patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions. each replacement drug has lipase, protease, and amylase components, but the drug is prescribed in units of:

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Answer 1

Patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions each replacement drug has amylase, lipase and protease components, however the drug is prescribed in units of lipase.

Cystic fibrosis is a condition that causes damage to your lungs, digestive tract, and other organs. It is an inherited disease caused by a faulty gene that can be passed down through generations. Cystic fibrosis affects the cells responsible for the production of mucus, sweat, and digestive juices.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disease that runs in families. It is caused by a faulty gene that causes the body to produce abnormally thick and sticky mucus. This mucus accumulates in the lungs' and pancreas' breathing passages.

Cystic fibrosis can cause such severe damage to lung tissue that it no longer functions. Lung function typically deteriorates gradually and can eventually become life-threatening. The most common cause of death is respiratory failure.

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a nurse is caring for a client with dementia. a family member of the client asks what the most common cause of dementia is. which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

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The most common cause of dementia in the elderly is Alzheimer's disease.

Assist patients with self-care including daily activities such as hygiene eating toileting and exercising. Offer to patients with significant cognitive impairment or motor deficits in these daily activities. Try to be kind to your friends and have them open up. Let her know you are there for her without being intrusive or pushy.

Alzheimer's disease accounts for 60-80% of cases. Vascular dementia is caused by microscopic hemorrhages and blocked blood vessels in the brain. If your friend doesn't tell you about a family member's diagnosis of dementia, be careful not to take it personally. Create simple routines for bathing dressing and other activities.

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a client with alzheimer's disease is admitted for hip surgery after falling and fracturing the right hip. the client's spouse tells the nurse about feeling guilty for letting the accident happen and reports not sleeping well lately because the spouse has been getting up at night and doing odd things. which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the client's spouse?

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Risk for caregiver role strain related to increased client care needs.

Give a brief description of Alzheimer's disease.

As far as dementia goes, Alzheimer's disease is the most prevalent. The disease is gradual, starting with mild memory loss and potentially progressing to the loss of communication and environmental awareness. The brain regions that are responsible for thought, memory, and language are affected by Alzheimer's disease.

Hence the answer is a risk for caregiver role strain related to increased client care needs.

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a client undergoes renal angiography. which postprocedure care intervention should the nurse provide to the client? encourage the client to void. monitor the client for signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis. palpate the pulses in the legs and feet. assess for signs of electrolyte and water imbalances.

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To take a look at for signs of arterial occlusion in a customer who has gone through renal angiography, the nurse have to palpate the pulses within the legs and feet.

At the same time as getting ready the patron for renal angiography, the nurse asks the client to void. The nurse assesses for signs and symptoms of electrolyte and water imbalances at some stage in the bodily examination of a patron.

The nurse should screen for signs and symptoms and signs of pyelonephritis in a customer who has undergone retrograde pyelography.

An angiogram is a experiment that indicates blood waft thru arteries or veins, or through the heart, the use of X-rays, computed tomography angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. The blood vessels appear at the image after a assessment dye is injected into the blood, which lights up at the test anyplace it flows.

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an elite high school football player has been diagnosed with a shoulder dislocation. the client has been treated and is eager to resume his role on his team, stating that he is not experiencing pain. what should the nurse emphasize during health education?

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The significance of following the recommended treatment and rehabilitation program should be emphasized.

How should a nurse respond to injuries?

Patients who have sustained injuries while participating in sports frequently have a strong desire to resume their previous level of activity. It is important to emphasize adherence to the gradual return of activities after activity limitation. It is important to promote the use of analgesics when necessary, but analgesia is not always required in the absence of pain. If recovery is complete, there is probably no significant increase in the patient's risk of re-injury. Bleeding seldom occurs after a dislocation because of the healing process.

Hence, the answer is, the significance of following the recommended treatment and rehabilitation program is to be emphasized.

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pyridostigmine bromide is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. the nurse evaluates that the medication regimen is understood when the client makes which statement?

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The nurse is able to evaluate that the pyridostigmine bromide regimen is understood when the client makes the statement, "I need to set an alarm so I take the medication on time". The correct answer is B.

