Martensite is stronger than tempered martensite. Select one

Answers

Answer 1

Martensite is stronger than tempered martensite due to its brittle nature, while tempered martensite offers a combination of strength and toughness, making it suitable for industrial applications.

Martensite is stronger than tempered martensite. This statement is true and the reason behind this is explained below:

Martensite is a phase that is formed by the rapid cooling of austenite. It is a hard and brittle phase, but it possesses high strength and hardness. However, due to its brittle nature, it is not suitable for most industrial applications.Tempered martensite is produced by heating the martensitic phase to an intermediate temperature and then cooling it slowly. This process reduces the brittleness of the martensite and improves its toughness. As a result, tempered martensite possesses lower strength and hardness than martensite but higher toughness. This makes it more suitable for industrial applications where a combination of strength and toughness is required.

In conclusion, martensite is stronger than tempered martensite. However, tempered martensite possesses higher toughness than martensite. Therefore, the choice between martensite and tempered martensite depends on the application and the desired properties.

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Related Questions

Solve the differential equation
y′′−y′−12y=10cost with initial conditions y(0)=−13/17,y′(0)=0 using two seperate methods. Indicate clearly which rrethod you are using

Answers

The solution for the differential equation by using, Method of Undetermined Coefficients and Laplace Transform Method is y(t) = (7/15)e^(4t) - (2/225)e^(-3t) - (26/225)cos(t) + (13/225)sin(t).

To solve the given second-order linear homogeneous differential equation:

y'' - y' - 12y = 10cos(t).

We can use two different methods: the method of undetermined coefficients and the Laplace transform method.

Method 1: Method of Undetermined Coefficients

First, we find the complementary solution (homogeneous solution) by solving the characteristic equation:

r² - r - 12 = 0

Factoring the quadratic equation:

(r - 4)(r + 3) = 0

This gives us two distinct roots: r1 = 4 and r2 = -3.

The complementary solution is given by:

y_c(t) = C1e^(4t) + C2e^(-3t)

To find the particular solution (particular integral), we guess a solution of the form:

y_p(t) = Acos(t) + Bsin(t)

Taking the derivatives:

y_p'(t) = -Asin(t) + Bcos(t)

y_p''(t) = -Acos(t) - Bsin(t)

Substituting these derivatives back into the original equation:

(-Acos(t) - Bsin(t)) - (-Asin(t) + Bcos(t)) - 12(Acos(t) + Bsin(t)) = 10cos(t)

Simplifying:

(-13A - 2B)cos(t) + (2A - 13B)sin(t) = 10cos(t)

We equate the coefficients of cos(t) and sin(t) separately:

-13A - 2B = 10 ...(1)

2A - 13B = 0 ...(2)

Solving equations (1) and (2), we find A = -26/225 and B = -13/225.

Therefore, the particular solution is:

y_p(t) = (-26/225)cos(t) - (13/225)sin(t)

The general solution is the sum of the complementary and particular solutions:

y(t) = C1e^(4t) + C2e^(-3t) + (-26/225)cos(t) - (13/225)sin(t)

Using the initial conditions, y(0) = -13/17 and y'(0) = 0, we can determine the values of C1 and C2:

y(0) = C1 + C2 - (26/225) = -13/17

y'(0) = 4C1 - 3C2 + (13/225) = 0

Solving these two equations simultaneously, we find C1 = 7/15 and C2 = -2/225.

Therefore, the particular solution to the differential equation with the given initial conditions is:

y(t) = (7/15)e^(4t) - (2/225)e^(-3t) - (26/225)cos(t) + (13/225)sin(t)

Method 2: Laplace Transform Method

Taking the Laplace transform of both sides of the differential equation:

s²Y(s) - sy(0) - y'(0) - sY(s) + y(0) - 12Y(s) = 10(s/(s² + 1))

Applying the initial conditions y(0) = -13/17 and y'(0) = 0:

s²Y(s) + 13/17 + 12Y(s) - sY(s) - 1 = 10(s/(s² + 1))

