Now consider the so-called random walk with absorbing barriers on 1 = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. This is also a Markov chain on N = {0,1,2,3,4} with the following transition probability matrix P =
[1 0 0 0 0]
[1/2 0 1/2 0 0]
[0 1/2 0 1/2 0]
[0 0 1/2 0 1/2]
[0 0 0 0 1]
(a) Draw a graphical diagram that shows how this chain moves. (b) Is this chain irreducible? Why or why not? (c) Find E(X5 | X3 = 1, X0 = 2).

Answer:

34.78

Step-by-step explanation:

8/23

Answer:

In the first box: 24a

In the second box: +12

In the third box: 24a + 12

Step-by-step explanation:

For the first box, you're multiplying 3 times 8a. Since we don't know a, we leave it alone and just multiply the number next to it. So 3 x 8 = 24...3 x 8a = 24a

3 times a positive 4 is a positive 12 (this is kind of a weird way to write it, but area models are weird, imo.

It's just trying to show that you multiply the 3 by every part of what's inside the parentheses.

The probability that he hits the hare within his first 4 shots is 0.8789.

Probability of success for the first shot = P1 = 12 Probability of missing the first shot = 1 – P1 = 1 – 12 = 12  Probability of

success for the second shot, given that the first shot missed = P2 = 14Hence, the probability that he hits the hare within

his first 2 shots is:P1 + (1 – P1)P2= 12+(12)×(14)= 12+16= 38(2) The probability that he hits the hare within his first 3 shots is

most nearly (a) 1 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.8 (d) 0.7We have to find the probability of hitting the hare within his first 3 shots. Probability

of success for the first shot = P1 = 12Probability of missing the first shot = 1 – P1 = 1 – 12 = 12Probability of success for the

second shot, given that the first shot missed = P2 = 14Probability of success for the third shot, given that the first two

shots missed = P3 = 18Hence, the probability that he hits the hare within his first 3 shots is:P1 + (1 – P1)P2 + (1 – P1)(1 –

P2)P3= 12+(12)×(14)+(12)×(34)×(18)= 12+16+18×(12)= 1316= 0.8125(3) The probability that he hits the hare within his first 4

shots is most nearly (a) 0.9 (b) 0.7 (c)1 (d) 0.8We have to find the probability of hitting the hare within his first 4

shots. Probability of success for the first shot = P1 = 12Probability of missing the first shot = 1 – P1 = 1 – 12 = 12Probability

of success for the second shot, given that the first shot missed = P2 = 14Probability of success for the third shot, given

that the first two shots missed = P3 = 18 Probability of success for the fourth shot, given that the first three shots missed

= P4 = 116Hence, the probability that he hits the hare within his first 4 shots is:P1 + (1 – P1)P2 + (1 – P1)(1 – P2)P3 + (1 – P1)

(1 – P2)(1 – P3)P4= 12+(12)×(14)+(12)×(34)×(18)+(12)×(34)×(78)×(116)= 12+16+18×(12)+18×(78)×(116)= 7892= 0.8789

Therefore, the answer is (d) 0.8.

Learn more about probability:https://brainly.com/question/13604758

#SPJ11

Answer:

7m ^1÷2

Step-by-step explanation:

see attached joint

hope it helps

Answer:

24 or 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplication

a. The decomposition into cycles is (2 5 6 3 4).

b. The decomposition into transpositions is (2 5)(5 6)(6 3)(3 4).

c. The permutation is even.

We have,

To decompose the given permutation into cycles, we start with the first element and follow its path:

Starting with 2, we see that it goes to 5.

5 goes to 6.

6 goes to 3.

3 goes to 4.

Finally, 4 goes back to 2, completing the cycle.

The cycle can be represented as (2 5 6 3 4).

To decompose the permutation into transpositions, we consider each adjacent pair of elements and write them as separate transpositions:

(2 5)(5 6)(6 3)(3 4)

Now, we can observe that the permutation has a total of four transpositions.