A late or missed dosage of the vital medication pyridostigmine might lead to fatal consequences for the respiratory and neuromuscular systems. Hence, patients should make sure pyridostigmine is taken on time. To avoid any potential gastrointestinal discomfort, pyridostigmine should be taken with a little amount of food.

Preparing the pulse before taking pyridostigmine is not essential. In contrast to hypertension, which is an indication of a cholinergic crisis, pyridostigmine may also produce hypotension.

This question should be provides with answer choices, which are as follows:

A. "I should take the medication on an empty stomach."B. "I should set an alarm so I take the medication on time."C. "I should take my pulse rate before taking the medication."D. "I should monitor for an increase in blood pressure after taking the medication."

The correct answer is B.

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a client who has a history of neurogenic bladder presents with fever, burning on urination, and suprapubic pain. what would the nurse suspect is the problem?

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Based on the symptoms of fever, burning on urination, and suprapubic pain, the nurse would suspect that the client may have a urinary tract infection (UTI).

What is UTI?

UTIs are common in individuals with neurogenic bladder, as the bladder may not empty completely, which can lead to a buildup of bacteria and an increased risk of infection. Other symptoms of a UTI may include frequent urination, an urgent need to urinate, and cloudy or foul-smelling urine. If the nurse suspects a UTI, they should report the symptoms to the healthcare provider and follow the prescribed treatment plan.

This may include antibiotics to treat the infection, as well as measures to manage the symptoms and prevent further complications.

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a client is told by the primary health care provider to take aluminum hydroxide as needed for heartburn. the nurse advises the client to watch for which common side effect of this medication?

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The nurse advises the client to watch for common side effect of this medication is constipation.

what is aluminium hydroxide?

Minerals like aluminium are found in nature. Antacids include aluminium hydroxide. Aluminum hydroxide is recommended over other options like sodium bicarbonate because Al (OH)3, being insoluble, does not raise the pH of the stomach over 7 and does not cause the stomach to secrete more acid as a result. Some examples of brand names are Alu-Cap, Aludrox, Gaviscon, or Pepsamar.

It reacts with the extra acid in the stomach to lessen how acidic the stomach's contents are, which may help with ulcer, heartburn, or dyspepsia symptoms. Due to the aluminium ions' inhibition of smooth muscle cell contractions in the gastrointestinal tract, which slows peristalsis and increases the time required for feces to move through the colon, such products can lead to constipation.

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case study ch 21 how might you quantify whether, in fact, a patient is or is not responding to an exercise regimen?

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One way to quantify whether a patient is responding to an exercise regimen is to measure their performance over time.

What do you mean by an exercise regimen?

An exercise regimen is a set of exercises that someone follows on a regular basis in order to improve their physical fitness. It usually involves a combination of aerobic, strength, and flexibility exercises that are tailored to the individual's goals and abilities.

The quantification regarding the patient could include using of metrics such as heart rate, peak oxygen consumption, and power output. These metrics can be tracked over time to assess the patient’s progress and whether they are responding to the exercise regimen. Other metrics such as body composition, physical strength, and flexibility can also be used to measure progress and determine whether a patient is responding to an exercise regimen.

Finally, subjective measures such as self-reported fatigue levels, pain ratings, and quality of life can be used to assess how well a patient is responding to an exercise regimen.

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a client comes to the postoperative area and reports chest pain and palpitations. what priority intervention(s) will the nurse perform? select all that apply.

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The priority nursing intervention(s) the nurse will perform on a client who comes to the postoperative area and reports chest pain and palpitations are:

obtain vital signs, especially heart rate and blood pressureGive pain medication as prescribedAsk the client to rate pain on a scale from zero to ten

The correct option are A, B, and C.

What are palpitations?

Palpitation is the irregular beating of the heart that occurs in an individual making the individual feel that his or her heart is missing heartbeats, racing, or pounding.

After an operation or surgery, if a patient reports chest pain and palpitations, nursing interventions must be applied in order to stabilize the condition of the patient.

The most important nursing interventions would include the following;

check for the vital signs of the patient

make sure that the prescribed medications are taken as prescribed.

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Complete question:

A client comes to the postoperative area and reports chest pain and palpitations. What priority intervention(s) will the nurse perform? Select all that apply.