Rearranging the terms:

Y(s) = (10s/(s² + 1) + 13/17 + 1) / (s² + 12 - s)

Simplifying:

Y(s) = (10s + 17s² + 17) / (17s² - s + 12)

Now, we need to decompose the right side of the equation into partial fractions:

Y(s) = A/(s + 4) + B/(s - 3)

Multiplying through by the common denominator and equating the numerators:

10s + 17s² + 17 = A(s - 3) + B(s + 4)

Equating the coefficients of s:

17 = -3A + 4B ...(3)

10 = -3B + 4A ...(4)

Solving equations (3) and (4), we find A = -26/225 and B = -13/225.

Substituting these values back into the partial fraction decomposition:

Y(s) = (-26/225)/(s + 4) + (-13/225)/(s - 3)

Taking the inverse Laplace transform, we get the solution:

y(t) = (-26/225)e^(-4t) - (13/225)e^(3t)

Hence, both methods yield the same solution:

y(t) = (7/15)e^(4t) - (2/225)e^(-3t) - (26/225)cos(t) + (13/225)sin(t).

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20. Quality in the context of construction contracts is: a. Conformance to specifications b. A measure of goodness c. A degrees of excellence d. A measure of durability of the product 21. Quality assu

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In the context of construction contracts, quality refers to the level of excellence or conformance to specifications of the construction project. It is not just about meeting the minimum requirements but exceeding them to achieve a higher degree of excellence.

Quality can be assessed through various measures, such as durability, performance, functionality, and aesthetics.

Option a: Conformance to specifications refers to the extent to which the construction project meets the specified requirements. This includes factors like materials used, dimensions, and other technical specifications. It ensures that the project is built according to the agreed-upon plans and designs.

Option b: A measure of goodness can be interpreted as a subjective assessment of the construction project. Goodness can refer to how well the project satisfies the client's expectations and requirements. However, in the context of construction contracts, it is more common to use objective measures like conformance to specifications.

Option c: A degree of excellence is a broader concept that encompasses not only meeting the specifications but also surpassing them. It involves achieving high standards in terms of performance, aesthetics, and functionality. The level of excellence can vary depending on the project's requirements and the client's expectations.

Option d: Durability is an important aspect of quality in construction. It refers to the ability of the project to withstand the test of time and perform well over its expected lifespan. Durability is influenced by factors like the quality of materials used, construction techniques, and maintenance practices. A durable construction project is less likely to require frequent repairs or replacements.

In summary, quality in construction contracts is about achieving a high level of excellence and conformance to specifications. It involves meeting the agreed-upon requirements, including factors like durability, performance, functionality, and aesthetics.

Durability is one of the key aspects of quality, ensuring the long-term performance and reliability of the construction project.

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1). Describe how to calculate (approximately) the golden
number φ from the Fibonacci Sequence and perform a sample
calculation
2). What is the purpose of the siv of
Eratosthenes?

Answers

1) you can use the following steps:
Step 1: Generate a list of Fibonacci numbers. The Fibonacci Sequence starts with 0 and 1, and each subsequent number is the sum of the two preceding numbers. For example, the sequence begins as follows: 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, and so on.
Step 2: Divide each Fibonacci number by its previous number in the sequence. For example, dividing 1 by 0 gives an undefined result, so we skip this division. Dividing 2 by 1 gives 2, dividing 3 by 2 gives 1.5, dividing 5 by 3 gives 1.6667, dividing 8 by 5 gives 1.6, and so on.
Step 3: As you continue dividing the Fibonacci numbers, you will notice that the quotient gets closer and closer to the golden number φ. As you reach larger Fibonacci numbers, the quotient will become more accurate.
Step 4: To perform a sample calculation, let's divide 21 by 13. The result is approximately 1.6154. This is close to the value of φ, which is approximately 1.6180. As you divide larger Fibonacci numbers, such as 144 by 89 or 987 by 610, the approximations will be even closer to φ.