To determine if the permutation is even or odd, we need to count the number of transpositions.

In this case, there are four transpositions, which means the permutation is even since the number of transpositions is even.

Therefore,

a. The decomposition into cycles is (2 5 6 3 4).

b. The decomposition into transpositions is (2 5)(5 6)(6 3)(3 4).

c. The permutation is even.

Learn more about permutations here:

https://brainly.com/question/32683496

#SPJ1

Answer:

x = 5 ; z = 70

Step-by-step explanation:

Vertical angles have the same degree measure

(13x + 45) = 110

13x + 45 = 110

      -45     -45

13x = 65

/13     /13

x = 5

Complementary angles add up to 180°

110 + z = 180

-110         -110

z = 70

Answer:

X = 5º

Z = 70º

Step-by-step explanation:

So we know that vertical angles are congruent. So what we do to figure out x is set the equation equal to 110º because we are given that. And then we solve for x.

(13x + 45) = 110

13x + 45 = 110

      -45      -45

----------------------

13x = 65

÷13     ÷13

---------------

x = 5

Now, we plug x into the equation. (13x5 + 45) = 110 so we know that x = 5

Now, we also know that a straight line equals 180º so what we do is subtract 110 from 180.

180 - 110= 70º

z = 70º

Answer:

( 21 x X ) + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

y = -4

2x -3y = 8

Substitute the first equation into the second equation

2x - 3(-4) = 8

2x +12 = 8

Subtract 12 from each side

2x+12-12 = 8-12

2x = -4

Divide by 2

2x/2 = -4/2

x = -2

Answer:

6*(61^2) and 61^3

Step-by-step explanation:

If the squares have a side length of 61 (assuming this is a cube) our surface area is 6*(61^2) because each side is a square and there are six sides.

As for the volume, we have 61^3.

Hope this was helpful.

~cloud

The indefinite integral ∫ 2dx evaluates to 2x + C, where C is the constant of integration.

The definite integral ∫ 2dx represents the area under the curve y = 2 from the lower limit to the upper limit. In this case, since there are no limits provided, the integral represents the indefinite integral, which evaluates to 2x + C, where C is the constant of integration.

The definite integral ∫ 2dx represents the area under the curve y = 2 with respect to x. Since there are no specific limits provided in the integral, it becomes an indefinite integral. To evaluate this indefinite integral, we integrate the function 2 with respect to x. The integral of a constant function is equal to the constant multiplied by x. Therefore, the result of the integral is 2x + C, where C is the constant of integration.

The indefinite integral 2x + C represents a family of functions that differ by a constant. This means that there are infinite functions that satisfy the derivative of 2x + C equals 2. The constant of integration, denoted by C, can take any real value, and it represents the arbitrary constant that accounts for all possible functions in the family. Hence, the indefinite integral ∫ 2dx evaluates to 2x + C, where C is the constant of integration.

Learn more about integral here:

https://brainly.com/question/31059545

#SPJ11

Answer:

not a function becuz 2 repeats its self twice

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

You are welcome

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: W=12m

Step-by-step explanation:

Sold 80 plain bagels, 40 onion bagels, and 180 pumpernickel bagels that day.

How about we relegate factors to address the quantity of bagels sold for each kind. Let's say that P denotes the quantity of plain bagels, O the quantity of onion bagels, and Pu the quantity of pumpernickel bagels.

We realize that the absolute number of bagels sold is 300, so we have the condition P + O + Pu = 300.

Given that you sold 100 more pumpernickel bagels than plain bagels and that you sold twice as many plain bagels as onion bagels, the equation P = 2O can be written. Additionally, the equation Pu = P + 100 can be written.

Subbing the second and third conditions into the primary condition, we get 2O + O + (2O + 100) = 300.

We can reduce this equation to 5O = 200.

Partitioning the two sides by 5, we track down O = 40.

Pu = P + 100 = 80 + 100 = 180 and P = 2O = 2 * 40 = 80, respectively.