Obtain vital signs, especially heart rate and blood pressure

Give pain medication as prescribed

Ask the client to rate pain on a scale from zero to ten

Review prior medical history

a 72-year-old patient has been admitted with kidney failure and is receiving iv fluids. during the morning assessment, the nurse observes dyspnea, lethargy, a weak, rapid pulse, and ankle edema. which complication does the nurse suspect?

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The complication, the nurse suspect is about circulatory overload.

What causes kidney failure?

The two main factors that lead to renal failure are high blood pressure and diabetes. They may also suffer harm as a result of illnesses, diseases, or other ailments.

When your kidneys abruptly lose the ability to remove waste from your blood, you experience acute renal failure. A harmful buildup of waste products and an unbalanced chemical composition of your blood may result from your kidneys losing their filtering capacity.

Therefore, The complication, the nurse suspect is about circulatory overload.

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the nurse teaches the client to perform isometric exercises to strengthen the leg muscles after arthroplasty. isometric exercises are particularly effective for clients with rheumatoid arthritis because they:

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Because they build muscle while keeping the joints still, isometric workouts are especially useful for those with rheumatoid arthritis.

What is isometric exercises?

Isometric exercises include contracting (tightening) a specific muscle or group of muscles. During isometric exercises, the muscle's length does not appreciably change. Furthermore, the injured joint is immovable. Isometric exercises assist in maintaining strength. They can also boost strength, while being useless. Additionally, they can be done anywhere. Examples include a plank or a leg lift.

Because they are carried out in a single posture without any mobility, isometric exercises only improve strength in a single position. You would need to exercise your limb in isometric fashion frequently to improve muscular strength throughout the range.

Isometric exercises may help someone with an injury who finds mobility painful. For instance, if you have a rotator cuff injury, a doctor or physical therapist would suggest that you undergo isometric exercises.

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which nonpharmacologic interventions should the nurse implement to provide the most effective response in decreasing procedural pain in a neonate?

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The nurse should implement non-pharmacologic interventions like oral sucrose and non-nutritive sucking to most effectively decrease procedural pain in a neonate.

What is a non-pharmacologic intervention?

A non-pharmacological intervention (NPI) is any sort of intervention that does not directly involve medication and aims to optimally meet the healthcare needs of a complex patient or manage their pain or chronic illness better.

Studies of non-pharmacologic interventions for pain in the newborn have most often shown that oral sucrose delivery and nonnutritive sucking, such as the use of a pacifier, are beneficial in lowering objective signs of pain following an invasive procedure in a neonate.

Hence, the nurse should implement non-pharmacologic interventions like oral sucrose and non-nutritive sucking to most effectively decrease procedural pain in a neonate.

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The nurse should implement non-pharmacologic interventions like oral sucrose and non-nutritive sucking to most effectively decrease procedural pain in a neonate.

What is a non-pharmacologic intervention?A non-pharmacological intervention (NPI) is any type of intervention that does not directly include medicine and tries to better manage a patient's pain or chronic condition or to ideally meet their healthcare needs.Studies on non-pharmacologic pain relief for newborns have most frequently demonstrated the effectiveness of oral sucrose delivery and nonnutritive sucking, such as using a pacifier, in reducing objective symptoms of pain in newborns who have undergone invasive procedures.Therefore, the nurse should use non-pharmacologic techniques like oral sucrose and non-nutritive sucking to reduce procedural pain in a newborn as effectively as possible.Any sort of health intervention that is not based primarily on medicine is referred to as a non-pharmaceutical intervention or non-pharmacological intervention. Examples include food modifications, exercise, and better sleep.

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a client with schizoaffective disorder is brought to the hospital by a family member. the family member states that the client is having an increase in auditory hallucinations and is becoming significantly more withdrawn. the nurse reviewing the admission blood work expects which blood level to be subtherapeutic?

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Anticholinergic agents and benzodiazepines are the most commonly used agents to reverse or reduce symptoms in acute dystonic reaction in schizoaffective disorder.

Schizoaffective disorder care is support them to get treatment or access a particular service. Keep them company if they are feeling anxious about going to something new, such as an appointment or activity. Encourage them to look after themselves if they are neglecting their general wellbeing or appearance. remind them to take any medication.