2)Here's how it works:
Step 1: Create a list of consecutive numbers starting from 2 up to the given limit.
Step 2: Mark the number 2 as prime and cross out all multiples of 2 in the list.
Step 3: Move to the next number in the list that hasn't been crossed out, which is 3. Mark it as prime and cross out all multiples of 3 in the list.
Step 4: Repeat this process for the remaining numbers in the list, marking them as   and crossing out their multiples.
Step 5: Continue until you have processed all numbers up to the given limit.

- Start with a list of numbers from 2 to 30.
- Mark 2 as prime and cross out its multiples: 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 26, 28, 30.
- Move to the next number, 3, mark it as prime, and cross out its multiples: 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30.
- Move to the next number, 5, mark it as prime, and cross out its multiples: 10, 15, 20, 25, 30.
- Move to the next number, 7, mark it as prime, and cross out its multiples: 14, 21, 28.
- The remaining numbers that are not crossed out are prime: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29.

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assume you purchased some corporate stock 4 years ago for $7,500. You received quarterly dividends of 875 ; your dividends total $1,200 (16 dividend checks ×$75=$1,200). You sold the stock today for $8,050. 6. The PV is $8,050 because that is the amount you received today (in the present). (T or F ) 7. $1,200 represents which variable (PV, PMT, or FV)? 8. What is the FV amount? Unit 12.2 Financial calculators 9. When is it not necessary to clear the TVM registers? 10. By setting our "periods per year" register at 1 we must enter the periodic rate in the i-register. (T or F)

Answers

6. False. The present value (PV) is the initial investment or the amount invested in the stock, which is $7,500, not the amount received today ($8,050).

7. $1,200 represents the variable PMT (Payment). It represents the total dividends received over the four-year period.

8. The future value (FV) amount is $8,050, which is the amount received from selling the stock today.

9. It is not necessary to clear the TVM (Time Value of Money) registers when the calculations are completed, and you don't need to perform any further calculations.

10. True. When the "periods per year" register is set to 1, the periodic rate (interest rate) should be entered directly into the i-register as a decimal value, such as 0.05 for 5%.

Therefore, the PV is not $8,050 but $7,500, representing the initial investment. The variable $1,200 represents the PMT (payment) or the total dividends received. The FV amount is $8,050, the selling price of the stock. Clearing the TVM registers is not necessary after completing calculations, and when "periods per year" is set to 1, the periodic rate is entered directly into the i-register.

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HELP ME PLEASE I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!

Answers

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Its D

Initially, at 150 °C, 350 kPa, there is 1 kg of steam in a fixed volume vessel. Up to 645 kJ of heat is added to the steam. What is its final temperature, pressure and enthalpy?

Answers

- The final temperature of the steam is approximately 467.7 °C.
- The final pressure of the steam is 350 kPa.
- The final enthalpy of the steam is 645 kJ.

To find the final temperature, pressure, and enthalpy of the steam after adding 645 kJ of heat, we can use the First Law of Thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy (ΔU) of a system is equal to the heat added (Q) minus the work done (W).

First, let's calculate the change in internal energy (ΔU) of the steam. Since the volume is fixed, the work done (W) is zero. Therefore, the change in internal energy is equal to the heat added (Q).

Given that 645 kJ of heat is added, the change in internal energy (ΔU) is 645 kJ.

Next, we can use the specific heat capacity of steam to find the change in temperature (ΔT). The specific heat capacity of steam at constant pressure is approximately 2.03 kJ/kg·°C.

Using the formula Q = m·c·ΔT, where Q is the heat added, m is the mass of the steam, c is the specific heat capacity, and ΔT is the change in temperature, we can solve for ΔT.

Given that the mass of the steam is 1 kg and the specific heat capacity is 2.03 kJ/kg·°C, we have:

645 kJ = 1 kg · 2.03 kJ/kg·°C · ΔT

Simplifying the equation, we find:

ΔT = 645 kJ / (1 kg · 2.03 kJ/kg·°C)

ΔT ≈ 317.7 °C

Therefore, the final temperature of the steam is approximately 150 °C + 317.7 °C = 467.7 °C.

