Part (a): Create a discrete probability distribution using the generated data from the following simulator: Anderson, D. Bag of M&M simulator. New Jersey Factory. Click on the simulator to scramble the colors of the M&Ms. Next, add the image of your generated results to the following MS Word document: Discrete Probability Distributions Discrete Probability Distributions - Alternative Formats . Use the table in this document to record the frequency of each color. Then, compute the relative frequency for each color and include the results in the table.

Part (b): Compute the mean and standard deviation (using StatCrunch or the formulas) for the discrete random variable given in the table from part (a). Include your results in the MS Word document.

Part (c): Add a screenshot of the entire completed MS Word document to the discussion board as part of your discussion response (do NOT upload the MS Word document).

Part (d): Comment on your findings in your initial response and respond to at least 2 of your classmate’s findings.

Answer: 1.56 kilometers

Step-by-step explanation:

you multiply 520 by 3 because she ran for three days

so she ran 1560 meters

1000 meters= 1 kilometer

that makes it 1.56 kilometers

Answer:

6.

m1 : 61

m2 : 61

m3 : 29

7.

m1 : 87

m2 : 45

m3 : 45

m4 : 52

Answer: The other team is extra information. 150 – 60 = 90

He got 90 yards running.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You can't receive money if you withdraw in the midst of a year.

So 4000 * 1/25 * 2 = $4320

Answer:

A maior vantagem para mim é a barra de chocolate.

Step-by-step explanation:

Temos que encontrar o custo de 1 grama de ovo de Páscoa e barra de chocolate

Para o ovo de páscoa

Tenho um ovo de Páscoa que custa 24,99 e tem 185 gramas.

185 gramas = 24,99

1 grama = x

Multiplicação cruzada

185 gramas × x = 1 grama × 24,99

x = 1 grama × 24,99 / 185 gramas

x = 0,1612258065

Aproximadamente = 0,16

O custo de 1 grama de ovo de Páscoa = 0,15

Para a barra de chocolate

Também tenho uma barra de chocolate que custa 5,10 e tem 90 gramas.

90 gramas = 5,10

1 grama = x

Multiplicação cruzada

90 gramas × x = 1 grama × 5,10

x = 1 grama × 5,10 / 90 gramas

x = 0,0566666667

Aproximadamente = 0,06

O custo de 1 grama de barra de chocolate = 0,06

A maior vantagem para mim é a barra de chocolate.

Answer:

x = - 8, y = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x = - 4y......(1) \\ x + 5y = 2....(2) \\ plug \: x = - 4y \: in \: equation \: (2) \\ - 4y + 5y = 2 \\ y = 2 \\ plug \: y = 2 \: in \: equation \: (1) \\ x = - 4(2) \\ x = - 8\\[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]73[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]73=\sqrt{55^{2} +48^{2} }[/tex]

The solution an for the recurrence relation is given by the formula,an = (25/19)*(10)^n + (102/19)*(-9)^n for n > 1.

Given the recurrence relation,ao = 7, a1 = 8 and for n > 2 an = -20 x an-1-90 x an 2.

To find the solution, an, of the recurrence relation we need to follow the below steps.

Step 1:Find the general formula for the recurrence relation. We have an = -20 x an-1-90 x an 2. This is a second-order recurrence relation.

To solve a recurrence relation of this order, we assume the solution of the form an = r^n.Then substituting this value of an in the given relation we have r^n = -20r^(n-1) - 90r^(n-2).

Dividing both sides by r^(n-2), we have the characteristic equation r^2 = -20r - 90.On simplifying the above equation we get, r = 10 and r = -9.

Now, the general solution for an is given by, an = c1 * (10)^n + c2 * (-9)^n.

Step 2:Find the value of constants c1 and c2. We have a0 = 7 and a1 = 8.

Substituting n = 0 in the above general formula for an, we get c1 + c2 = 7.

 Substituting n = 1 in the above general formula for an, we get 10c1 - 9c2 = 8.

On solving the above two equations we get, c1 = (25)/19 and c2 = (102)/19.

Hence, the solution to the given recurrence relation is,an = (25/19)*(10)^n + (102/19)*(-9)^n.

The solution is valid for n > 1.

Therefore, the solution an for the recurrence relation is given by the formula,an = (25/19)*(10)^n + (102/19)*(-9)^n for n > 1. This is the required answer.

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Answer:

$5.41

Step-by-step explanation:

654 divided by 120.99=5.405... therefore the answer is $5.41

The exponential distribution applies to the lifetimes of a certain component. Its failure rate is unknown. The probability that the component will survive the past 5 years assumes:

(a) lambda=.5

Pr= 0.082

(b) lambda=0.9

Pr= 0.082

(c) lambda=1.1

Pr= 0.036

In the exponential distribution, the failure rate is a degree of the way fast the factor is expected to fail. It is regularly denoted through the parameter lambda (λ).