A combination of medication and psychotherapy is the best route for the effective treatment of schizoaffective disorder. The most common psychotherapy approaches include cognitive-behavioral therapy, psychoeducation, supportive therapy, and family involvement.

Antipsychotics are usually recommended as the initial treatment for the symptoms of an acute schizophrenic episode. They work by blocking the effect of the chemical dopamine on the brain.

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question 10 a n urse practitioner (np) is assessing an older adult client who has osteoporosis. which of the following spinal deformities should the nurse expect to find in this client? a. kyphosis b. lordosis c. ankylosis d. scoliosis

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Kyphosis is an angulation of the posterior curve of the thoracic spine and is typically brought on by osteoporosis. It is characterised by a forward "stooping" posture and a loss of height.

What is osteoporosis?Because of osteoporosis, bones become so fragile and weak that even minor stresses like coughing or bending over can break them. Hip, wrist, and spine fractures brought on by osteoporosis are the most frequent. Bone is a living tissue that undergoes continuous deterioration and replacement.Bone tissue is continuously absorbed by and replaced by the body. When someone has osteoporosis, the replacement of lost bone does not occur at the same rate. Until they suffer a bone fracture, many people don't experience any symptoms.Medication, a nutritious diet, and weight-bearing exercise are all part of the treatment plan to help prevent bone loss or strengthen existing brittle bones.Fractures caused by fragility. These happen when a wrist, back, hip, or other bone is fractured as a result of even a minor accident.

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Osteoporosis frequently causes kyphosis, which is an angulation of the posterior curve of the thoracic spine. It is distinguished by a forward "stooping" posture and a loss of height.

Describe osteoporosis.

Osteoporosis causes bones to deteriorate to the point where even mild stressors, such as coughing or bending over, can cause them to break. The most prevalent fractures caused by osteoporosis are those in the hip, wrist, and spine. Bone is a living tissue that constantly degrades and is replaced.

The body constantly absorbs and replaces bone tissue. When a person develops osteoporosis, the rate of bone regrowth is not constant. Many people do not exhibit any symptoms until they experience a bone fracture.

The treatment plan includes medication, a healthy diet, and weight-bearing activity to either stop bone loss or strengthen already brittle bones.

Fragility-related fractures: When a wrist, back, hip, or other bone is broken as a result of even a slight injury, these take place.

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a delivery room nurse collects data on a mother who just delivered a healthy newborn infant. the nurse checks the uterus to determine if the placenta has detached. which findings indicate to the nurse that placental detachment has occurred? select all that apply.

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Three distinct symptoms, including a surge of blood at the vagina, a lengthening of the umbilical cord, and a globular-shaped uterine fundus on palpation, indicate the separation of the placenta from the uterine interface.

Describe function of placenta.

During pregnancy, a temporary organ called the placenta develops in your uterus. Through the umbilical cord, it attaches to the uterine wall and supplies your baby with nutrients and oxygen.

Your baby's carbon dioxide and harmful waste are removed.

Creates hormones that support your baby's growth.

Gives your child your immunity.

Protects your infant.

When the fetus is delivered, the third stage of labor begins, and it ends when the placenta is delivered. It normally takes 5 to 30 minutes for the placenta to expel itself spontaneously. A postpartum hemorrhage risk is increased with deliveries taking longer than 30 minutes, which may need for manual removal or other intervention. In order to hasten placental delivery, the third stage of labor is managed by applying fundal pressure and traction to the umbilical cord.

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the lpn suspects that her coworker is abusing controlled substances. when the lpn checks the narcotic count record, she sees that the suspected nurse has frequently documented wasting liquid narcotic. which action is most appropriate for the lpn to take?

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Discuss her concerns and the evidence in question with the nursing supervisor.

What is the job of an LPN?

As part of a broader medical team, a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN), also known as a Licensed Vocational Nurse, is in charge of giving patients basic medical care and evaluating their well-being. They are responsible for monitoring vital signs, documenting medical histories, and assisting patients with cleanliness.

Hence the answer is to discuss her concerns and the evidence in question with the nursing supervisor.

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the nurse is reviewing a client's medication list before teaching the client about cipro, a new drug the health care provider has ordered. the nurse warns the client to avoid what until the client finishes the cipro?

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The new drug was given as 15mL after meals and before bed should be given by the nurse  to the client.

who was called as nurse ?

