Please help it due today at 11:59pm 6 minutes left plz help me anybody plz

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

In that question, when it is asking for f(x), think of f(x) = y

When you look at x = -1, the y value is 1.

Answer:

multiplicative inverse of 0.13 is -100/30

The required inverse of 0.13 is 1 / 0.13.

Given that,
To find the multiplicative inverse of 0.13.

In mathematics, it deals with numbers of operations according to the statements. There are four major arithmetic operators, addition, subtraction, multiplication and division,

The inverse of the particular number is that number when it is multiplied by the number that gives the unit. i.e. ab = 1

Here,
Let the required multiplicative inverse be x,
The product of a number and its multiplicative inverse is equal to 1
So,
0.13*x = 1
x = 1 / 0.13

Thus, the required inverse of 0.13 is 1 / 0.13.

Learn more about arithmetic here:

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Answer:

b. 9/50

Step-by-step explanation:

•the probability of the selected flight arriving on time: 820/1000 = 0.82

•find the probability of the flights not being selected by subtracting 0.82 from 1.00: 1.00-0.82=0.18

•now you look for the answer that equals to 0.18

50/1 =50 nope

9/50 =0.18 yes

41/50 =0.82 nope

1/4 = 0.25 nope

Answer:

Yes, they are coterminal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Coterminal angles are angles that are in multiples of -360 degrees or +360 degrees away from the initial angle.

Therefore, the easiest way to check if an angle is coterminal is set up an equation.

[tex]x + 117 = 477\\\\360 + 117 = 477\\\\477 = 477 \ \checkmark[/tex]

We get a true statement, which means that 117 is a coterminal angle of 477 and 477 is a coterminal angle of 117.

We can also determine the value in radians.

[tex]\displaystyle117 \times \frac{\pi}{180}\\\\\frac{117\pi}{180} = \frac{13\pi}{20}[/tex]

117° in radians is [tex]\displaystyle\frac{13\pi}{20}[/tex]. Coterminal angles for radians are multiples of [tex]2\pi[/tex], either negative or positive.

However, we also need to determine the value of 477 in radians too.

[tex]\displaystyle477\times\frac{\pi}{180}\\\\\frac{477\pi}{180} = \frac{53\pi}{20}[/tex]

So, if we add [tex]2\pi[/tex] to [tex]\frac{13\pi}{20}[/tex]:

[tex]\displaystyle\frac{13\pi}{20} + 2\pi\\\\\frac{13\pi}{20} + \frac{40\pi}{20} = \frac{53\pi}{20}[/tex]

Therefore, even in radians, 477° is an angle coterminal to 117°.

You are given 117°.

To find angles that are coterminal with 117°, we do the following:

117° + 360° = 477°

117° - 360° = 243°

As you can see, when we added 117° to 360°, we got 477°.

To answer your question, YES.

You now know that 117° and 477° are coterminal angles.

Keep in mind that 477° is not the only coterminal angle to 117°.

Answer: n = -6

Step-by-step explanation:

3n+14=-4

Subtract 14 from both sides.

3n+14-14=-4-14

Simplify

3n=-18

Divide both sides by 3

3n/3 = -18/3

n=-6

Answer:

Following are the solution to this question:

Step-by-step explanation:

C'(t) was its time, in years, or t shift of cash per unit. That C'(1980) meaning, therefore, becomes the change of cashier's population to t = 1980.  

They could either use t = 1970 or t = 1990 to approximate the C'(1980) price. When using t = 1970:

[tex]C'(1980) = \frac{[C(1980) - C(1970)]}{[1980 - 1970]}\\\\[/tex]

              [tex]= \frac{(571 - 265)}{10}\\\\ = \$ \ 30.6 \\[/tex]

t = 1990:

[tex]C'(1980) = \frac{[C(1980) - C(1990)]}{[1980 - 1990]}[/tex]

              [tex]= \frac{(571 - 1063)}{ -10} \\\\= \$ \ 49.2[/tex]

Well, the only absolute value of -8 is 8.

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

Any absolute value of a negative, is the same number but in positive form.

Ex : I-6I = +6

Answer:

12x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

x=0 because it is

Answer:

x = 0 x = -10

Step-by-step explanation:

First, use the AC method to figure out, what times what equals 0 and what adds up to equal 10, which would be 0 and 10.

Secondly, you would factor it out and be with

(x + 0)(x +10)=0

Third, you would set each one equal to 0

x + 10 = 0 x + 0 = 0

Solve from there to get your two x's

x = 0 and x = -10

Answer:

Future value is $1543.12

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, present value = $200, rate = 10%, years = 6.

So that future value of ordinary annuity can be calculated by,

FV = [tex]\frac{A{[(1+r)^{n} - 1]}}{r}[/tex]

where: FV is the future value, A is the annuity, r is the rate, and n is the number of years.

FV = [tex]\frac{200[(1+0.1)^{6}-1] }{0.1}[/tex]

    = [tex]\frac{200[1.1^{6}- 1] }{0.1}[/tex]

    = [tex]\frac{200*0.771561}{0.1}[/tex]

    = [tex]\frac{154.3122}{0.1}[/tex]

FV = $1543.122  

The future value of the ordinary annuity is $1543.12.