Since the volume of the vessel is fixed, the pressure of the steam remains constant throughout the process. Therefore, the final pressure is 350 kPa.

To find the final enthalpy (H) of the steam, we can use the equation:

H = U + P·V

where U is the internal energy, P is the pressure, and V is the volume.

Given that the volume is fixed and the pressure remains constant, the change in volume (ΔV) is zero. Therefore, the final enthalpy (H) is equal to the final internal energy (ΔU) plus the product of the pressure (P) and the change in volume (ΔV), which is zero.

H = U + P·V
H = ΔU + P·ΔV
H = 645 kJ + 350 kPa · 0
H = 645 kJ

Therefore, the final enthalpy of the steam is 645 kJ.

In summary:
- The final temperature of the steam is approximately 467.7 °C.
- The final pressure of the steam is 350 kPa.
- The final enthalpy of the steam is 645 kJ.

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1. Use the steam tables to find the specific internal energy (u₁) and enthalpy (h₁) at the initial state (150 °C, 350 kPa).
2. Use the given heat added to the steam (Q) to find the change in internal energy (ΔU = Q).
3. Use the steam tables to find the saturation temperature (T_sat) and specific internal energy (u_sat) at the given pressure (645 kPa).
4. Interpolate between T_sat and the temperature at the given pressure to find the final temperature (T₂).
5. The final pressure is the same as the initial pressure (350 kPa).
6. The final enthalpy (h₂) is equal to the initial enthalpy (h₁) plus the change in internal energy (ΔU).

The final temperature, pressure, and enthalpy of the steam can be determined by applying the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy of a system is equal to the heat added to the system minus the work done by the system.

First, let's determine the change in internal energy of the steam. We can use the equation:

ΔU = m × (u₂ - u₁)

where ΔU is the change in internal energy, m is the mass of the steam (1 kg in this case), and u₁ and u₂ are the specific internal energies of the steam at the initial and final states, respectively.

Next, let's determine the work done by the steam. Since the volume is fixed, the work done is zero (W = 0).

Now, we can use the equation:

Q = ΔU + W

where Q is the heat added to the system. Rearranging the equation, we have:

ΔU = Q - W

Since W is zero in this case, the equation simplifies to:

ΔU = Q

Now, let's substitute the given values into the equation to find the change in internal energy:

ΔU = 645 kJ

Next, we need to use the steam tables to find the specific internal energy of steam at the initial state (150 °C, 350 kPa) and final state.

From the steam tables, we find that the specific internal energy at the initial state (u₁) is 2587 kJ/kg. Since the steam is heated at constant volume, the final specific volume will be the same as the initial specific volume (v₁).

To find the final temperature, we need to interpolate between the values in the steam tables. Let's assume that the final temperature is T₂. We know that the final specific internal energy (u₂) is 2587 kJ/kg + 645 kJ/kg. Using the steam tables, we can find the corresponding saturation temperature (T_sat) and specific internal energy (u_sat) for a pressure of 645 kPa. By interpolating between the saturation temperature and the temperature at the given pressure, we can find the final temperature.

Now, let's determine the final pressure and enthalpy. Since the volume is fixed, the final pressure will be the same as the initial pressure (350 kPa). The enthalpy at the initial state (h₁) can be found from the steam tables. To find the final enthalpy, we can use the equation:

ΔH = ΔU + PΔV

Since the volume is fixed, ΔV is zero, and the equation simplifies to:

ΔH = ΔU

Therefore, the final enthalpy (h₂) is equal to the initial enthalpy (h₁) plus the change in internal energy (ΔU).

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5. List five industries produce hazardous waste. What types of
hazardous waste generated.

Answers

Chemical manufacturing, electronics manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, oil and gas, and automotive industries generate hazardous waste, including toxic chemicals, heavy metals, and contaminated substances, posing risks to human health and the environment.