Only in the late 16th century did the word "nurse" acquire its current meaning of a person who looks for the elderly and infirm. The word "nurse" originally comes from the Latin word "nutrire," meaning to suckle, referring to a wet-nurse.

Most cultures have generated a steady stream of nurses who are committed to service based on religious ideals since ancient times. From their earliest days, both Christendom and the Muslim World produced a steady supply of devoted nurses. Prior to the development of modern nursing, Catholic nuns and the military frequently offered services akin to nursing throughout Europe. The profession of nursing did not become secular until the 19th century.

The new drug was given as 15mL after meals and before bed should be given by the nurse to the client.

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before attempting to deliver the placenta after a precipitate delivery, the nurse waits for which signs as an indication of placental separation? select all that apply.

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Before attempting to deliver the placenta after a precipitate delivery, the nurse waits for signs as an indication of placenta separation are – change in uterine shape, lengthening of the umbilical cord, sudden flow of dark blood.

The placenta is an organ that develops in the uterus throughout pregnancy. This structure provides oxygen and nutrition to a developing infant. Additionally, it rids the baby's blood of impurities. The placenta, which is anchored to the wall of the uterus throughout pregnancy, is where the baby's umbilical cord develops. Usually, the organ is attached to the front, back, side, or top of the uterus. The placenta may incredibly rarely attach in the uterine cavity below. A low-lying placenta is what is happening in this instance. The placenta's health during pregnancy may be impacted by a variety of factors. For illustration: age of mother. Some placental problems affect older people more frequently, especially after age 40. A break before you give birth in your water. Throughout pregnancy, the developing fetus is surrounded and cushioned by a membrane that is filled with fluid and is known as the amniotic sac. If the sac ruptures or leaks prior to the start of labor, which is commonly referred to as the water breaking, the placenta is more prone to experience some problems.

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You have just arrived for a 12-hour day shift in the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) in the small hospital where you work. You take report on Mr. Whiting. Mr. Whiting is a new admission, transferred from the Emergency Department (ED) a short time ago.At 3:00 AM this morning, Mr. Whiting awoke from sleep with chest pain. Pain was accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. He took Maalox without relief, then two of his wife's sublingual nitroglycerin tablets without relief (turns out they had expired). Mrs. Whiting finally called 911.Paramedics received Mr. Whiting at 5:30 AM in sinus tachycardia with a BP of 106/70. Mr. Whiting was alert, anxious, and diaphoretic, with pain rated as 10 out of 10.Paramedics initiated an IV of normal saline at the right antecubital fossa and administered two translingual sprays of nitroglycerin with a result of complete pain relief. SpO2 was 94% on room air. Oxygen was applied at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula, elevating Mr. Whiting's SpO2 to 98%.In transit, Mr. Whiting's chest pain returned. Another spray of nitroglycerin was administered, but this time pain was unrelieved. Paramedics then administered morphine IV for pain relief.

Answers

Paramedics received Mr. Whiting at 5:30 AM in sinus tachycardia with a BP of 106/70.

Mr. Whiting was awake, anxious, and diaphoretic, with a pain level of ten out of ten. The pain was completely relieved after paramedics started an IV of normal saline in the right antecubital fossa and administered two translingual sprays of nitroglycerin. On room air, SpO2 was 94%. Mr. Whiting's SpO2 was increased to 98% by administering oxygen through a nasal cannula at a rate of 2 liters per minute. Mr. Whiting's chest pain returned during the journey. Another nitroglycerin spray was administered, but the pain remained unrelieved. For pain relief, paramedics administered morphine IV.

Tachycardia, also known as tachyarrhythmia, is characterized by a heart rate that is faster than the normal resting rate. In adults, tachycardia is defined as a resting heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute. Above-resting heart rates can be normal (as during exercise) or abnormal (such as with electrical problems within the heart).

When the rate of blood flow becomes too fast, or when fast blood flow passes through damaged endothelium, the friction within vessels increases, resulting in turbulence and other disturbances. This is one of the three conditions that can lead to thrombosis, according to the Virchow's triad (i.e., blood clots within vessels).

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a client doesn't make eye contact with the nurse during an interview. the nurse suspects that the client's behavior has a cultural basis. what should the nurse do first?