Answer:

it means when x =0

so 6*0+12y=60

12y=60

y=5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

In y intercept x = 0

so,we replace 0 in place of x

Step-by-step explanation:

6*0+12y=60

0+12y=60

y=60/12

y=5

Answer:

X=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

option 2. mean is larger than median.

Step-by-step explanation:

mean of the set = ( 88+81+93+85+98)/5

= 445/5

= 89

median of the set = 88

the mean of the set is greater than the median.

Answer:

1.66666666666666666666everlasting 6s

Step-by-step explanation:

250/150

5/3 ( divide by 50)

1 2/3 ( mixed

1.66666666667.everlasting 6s

Hope this helps :D

Answer:

1.666......

( 1.6 recurring).

Step-by-step explanation:

As both numbers are multiples of 10 it makes it a bit easier to divide both by 10 to give 25 and 15. This will give the same result as 250/150.

Now do a long division , 25 divided by 15:

        1 .66                    <-----------  25 / 15 = 1 .  1*15 goes below the 25.

    -------------------------

15 ) 25.0

       15      <---------- subtract 25 - 15 = 10

        100 <- bring down the zero(after the decimal point) & append to 10

          90 <  15 divides into 100 6 times to give 90 . Place 6 above line.

           100   < subtract 100 - 90 to give 10 then add 0

             90 < as before 100/15 = 6  to give 6*15 = 90

If you carry on as above you'll see that we get 1.6666...  and we could go on for ever. This is a recurring decimal and is usually written as 1.6 with a bar above the 6.

Answer:

4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8.5

Step-by-step explanation:

tan⁡θ=opp/adj

tan 66° = 19/x

xtan66° = 19

x = 19/ tan 66° = 8.45

Answer:

(n+10)+9

{(n+10)+9}/2

[{(n+10)+9}/2]-5

All you have to do is follow the steps!

Think of a number - n

Add 10 - n + 10

Add the number you were thinking of - n + 10 + n

Divide by 2 - (n + 10 + n) / 2

Subtract 5 - ((n + 10 + n) / 2) -5

It may look hard, but its not as hard as you think. All you need to do is follow the steps!

Answer: No

Step-by-step explanation:

First add the 48.75 and 18.30 together.

second multiply 5.50 by 9

she would only earn 49.50 so she won’t be able to buy the bike and helmet

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{\frac{3x}{3} } + \frac{10}{109} x[/tex]

Step by step:

[tex]\sqrt{x-\frac{3}{7}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{49x-21}{7} }[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{\frac{49x-21}{7} }[/tex] ÷ 12x+7=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{7x-3x}{12}} + 7[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{\frac{7x-3x}{12}} + 7[/tex] ÷ 76.3x = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{3x}{3} } + \frac{10}{109} x[/tex]

Hope this helps!

Answer:

10 teams, 2 students would be left out I think.

Hope this helped :)

Answer:

12.4 feet per second

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

P(X > 0.418) = 0.27425

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

Population mean; μ = 0.4 inch

Variance; Var = 0.0009

Sample mean; x¯ = 0.418

First of all let's get the standard deviation which is;

σ = √Var

σ = √0.0009

σ = 0.03

Now, z - score formula is;

z = (x¯ - μ)/σ

z = (0.418 - 0.4)/0.03

z = 0.6

We want to find the probability that the diameter of a randomly selected pipe will exceed 0.418 inch. Thus;

P(X > 0.418) = 1 - P(X ≤ 0.418)

From z-distribution table attached, P(X ≤ 0.418) = P(Z) = 0.72575

Thus;

P(X > 0.418) = 1 - 0.72575

P(X > 0.418) = 0.27425

Answer:

14,460.

Step-by-step explanation:

14,456 up by 4. anything 6 or above goes up. the tenth place is the second to last number.

Answer: x=0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution of the linear equation 72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015 will be 0.03.

The allocation of weights to the important variables that produce the calculation's optimum is referred to as a direct consequence.

A connection between a number of variables results in a linear model when a graph is displayed. The variable will have a degree of one.

The linear equation with one variable is given as,

72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015

Simplify the equation, then the value of 'x' is given as,

72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015

x ÷ 72 = 0.015 ÷ 36

x / 72 = 0.015 / 36

x / 2 = 0.015

x = 0.03

The solution of the linear equation 72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015 will be 0.03.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.0077

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information;

Each outcome possesses the same probability of 1/6 in a single roll.

The required probability can be estimated by using the multinomial distribution;

Therefore;

[tex]P = \dfrac{5!}{2!\times 1!\times 1!\times\times 1! }\times (\dfrac{1}{6})^2\times (\dfrac{1}{6})\times (\dfrac{1}{6})\times (\dfrac{1}{6})[/tex]

[tex]P = 60\times (\dfrac{1}{36})\times\dfrac{1}{216}[/tex]

P = 0.0077

The required probability = 0.0077     to 4 decimal decimals

Answer:

1539.38cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

V=πr2h=π·72·10≈1539.3804cm³

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

well if you multiply each of tjem you would only sabe money on c the other choices would cause you to lose money so its c