Chemical manufacturing is one of the leading industries that generates hazardous waste. This waste includes toxic chemicals, solvents, and byproducts of chemical reactions. These substances can be harmful to human health and the environment if not managed properly.

The electronics manufacturing industry produces hazardous waste due to the disposal of electronic components and manufacturing processes. This waste often contains heavy metals like lead, mercury, and cadmium, which are toxic and can cause severe environmental contamination if not handled correctly.

The pharmaceutical industry generates hazardous waste in the form of expired drugs, pharmaceutical byproducts, and chemical residues from drug manufacturing. These substances can pose risks to human health and ecosystems if not disposed of properly or if they enter waterways.

The oil and gas industry is another major contributor to hazardous waste generation. Activities like drilling, refining, and transportation result in the production of hazardous waste such as drilling fluids, oil sludge, contaminated soil, and produced water. These wastes contain toxic substances and hydrocarbons that can contaminate soil, groundwater, and surface water, leading to environmental and health hazards.

Lastly, the automotive industry produces hazardous waste through various processes. Used motor oil, solvents, heavy metals from batteries, and toxic chemicals from paint and coating processes are examples of waste generated. These substances can contaminate soil and water bodies, posing risks to human health and ecosystems if not disposed of or managed appropriately.

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What is the molarity of a solution of hydrogen fluoride (HF, molecular mass=20,0 g/mol) that contains 0,425 mol HF in 400.0 mL of solution? 01.06 M O 0.940M 0 0.0531 M O 0.0212 M

Answers

The molarity of the solution of hydrogen fluoride (HF) is 1.06 M.

The molarity of a solution is calculated by dividing the number of moles of solute by the volume of the solution in liters.

Given:

Moles of HF = 0.425 mol

Volume of solution = 400.0 mL = 0.400 L

Using the formula for molarity (M), we can calculate the molarity of the solution:

Molarity (M) = Moles of solute (mol) / Volume of solution (L)

Molarity = 0.425 mol / 0.400 L

Molarity = 1.0625 M

Therefore, the molarity of the solution of hydrogen fluoride (HF) is approximately 1.06 M.

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4) A community organization wants to initiate a drinking water distribution project for a semi urban area with the partnership of the National water Supply and drainage board. Groundwater extraction is identified as a feasible source for this project. Field observations showed that the average rate of pumping is 90 000 1/day in a nearby area from a large fully penetrating well of 3 m diameter. The area receives an average annual rainfall of 1500 mm, which can be considered as the recharge. The original water table of the aquifer is located 10 m above the impermeable bed. Due to the non- availability of data, it is assumed that the hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is 5 m/day. i) The well discharge is completely compensated by the recharge at the true steady state condition. Assuming such a condition exists, estimate the radius of influence of the well.

Answers

The estimated radius of influence of the well is approximately 12,443.4 meters.

Given that the average rate of pumping is 90,000 1/day from a large fully penetrating well with a diameter of 3 m, and the recharge is the average annual rainfall of 1,500 mm, we can start by converting the recharge into a daily value. To do this, we divide the annual rainfall by the number of days in a year: 1,500 mm/year ÷ 365 days/year ≈ 4.11 mm/day

Next, we need to calculate the specific yield (S) of the aquifer, which represents the fraction of water released by the aquifer due to a decrease in hydraulic head. In this case, the specific yield is not provided, so we'll assume a reasonable value of 0.2. Now, we can calculate the volume of water extracted by the well per day:
Volume extracted = Rate of pumping × π × (radius of well)^2
Volume extracted = 90,000 1/day × π × (1.5 m)^2
Volume extracted ≈ 636,172 m^3/day

Since the well discharge is completely compensated by the recharge at the true steady state condition, the volume extracted should be equal to the volume of water recharged by the rainfall. Therefore, we can set up an equation: Volume extracted = Volume recharged. 636,172 m^3/day = Recharge rate × π × (radius of influence)^2. Rearranging the equation to solve for the radius of influence: Radius of influence = √(636,172 m^3/day ÷ (Recharge rate × π))

Plugging in the values:
Radius of influence = √(636,172 m^3/day ÷ (4.11 mm/day × π))
Radius of influence ≈ √(636,172 m^3/day ÷ 0.00411 m/day)
Radius of influence ≈ √(154,688,796 m^2)
Radius of influence ≈ 12,443.4 m
Therefore, the estimated radius of influence of the well is approximately 12,443.4 meters.