Accordingly, you sold 80 plain bagels, 40 onion bagels, and 180 pumpernickel bagels that day.

To know more about absolute number refer to

https://brainly.com/question/243296

#SPJ11

Answer:

4.1 inches

I would appreciate Brainliest, but no worries.

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula for the sphere's volume is [tex]\frac{4}{3} *\pi *r^3[/tex]

so when you set that equal to 288[tex]\pi[/tex], you get 6 as the radius

To find the surface area of the parametric surface given by 22 (u,v) = 5r1 (u,v), where r1 (u,v) is a parametric surface with a known surface area of 2, we need to consider the scaling factor of 5. The surface area of the parametric surface given by 22 (u,v) = 5r1 (u,v) is 10.

The surface area of a parametric surface can be calculated using the formula ∬||ru x rv|| dA, where ru and rv are the partial derivatives of the position vector r with respect to u and v, and ||ru x rv|| is the magnitude of their cross product.

When we scale the original parametric surface by a factor of 5, the scaling applies to each component of the position vector, resulting in a scaling factor of 5 for ||ru x rv||. Therefore, the new surface area is 5 times the original surface area, i.e., 5 * 2 = 10.

Thus, the surface area of the parametric surface given by 22 (u,v) = 5r1 (u,v) is 10.

To learn more about parametric surface click here: brainly.com/question/28482933

#SPJ11

The standard error is 0.5, (b) the error is 1.015, and (c) the 95% confidence interval is (33.985, 36.015).

A random sample of 36 cars of the same model has an average gas mileage of 35 miles/gallon with a sample standard deviation of 3 miles/gallon.

To find out the standard error, error, and the 95% confidence interval, we need to follow the following steps:

Step 1: Finding the Standard Error The formula for standard error is given as: Standard Error (SE) =

,[tex]\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex]

where s is the sample standard deviation and n is the sample size.

Given, Sample standard deviation (s) =

3Sample size (n) = 36

The standard error (SE) is:

SE = [tex]$\frac{3}{\sqrt{36}}$\\SE = 0.5[/tex]

Thus, the standard error is 0.5.

Step 2: Finding the ErrorThe formula to calculate the error is given as:

Error (E) = t × SE

where t is the t-value of the distribution corresponding to the desired level of confidence.

For a 95% confidence interval with 35 degrees of freedom, the t-value is 2.030.The value of the error is:

Error (E) = 2.030 × 0.5E = 1.015

Thus, the error is 1.015.

Step 3: Finding the 95% confidence interval

The 95% confidence interval is given by the formula:

[tex]CI = $\overline{x}$ \pm t$_{\frac{\alpha}{2}, n-1}$ \times SE[/tex]

where [tex]$\overline{x}$[/tex]

is the sample mean,

[tex]t$_{\frac{\alpha}{2}, n-1}$[/tex]

is the t-value for the given confidence level and the degrees of freedom, and SE is the standard error. Given,

Sample mean

[tex]($\overline{x}$) = 35SE = 0.5t$_{\frac{\alpha}{2}, n-1}$ = t$_{\frac{0.05}{2}, 35}$ = t$_{0.025, 35}$[/tex]

The value of

[tex]t$_{0.025, 35}$[/tex]

can be found using the t-table or a calculator and is approximately equal to 2.030.

Substituting these values in the formula, we get:

CI = 35 ± 2.030 × 0.5CI = 35 ± 1.015

The 95% confidence interval is (33.985, 36.015).

Thus, (a) the standard error is 0.5, (b) the error is 1.015, and (c) the 95% confidence interval is (33.985, 36.015).

To know more about standard error, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32854773

#SPJ11

Step-by-step explanation:

you're multiple times a day po

In counseling and psychotherapy groups, member-to-member contact outside of the group often results in subgroups and hidden agendas

According to various research studies on Personal relationships among specialty group members, such as counseling and psychotherapy groups, which was concluded that member-to-member contact outside of the group often results in SUBGROUP and HIDDEN AGENDAS.