The opportunity that a thing will continue to exist beyond a positive time may be calculated using the exponential survival function, which is given by:

[tex]Pr(X > t) = e^(-λt)[/tex]

where X represents the random variable denoting the life of the thing, t is the specific time, and e is the bottom of the herbal logarithm.

Now let's calculate the possibilities for each case:

(a) lambda = 0.5, t = 5

Pr(X > 5) = [tex]e^(-0.5 * 5)[/tex] ≈ 0.082

In this example, with a lambda of 0.5, the element has a notably low failure price. The opportunity of the thing surviving beyond 5 years is about 0.082, or 8.2%.

(b) lambda = 0.9, t =5

Pr(X > 5) = [tex]e^(-0.9 * 5)[/tex] ≈ 0.082

With a lambda of 0.9, the issue has a slightly higher failure rate as compared to the previous case. The probability of the aspect surviving beyond 5 years stays at about 0.082, or 8.2%.

(c) lambda = 1.1, t = 5

Pr(X > five) = [tex]e^(-1.1 * 5)[/tex]≈ 0.036

In this situation, with a lambda of one.1, the factor has a better failure fee. The possibility of the element surviving beyond 5 years decreases to approximately 0.036, or 3.6%.

In precis, the possibility of a component surviving the past five years in an exponential distribution relies upon the failure price parameter lambda.

A lower failure price ends in a higher chance of survival, at the same time as a higher failure price decreases the opportunity of survival. It is essential to don't forget these chances when assessing the reliability and toughness of additives in diverse packages.

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Answer:

0, 16

1, 15

2, 14

3, 13

4, 12

5, 11

6, 10

7, 9

8, 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Any two numbers that have the product of positive 16 have a geometric mean of 4.

Answer:100.53mm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

From basic rules of a triangle we know that the interior angles of a triangle have to add up to equal 180°

But here is a formula for future references for finding the sum of the interior angles

interior angle sum = (n-2)180

where n = number of sides

and here is an example:

a triangle has 3 sides so we plug in 3 for n

(3-2)180

3-2=1

1*180 = 180

so the interior angles add up to equal 180

ok so lets say that you have a pizza cutted out in 5 sections and want to pick up only a certain piece, let's say pepperoni. If you took a piece at random, the chances of getting that certain piece of pepperoni in 60 spins is:    12 / 60

Answer:

C=3e

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope=

The probability that at least one person involved in the conspiracy reveals their involvement to the media within 50 years is approximately 0.994.

Consider the following scenario: There are 1000 individuals involved in a conspiracy.

Every person involved in the conspiracy can be trusted 99.9%, which means that there is a 0.01% probability that they will reveal the secrets of the conspiracy to the media within 50 years.

The probability of revealing the conspiracy is the same for everyone involved and remains constant throughout the 50 years.

Additionally, the probability of someone revealing the conspiracy is independent of whether anyone else has already done so or not.

What is the likelihood that at least one person will reveal their involvement to the media within 50 years? We can use the binomial distribution to determine the probability that at least one person in the conspiracy will reveal their involvement in the media in 50 years.

We'll use the following formula for the binomial distribution: P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) where X is the number of individuals that reveal the secrets of the conspiracy.

In this situation, we know that there are 1000 people in the conspiracy, and the probability that each person will reveal the conspiracy is 0.01%.

We can therefore use the formula for the binomial distribution to solve for the probability of at least one person revealing the conspiracy:

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - [tex](0.999)^{1000}[/tex] P(X ≥ 1) ≈ 0.994

Therefore, The probability that at least one person involved in the conspiracy reveals their involvement to the media within 50 years is approximately 0.994.

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Answer:

100/π cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cylinder = πr²h

Volume = 10,000cm³

Radius = 10cm

The formula for the height of a cylinder is obtained as:

V = πr²h

h = V/ πr²

h = 10000 /π × 10²

h = 10000 /π × 100

h = 100/π cm

The height of the cylinder in terms of π = 100/π cm

Step-by-step explanation:

12. n^2+2n

if you insert 1 for k and then work up by inserting 2 for k and adding those together and stoping at n.

13. 8-2(2^n)

if you insert 3 for k and then work up by inserting 4 for k and adding those together and keep on going but stopping at n.

Hope that helps :)

Answer:

175 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

from that word problem the equation that i was able to get out of it was

1225/ 7

^ the travel allowance and how much days they are going to be there

i dont know if you are allowed to use a calculator in your class but puting 1225/ 7 does give you a answer of a positive number of 175 dollars

meaning that they can only use 175 dollars a day so they dont go over the allowance

i hope this helps you! please stay safe and have a good day :)

Answer:

Um, the answer for that is 175.

Step-by-step explanation:

all you need to do is divide $1,225 by 7 which is 175.

Answer:

D) 2,4

Step-by-step explanation:

The only answer with positive numbers

Answer:

D) 2,4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

In the graph, we can see that the relation between length and weight is given by the adjusted line, which passes through the points (24, 16) and (28, 25)

Remember that a linear relation can be written as:

y = a*x + b

Where a is the slope and b is the y-intercept.