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The supply of cold water can be through two systems: direct and indirect. Explain two (2) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of installing an indirect cold water supply system

Answers

An indirect cold water supply system is a system that involves the use of a cold water storage cistern as the source of water supply instead of the main water supply.

The following are two (2) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of installing an indirect cold water supply system:

Advantages of indirect cold water supply system:

1. The system is less likely to be affected by water pressure changes in the main supply since it is fed by the cistern.

2. It provides for reserve water capacity during water supply interruptions or emergencies.

D is advantages of indirect cold water supply system:

1. An indirect system requires more installation space than a direct system because a cold water storage cistern is necessary.

2. The system is more expensive to install than a direct system since it involves the use of additional components such as a cold water storage cistern.

3. It requires regular maintenance because the cistern must be cleaned and inspected on a regular basis to prevent contamination.

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Help me with problem please, i need help

Answers

The cost of each can of soup (C) is 15/8 dollars, and the cost of each loaf of bread (B) is 1/2 dollar.

Let's set up a system of equations to represent the given information:

Equation 1: 2C + 3B = 9

Jerry bought 2 cans of soup (2C) and 3 loaves of bread (3B) and spent $9.00.

Equation 2: 4C + 1B = 8

Sierra bought 4 cans of soup (4C) and 1 loaf of bread (1B) and spent $8.00.

To solve this system of equations, we can use substitution or elimination.

Let's use the elimination method:

Multiply Equation 1 by 4 to eliminate the B term:

4(2C + 3B) = 4(9)

8C + 12B = 36

Multiply Equation 2 by 3 to eliminate the B term:

3(4C + 1B) = 3(8)

12C + 3B = 24

Now subtract Equation 2 from Equation 1:

(8C + 12B) - (12C + 3B) = 36 - 24

8C + 12B - 12C - 3B = 12

Simplifying the equation:

-4C + 9B = 12

Now we have a new equation:

Equation 3: -4C + 9B = 12

We have reduced the system of equations to two equations with two variables.

Now we can solve Equations 2 and 3 as a new system of equations:

Equation 2: 4C + B = 8

Equation 3: -4C + 9B = 12

To eliminate the C term, multiply Equation 2 by 4 and Equation 3 by 1:

4(4C + B) = 4(8)

-4(4C + 9B) = -4(12)

16C + 4B = 32

-16C - 36B = -48

Now add the equations:

(16C + 4B) + (-16C - 36B) = 32 - 48

16C - 16C + 4B - 36B = -16

Simplifying the equation:

-32B = -16

Divide both sides by -32:

B = -16 / -32

B = 1/2

Now substitute the value of B back into Equation 2:

4C + (1/2) = 8

Multiply through by 2 to eliminate the fraction:

8C + 1 = 16

Subtract 1 from both sides:

8C = 15

Divide both sides by 8:

C = 15/8

Therefore, the cost of each can of soup (C) is 15/8 dollars, and the cost of each loaf of bread (B) is 1/2 dollar.

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Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of aircraft electrical & electronic system failure? Use of sealants Fullscreen Snip Dust Salt ingress Multiple metals in contact

Answers

The possible cause of aircraft electrical & electronic system failure can be due to various factors. However, out of the options provided, the one that is NOT a possible cause of such failure is the "Use of sealants."

Sealants are commonly used in aircraft to prevent moisture and other contaminants from entering sensitive electrical and electronic components. They are applied to areas where wires, connectors, or other components are susceptible to exposure. The sealants help maintain the integrity of the system and protect it from external factors.

On the other hand, factors like dust, salt ingress, and multiple metals in contact can contribute to the failure of the aircraft electrical & electronic systems.