However, Most of the time, which can lead to damaging situations.

Therefore it is considered a sensible strategy to prevent the formation of such subgroups.

Learn more about the subgroups

https://brainly.com/question/18994351

#SPJ1

To prove that the given series (sin x)2 x 2n +1 n=1 is uniformly convergent in R, we'll make use of the M-test for uniform convergence.

Let f(x,n) = (sin x)2 x 2n +1 n=1

Let Mn = sup[ f(x,n) ] ( x in R )

To find Mn, we differentiate f(x,n) w.r.t. x, set it to zero to get its critical points and find its maximum at these critical points.

Now,  f'(x,n) = 2 sin(x) cos(x) x 2n+1 - (sin(x))2 (2n + 1)x2n = sin(x)x2n[ 2 cos(x) - (2n+1)(sin(x)/x) ]= 0 either when sin(x) = 0, i.e. at x = nπ for any integer n, or when cos(x) = (2n+1)(sin(x)/x) / 2 (for non-zero values of x).

The values of x for which cos(x) = (2n+1)(sin(x)/x) / 2 are the critical points.

But since  | (2n+1)(sin(x)/x) / 2 | <= | 2n + 1 | / 2, we have | cos(x) | <= | 2n + 1 | / 2.

Hence, the critical values of cos(x) for any given value of n are between - (2n+1)/2 and (2n+1)/2 (note that these values depend on n).

Hence, we have:

Mn = sup[ f(x,n) ] ( x in R )<= sup[ f(x,n) ] ( x in [- (2n+1)/2, (2n+1)/2] )<= f((2n+1)/2,n) = [(2n+1)/2]2n+1 sin((2n+1)/2)

This last step uses the fact that sin(x) <= 1 for all x and (sin(x))2 <= 1 for all x, as well as the observation that f(x,n) is odd, so its maximum will occur at x = (2n+1)/2.

Hence, we have:

Mn <= [(2n+1)/2]2n+1 sin((2n+1)/2)

Now, we claim that this upper bound of Mn goes to zero as n goes to infinity.

To show this, we use the fact that sin(x)/x -> 1 as x -> 0. Hence, sin((2n+1)/2) / (2n+1)/2 -> 1 as n -> infinity. Thus, [(2n+1)/2]2n+1 sin((2n+1)/2) -> 0 as n -> infinity.

Therefore, by the M-test, the series (sin x)2 x 2n +1 n=1 is uniformly convergent in R.

To learn more about convergent series visit : https://brainly.com/question/15415793

#SPJ11

When a plane intersects one cone of a double-napped cone parallel to its generating line, the resulting conic section is a parabola.

A double-napped cone consists of two identical, opposite-facing cones joined at their vertices. Each cone has a generating line, which is the line passing through the vertex and the apex of the cone. When a plane intersects one of the cones parallel to its generating line, the resulting conic section is a parabola.

To understand why this intersection forms a parabola, we can examine the properties of a parabola. A parabola is defined as the locus of all points that are equidistant from the focus (a fixed point) and the directrix (a fixed line). In the case of a cone, the vertex serves as the focus, and the generating line can be considered as the directrix.

When the plane intersects the cone parallel to the generating line, the points of intersection are equidistant from the vertex and the generating line. This property matches the definition of a parabola. The resulting conic section will have a characteristic U-shape, with the vertex of the parabola coinciding with the vertex of the cone.

In conclusion, when a plane intersects one cone of a double-napped cone parallel to the generating line, the resulting conic section is a parabola. The parallel intersection ensures that the points on the conic section are equidistant from the vertex and the generating line, fulfilling the definition of a parabola.