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In this scenario, the action that should be first done by that nurse is to observe how the client and his family along with friends interact with each other and with other staff members.

What is the most important role of the nurse?

A nurse's duty is to administer holistic care and that may include addressing a patient's mental state. Not all registered nurses are prepared for psychiatric nursing, but they still have a responsibility to provide care for mentally ill patients and help them obtain treatment for psychological distress.

According to the scenario, the nurse would have to require to observe the behavior of the client towards his/her family members, friends, and other staff members in order to determine the actual fact behind lacking this eye contact toward herself.

Therefore, the action that should be first done by that nurse is to observe how the client and his family along with friends interact with each other and with other staff members.

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a healthcare system has implemented a functionality where patients who are overdue or almost due for a mammogram are sent letters notifying them to schedule a mammogram based on available data and current clinical care guidelines. which type of cds (clinical decision support) system is this?

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This cds (clinical decision support) system is the type of reminder system.

Reminder system in healthcare and notifications are among the main tools that care organizations use to support patients to accomplish important health tasks. These reminders area unit generally sent to individual patients to severally perform health tasks.

A mammogram is the X-ray of the breast. Doctors use a X-ray photograph to seem for early signs of carcinoma. "Mammograms area usually not painful. The compression will cause a touch discomfort, however I actually have not found a woman's breast size to play a task in the least." However, there ar alternative factors that might play a task. A woman's oscillation will build her breasts additional sensitive.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a rapid release of histamine on a large scale throughout the body. what is the client experiencing? anaphylaxis swelling pain redness

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The client is experiencing anaphylaxis.

A serious and even deadly allergic response is anaphylaxis. It might occur seconds or minutes after being exposed to an allergen, such as peanuts or bee stings, to which you are allergic. When the body's immune system, or natural defense system, overreacts to a trigger, anaphylaxis results. You occasionally get allergic to this, but not usually. Common food triggers for anaphylaxis include nuts, milk, fish, shellfish, eggs, and a variety of fruits.

A severe, sometimes fatal allergic reaction that involves the entire body, anaphylaxis is often referred to as allergic or anaphylactic shock. Breathing problems are brought on by the reaction's constriction of the airways. Swelling of the throat might, in dire circumstances, block the airway.

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a client with chronic kidney disease (ckd) has been receiving erythropoietin injections as prescribed. which outcome would indicate to the nurse that this medication has been effective? bowel movements solid and formed absence of pallor blood pressure within normal limits absence of a paradoxical pulse

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A client with chronic kidney disease has been receiving erythropoietin injections as prescribed. Erythropoietin is produced naturally within the body, more often than not via the kidneys.

Epoetin injection is a man-made version of human erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is produced evidently within the frame, in the main by way of the kidneys. It stimulates the bone marrow to provide crimson blood cells. If the body does no longer produce sufficient erythropoietin , severe anemia can arise.

Erythropoietin overproduction consequences in erythrocytosis. Erythropoietin deficiency is the primary purpose of the anaemia in persistent kidney sickness and a contributing factor inside the anaemias of chronic irritation and most cancers.

Your kidneys make an crucial hormone called erythropoietin. Hormones are chemical messengers that journey to tissues and organs to help you stay wholesome. Erythropoietin tells your frame to make red blood cells. if you have kidney disease, your kidneys cannot make enough EPO.

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what type of conditions are rarely (if ever) seen initially in the physician's office in metropolitan areas due to the presence of emergency medical services and hospital emergency rooms?

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The type of conditions that are rarely (if ever) seen initially in the physician's office in metropolitan areas due to the presence of emergency medical services and hospital emergency rooms is known as Emergent conditions.

What are emergency medical services?

Emergency medical services, also known as ambulance services or paramedic services, are described as emergency services that provide urgent pre-hospital treatment and stabilization for serious illness and injuries and transport to definitive care.

Emergency medical service must be delivered in the first few hours after the onset of an acute medical need.

Emergent condition can be described as  a medical condition that has resulted from the sudden onset of a health condition with acute symptoms of sufficient severity and in most cases might include sever pain which, in the absence of immediate medical attention, are reasonably likely to place the patient's health in serious jeopardy, result in serious health problems.

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a patient has had cataract extractions and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. what should the nurse encourage the patient to do at home?