If this line passes through the points (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) the slope can be calculated as:

a = (y₂ - y₁)/(x₂ - x₁)

Then in our case, the slope will be:

a = (25 - 16)/(28 - 24) = 9/4

y = (9/4)*x + b

Knowing that this line passes through (24, 16), we know that when x = 24, y must be equal to 16.

If we replace these in the equation, we can find the value of b.

16 = (9/4)*24 + b

16 = 54 + b

16 - 54 = b - 38

Then the equation is:

y = (9/4)*x - 38

Now that we know the equation, we can simply replace y by 34 pounds to find the value of x.

34 = (9/4)*x - 38

34 + 38 = (9/4)*x

72*(4/9) = x = 32

So we can estimate that the length of a fish that weighs 34 pounds is 32 (I do not know the unit of length, I can't see the horizontal axis on the image)

After considering the given data and analysing the information carefully we conclude that the lowest species richness observed is Forest A with only 18 species.

Let us get into the explanation part by first keeping in mind that to determine this, we need to evaluate the total number of species in each forest.

From the given data set, we clearly see that Forest A has 18 species, Forest B has 28 species, and Forest C has 25 species.

Hence, Forest A has the lowest species richness with only 18 species then Forest A has the lowest species richness among the three forests.

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Answer:

v = 340 cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

base area = 12 x 10 x 0.5 = 60 cm²

v = 60 x 17 x 1/3 = 340 cm³

Phase portrait as a function of the control parameter μ and the classification of bifurcations that occur as μ varies in the following questions are:

1. θ = μ sin θ - sin 2θA) μ<0, stable equilibrium at θ = nπ, where n is an odd integerB) μ>0, stable equilibrium at θ = 0, unstable equilibrium at θ = nπ, where n is a non-zero even integer. Hence, we have homoclinic bifurcation at μ = 0.

2. θ = sin θ/ μ+cos θA) μ<1, stable equilibrium at θ = nπ, where n is an integerB) μ>1, stable equilibrium at θ = sin−1 (μ) + nπ, where n is an integer. Hence, we have a pitchfork bifurcation at μ = 1.

3. θ = sin θ / μ + sin θA) μ<−1, stable equilibrium at θ = nπ, where n is an integerB) μ>−1, stable equilibrium at θ = 0, unstable equilibrium at θ = nπ, where n is a non-zero integer. Hence, we have homoclinic bifurcation at μ = −1.

4. θ = μ + cos θ + cos 2θA) μ>−1, stable equilibrium at θ = nπ, where n is an even integerB) μ<−1, no equilibrium point exists. Hence, we have fold bifurcation at μ = −1.

5. θ = μ sin θ + cos 2θA) μ>0, stable equilibrium at θ = sin−1 (−μ) + 2nπ, where n is an integerB) μ<0, stable equilibrium at θ = sin−1 (−μ) + (2n+1)π, where n is an integer. Hence, we have pitchfork bifurcation at μ = 0.

6. θ = sin 2θ/ 1 + μ sin θA) μ<−1, unstable equilibrium at θ = nπ/2, where n is an odd integerB) μ>−1, unstable equilibrium at θ = 0, stable equilibrium at θ = π. Hence, we have pitchfork bifurcation at μ = −1.

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The lower bound of the interval is given as follows:

28.1.

The upper bound of the interval is given as follows:

29.9.

The t-distribution is used when the standard deviation for the population is not known, and the bounds of the confidence interval are given according to the equation presented as follows:

[tex]\overline{x} \pm t\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex]

The variables of the equation are listed as follows:

The critical value, using a t-distribution calculator, for a two-tailed 90% confidence interval, with 30 - 1 = 29 df, is t = 1.6991.

The lower bound of the interval is given as follows:

[tex]39 - 1.6991 \times \frac{3}{\sqrt{30}} = 38.1[/tex]

The upper bound is given as follows:

[tex]39 + 1.6991 \times \frac{3}{\sqrt{30}} = 39.9[/tex]

The complete problem is:

"If n=30, (x-bar)=39, and s=3, at the 90% Confidence Interval, what are the (lower bound; upper bound)".

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Answer:

7:42

Step-by-step explanation:

First off you add the ratio together-

6+1=7

Then you divide-

49÷7= 7

7 is equal to 1 in this ratio.

To write out the ratio you need to multiplicate-

7×1=7

and

6×7= 42

Leaving the as-

7:42

Answer:

7:42  

Step-by-step explanation:

First, add up the two numbers in the ratio to get 49.

Next, divide the total amount by 49, i.e. divide £16 by 8 to get £5. £5 is the amount of each 'unit' in the ratio.

Then you need to divide the total amount using that number i.e. 49/16 = 7/42.

To work out how much each person gets, you then multiply their share by the ratios. Therefore, the answer is 7 yd and 42 yds.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Pi*r^2 = Area

20.5^2 * Pi = 1320.25