To learn more about parabola click here: brainly.com/question/11911877

#SPJ11

Answer:

uhh i don't know the answer sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

ummm i Don't know

Answer:

50 years

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data

Principal= $500

Rate= 6%

Amount = $2000

The simple interest expression is given as

A=P(1+rt)

Substitute

2000= 500(1+0.06*t)

open bracket

2000=500+ 30t

2000-500=30t

1500=30t

t= 1500/30

t= 50 years

Hence the time is 50 years

Answer:

50 years

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula for simple interest:

I = Prt

where

I = interest earned

P = principal amount deposited

r = annual interest rate

t = number of years

When the account reaches $2000, $500 is from the principal and

$2000 - $500 = $1500 is from the interest.

We use the simple interest formula to find the number of years needed to earn $1500 in interest from $500 principal at 6% interest rate.

1500 = 500 * 0.06 * t

t = 50

Answer: 50 years

Answer:

27/30

Step-by-step explanation:

yepyffghhhhgghjj

Answer:

9/10 or 0.9

Step-by-step explanation:

When adding fractions, you look at each of them as an equal number, or a whole.

25+36

91

So, now all we have to do is convert it to it's closest form. (In tenths, since we are adding tenths.)

90

And it would be 9/10, or 0.9

Hope this helps!

Answer:

The answer is G. 5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

I used the elimination process and multiplied the second equation by three which allowed me to cancel out the positive and negative three y's.

6x+3y=13

(3x-y=4)*3

6x+3y=13

9x-3y=12

6x+9x=15x

13+12=25

15x=25

15x/15=25/15

By dividing, the fifteens on the left cancel out leaving:

x=1.66667 or 1 2/3 = 5/3

I hope this helps. :)

Answer:

8845 billion

Step-by-step explanation:

Since exponential growth is given by;

P = a( 1 + r)^t

Where;

P = amount spent after t years

r = exponential growth rate

t = time interval

2004 - 2014 is an interval of 10 years. If 5430 billion was spent in 2004 and the growth rate has been 5% each year, then;

P= 5430 * 10^9(1 + 5/100)^10

P = 8845 * 10^9

P = 8845 billion

The given differential equation d⁴y/dx⁴ - a⁴y = 0 models the deformation of a cylindrical shaft rotating with angular velocity ω. The function y(x) represents the deformation of the cylinder.

To solve the differential equation, we can assume a solution of the form y(x) = A*cos(ax) + B*sin(ax), where A and B are constants to be determined, and 'a' is a parameter related to the properties of the cylinder.

Taking the fourth derivative of y(x) and substituting it into the differential equation, we have:

d⁴y/dx⁴ = -a⁴(A*cos(ax) + B*sin(ax))

Substituting the fourth derivative and y(x) into the differential equation, we get:

-a⁴(A*cos(ax) + B*sin(ax)) - a⁴(A*cos(ax) + B*sin(ax)) = 0

Simplifying the equation, we have:

-2a⁴(A*cos(ax) + B*sin(ax)) = 0

Since the equation must hold for all x, the coefficient of each term (cos(ax) and sin(ax)) must be zero:

-2a⁴A = 0   (coefficient of cos(ax))

-2a⁴B = 0   (coefficient of sin(ax))

From these equations, we find that A = 0 and B = 0, which implies that the only solution is the trivial solution y(x) = 0.

Therefore, the solution to the differential equation d⁴y/dx⁴ - a⁴y = 0 is y(x) = 0.

To know more about higher-order differential equations , refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30256978#

#SPJ11

Answer:

The answer is BBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBBB

To travel 1400miles from Seattle to Los Angeles it will take the train 35 hours

A rate is the ratio between two related quantities in different units. For example , the train travels 80 miles in 2hrs . the two quantities that are related here are distance and time

here, we have,

distance in miles and time in hours

the time to travel for 1 mile

= 2/80 = 1/40 miles

for the train to travel 1400 miles , it will take it

1/40× 1400

= 35 hours

learn more about rate from

brainly.com/question/25793394

#SPJ2

complete question:

There is a train that travels from Seattle, Washington, to Los Angeles, California. In its first 2 hours the train went about 80 miles including stops. At this rate, how longer will it take to travel the 1400 miles from Seattle to Los Angeles?