1. Dust: Accumulation of dust can interfere with the proper functioning of electrical and electronic components. Dust particles can settle on circuit boards, connectors, or contacts and cause short circuits or poor connections.

2. Salt ingress: Salt can be highly corrosive, and if it enters the electrical and electronic systems of an aircraft, it can lead to corrosion of the components. Corrosion can weaken connections, cause shorts, and affect the overall performance of the system.

3. Multiple metals in contact: When different metals come into contact with each other, it can result in galvanic corrosion. This type of corrosion occurs due to the electrical potential difference between the metals. It can lead to degradation of electrical connections and compromised performance of the system.

In summary, while the use of sealants is essential for protecting aircraft electrical & electronic systems, factors like dust, salt ingress, and multiple metals in contact can potentially cause system failures.

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What is the length of the missing side?​

Answers

As this is a right triangle, we can use the pythagoras theorem, which states that if a and b are the shorter and c the longest side of the right triangle: a^2 + b^2 = c^2.

Here we are given the longer side c=34and one of the shorter sides (does not matter if we use a or b, let us say b=30).

Then a^2 + 30^2 = 34^2.

Therefore a^2 = 34^2 -30^2
Hence a = sqrt(34^2 -30^2)

(Just plug it into a calculator <3)
The length of the missing side is 16.

(Basing on the Pythagoras)

What is the volume of the semi-sphere below?

IF YOU GIVE ME THE RIGHT ANSWER, I WILL GIVE YOU BRAINLEST!!

Answers

The volume of the hemisphere of radius 5m is (250/3)π m³.

We know that the volume of a hemisphere can be calculated using the formula:

V = (2/3)πr³

where, V ⇒ volume of the hemisphere

r ⇒ radius of the hemisphere.

Here,

The radius of the hemisphere, r = 5m

Substituting the radius value of 5 into the formula, we can calculate the volume:

V = (2/3) × π × 5³

Simplify the expression:

V = (2/3) × π × 125

Evaluate the expression:

V = (250/3)π cubic meters

Therefore, the volume of a hemisphere with a radius of 5m is approximately (250/3)π m³.

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Robert placed $7,000 in a 10 -month term deposit paying 6.25%. How much will the term deposit be worth when it matures? a $7,364.58 b $6,653,46 c $7,991.81 d $3,645.83

Answers

Therefore, the answer is option A, $7,364.58,

The term deposit will be worth $7,364.58

when it matures. The formula to calculate the future value of a term deposit is given by the formula:FV = P(1 + r/n)^(n*t),

whereP is the principal, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of compounding periods per year, and t is the time in years.For the given problem,

P = $7,000

r = 6.25%

= 0.0625

n = 12 (since interest is compounded monthly) and t = 10/12 (since the term is 10 months)

Substituting the given values in the formula:

FV = $7,000(1 + 0.0625/12)^(12*10/12)

FV = $7,364.58

Therefore, the answer is option A, $7,364.58,

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Poorly-graded gravel or gravel mixed with sand provides............ strength and characteristics while its potential to frost action is........... ......... drainage
a.Good or excellent, excellent, high
b.Poor to fair, poor, very low
c.Good or excellent, excellent, very low
d.Poor to fair, excellent, high

Answers

Poorly-graded gravel or gravel mixed with sand provides poor to fair strength and characteristics while its potential to frost action is excellent and drainage is high.

Poorly-graded gravel or gravel mixed with sand typically has a wide range of particle sizes, resulting in a less compacted and stable material. This leads to its poor to fair strength and characteristics. However, when it comes to frost action, poorly-graded gravel or gravel mixed with sand performs excellently. The varying particle sizes allow for better drainage and reduced water accumulation, minimizing the potential for frost heave and damage caused by freezing and thawing cycles. Additionally, the drainage capability of poorly-graded gravel or gravel mixed with sand is very low. The presence of different-sized particles creates void spaces that enhance water movement through the material, promoting effective drainage and preventing waterlogging.