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Avoid bending the head below the waist.

in which parts of the body should the nurse administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old infant?

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The vastus lateralis muscle in the anterolateral thigh

vinita, who is a new mother, asks her pediatrician when she should start her infant on solids. her pediatrician's recommendation would most likely be to start around:

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vinita, who is a new mother, asks her pediatrician when she should start her infant on solids. her pediatrician's recommendation would most likely be to start around: six months

Until they are 18, children under the care of a pediatrician get physical, behavioural, and emotional care. From minor health issues to serious diseases, paediatricians are trained to identify and treat a wide variety of childhood illnesses. A paediatrician is a physician who specialises in treating children, adolescents, and young adults. From the time a child is born until their 21st birthday or later, they receive paediatric care. Pediatricians deal with children's health, behavioural, and developmental problems by preventing, detecting, and treating them.

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An blank is an electronic data-sharing system that limits data sharing to a single facility, such as one particular hospital or clinic

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The speed, quality, safety, and cost of patient treatment are all increased by the electronic health information exchange (HIE), which enables physicians, nurses, pharmacists, as well as other healthcare professionals to securely connect and share a patient's critical medical information electronically.

What is the data management system a healthcare practitioner uses to digitally record all patient health information?

The paper chart of a patient is digitally replicated in an electronic health record (EHR). EHRs are patient-focused, actual records that make information instantaneously and securely accessible to authorized users.

Medical facilities, health information organizations—companies that oversee and regulate the exchange of this data—and governmental organizations can electronically exchange health-related data by following established national standards.

Therefore, A patient's medical history is preserved electronically in an electronic data-sharing, which may also contain all of the important administrative and clinical data.

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Answer: Intranet.

Explanation:

the nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about the physiological effects and hormone changes that occur in pregnancy. the woman asks the nurse about the purposes of estrogen. which responses would the nurse make to the client? select all that apply.

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It allows mucous membranes to get further blood, which enhances swelling and softening. It encourages bone development to be ready for nursing as well as uterine growth to offer a home for the embryo.

What about pregnancy?The period of time when the fertilized egg develops in the uterus after generality( the fertilization of an egg by a sperm).gravity lasts roughly 288 days in humans.When sperm enters the vagina, travels via the cervix and womb to the fallopian tube, where it fertilizes an egg, gravidity results.Around the time of your ovulation, you have a lower chance of getting pregnant.When an egg is ready and you are most rich, this is the time.Your gravidity weeks are counted starting on the first day of your last period.As a result, for the first two weeks or so, you are not truly pregnant; rather, your body is only getting ready for ovulation, which is the normal release of an egg from one of your ovaries.You may also induce spare fluid if your progesterone situations are advanced.Gestation is common for there to be an increase in discharge, but it's vital to cover it and let your croaker or midwife know if it changes in any way.It can be challenging to understand this at first, and multitudinous individualities are curious as to whether there are any symptoms in the first 72 hours of gravidity.Again, due to the way gravidity is determined, you won't have any gravidity- related symptoms during the first three days and potentially indeed the first three weeks.

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the nurse provides postoperative care 18 hours after a patient received a kidney during transplant surgery. which is an expected assessment finding for this patient during this stage of recovery? hesi

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An expected assessment finding for this patient during this stage of recovery is large urine output

What is meant by kidney transplantation?

When a patient with end-stage kidney disease receives a kidney transplant, it is referred to as a kidney or renal transplant. Depending on where the donor organ comes from, kidney transplantation is typically categorized as either living or deceased donor ,formerly known as cadaveric transplantation. End-stage renal disease (ESRD), regardless of the underlying cause, is a requirement for kidney transplantation. Lower than 15 ml/min/1.73 m2 glomerular filtration rate is considered to be this.

In the hours and days immediately following a kidney transplant, patients typically have diuresis (a substantial volume of urine production). Unexpected findings including hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and symptoms of infection call for quick action.

As soon as blood reaches the kidney's vessel, the kidneys begin to operate, which triggers the diuresis process. An indicator or metric for predicting the kidney transplant outcome is a big volume of urine on the first day following the transplant. According to a number of research, the initial 24-hour urine output (UOP1) volume falls between the ranges of 2 and 10 L.

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