8≈6.

The intensity of the 2011 earthquake was about 6 times the intensity of the 2003 earthquake.

Your answer:

The intensity of the 2011 earthquake was about 15 times the intensity of the 2003 earthquake.

The intensities of the two earthquakes will be 6.3095.

Algebra is the study of abstract symbols, while logic is the manipulation of all those ideas.

In 2011, Japan encountered a serious quake with an extent of 9.1 on the Richter scale. In 2003, Japan encountered another extraordinary seismic tremor that deliberate 8.3 on the Richter scale.

The intensity of the earthquake is given as,

㏒ (I₁ / I₂) = M₁ - M₂

㏒ (I₁ / I₂) = 9.1 - 8.3

Simplify the equation, then we have

㏒ (I₁ / I₂) = 9.1 - 8.3

㏒ (I₁ / I₂) = 0.8

Take anti log, then we have

(I₁ / I₂) = 6.3095

The intensities of the two earthquakes will be 6.3095.

More about the Algebra link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/953809

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Answer:

-42 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

-40-82=-42

Answer:

30,000

Step-by-step explanation:

If she gets all 50 at 600 per month, 50x600 is 30,000.

I hope this helped!

Answer:

A = 169cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A=169cm²

Or

A=26.2in²

or

A=0.18ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 / 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Number of white marbles = 5

Number of blue marbles = 3

Number of green marbles = 7

Required is the approximate probability of drawing 2 green marbles, Note that drawing is done without replacement :

Probability = required outcome / Total possible outcomes

Total possible outcomes = sum of all marbles = (5 + 3 + 7) = 15 marbles

First draw:

P(Green) = 7 / 15

Second draw:

Required outcome = 7 - 1 = 6

Possible outcomes = 15 - 1 = 14

P(green) = 6 / 14

Probability of drawing out two green marbles :

(7/15 * 6/14) = 42 / 210 = 1 / 5

Answer:

25 because is the steep between card

Answer:

32

I hope this helps

Answer:

the height it is at is 95 meters

Answer:

The answer is =4d+11x

Step-by-step explanation:

8x + 9d + 3x -5d

=9d-5d+8x+3x

=4d+11x

Answer:

putting in arranged and sum the like terms

8x+3x+9d-5d

11x+4d

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

4(5+6g)

4*5+4*6g

20+24g

The equivalent expression for the given expression is 4(5+6g). Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

The given expression is 20+24g.

Equivalent expressions are expressions that work the same even though they look different. If two algebraic expressions are equivalent, then the two expressions have the same value when we plug in the same value for the variable.

The given expression can be simplified as follows:

20+24g

= 4(5+6g)

The equivalent expression for the given expression is 4(5+6g). Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

To learn more about an equivalent expression visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28170201.

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Answer:

7 Seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Bruhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh

Answer:

It will take 7 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 7 because 10 multiplied by 7 is 70.

Answer:

Expected value = 7 x 0.9 = 6.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of getting a good apple is 18/20 = 0.9

Probability of getting a bad apple is 2/20 = 0.1

This follows a binomial distribution because either you get a good apple or a bad apple.

The expected value of a binomial distribution is given as n*p where n is number of trials and p is the probability of success.

In this case our number of trials is 7 and the probability of success is 0.9, since the trials are for getting good apples.

Hence

n = 7

p = 0.9

Expected value = 7 x 0.9 = 6.3