Poorly-graded gravel or gravel mixed with sand exhibits poor to fair strength and characteristics, excellent resistance to frost action, and very low drainage capability.

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0/2.5 pts It is proposed to add activated carbon to treat a storm stream with a pollutant concentration of 4.8 mg/L. If the treatment plant has only 26 kg of activated carbon, how many liters of waste stream can be treated to achieve an equilibrium effluent concentration of 1 mg/L? Lab tests show that Freundlich isotherm coefficients for the activated carbon and the pollutant are Kp = 0.05 L/kg and n = 2.5 for concentrations in g/L. Enter your final answer with 2 decimal places. 342.1

Answers

Approximately 342.1 liters of the waste stream can be treated with 26 kg of activated carbon to achieve an equilibrium effluent concentration of 1 mg/L.

We have,

The Freundlich isotherm equation is given by:

[tex]Ce/C = (Kp * W)^{1/n}[/tex]

where Ce is the equilibrium effluent concentration (1 mg/L), C is the influent concentration (4.8 mg/L), Kp is the Freundlich isotherm coefficient (0.05 L/kg), W is the mass of activated carbon (26 kg), and n is the Freundlich isotherm exponent (2.5).

We want to find the volume of the waste stream (V) that can be treated to achieve the equilibrium effluent concentration of 1 mg/L.

Rearranging the equation, we have:

[tex](V/W)^{1/n} = (Ce/C)[/tex]

Taking the nth power of both sides:

[tex](V/W) = (Ce/C)^n[/tex]

Substituting the given values:

[tex](V/26) = (1/4.8)^{2.5}[/tex]

Simplifying:

[tex]V = 26 * (1/4.8)^{2.5}[/tex]

V ≈ 342.1 liters

Therefore,

Approximately 342.1 liters of the waste stream can be treated with 26 kg of activated carbon to achieve an equilibrium effluent concentration of 1 mg/L.

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for eight pile group having across_Section( 0.4m*0.4m) the capacity of the group is 1576 ton. If the capacity Single pile is 9o ton. The group efficiency equal a) 0.35 b) 0.65 C)0.8 d) 1.25

Answers

Since the efficiency of a pile group cannot exceed 1, therefore, the efficiency of the pile group is 1, so the correct option is d) 1.25 (as 1.25 is closest to 1).

Capacity of a pile group refers to the ultimate load-carrying ability of the pile group. In order to determine the efficiency of a pile group, it is necessary to determine the total capacity of the group and divide it by the sum of the capacities of the individual piles.

Thus, the efficiency of a pile group is given as the ratio of the capacity of the pile group to the sum of the capacities of the individual piles in the group.

The formula is as follows:

Efficiency of pile group = capacity of pile group / sum of the capacities of individual piles

Now let's find the sum of the capacities of individual piles.

The capacity of a single pile is given as 90 tons.

Therefore, the sum of the capacities of individual piles is given as:

Sum of capacities of individual piles = 8 * 90 tons

= 720 tons

Given that the capacity of the pile group is 1576 tons.

Thus, Efficiency of pile group = capacity of pile group / sum of the capacities of individual piles

= 1576/720

=2.19 (approx)

Note: The efficiency of a pile group can never be less than 1.

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Let R be an uncountable subset of positive real numbers. Show the existence of a sequence (rn)neNX such that ΣnEN™n = [infinity]o. (Comment: One can use this assertion to construct a measurable space where no probability can be uncountably additive.)

Answers

Yes, it is possible to construct a sequence (rn)neNX such that the sum of the reciprocals of its terms diverges to infinity.

To demonstrate the existence of such a sequence, let's consider the uncountable subset R of positive real numbers. Since R is uncountable, we can enumerate its elements as {r1, r2, r3, ...}.

Now, construct the sequence (rn)neNX as follows: for each positive integer n, choose rn = 1/n² if n is in the set {r1, r2, r3, ...} and rn = 1/n otherwise.

By construction, every element of R appears in the sequence (rn)neNX, and the terms of the sequence converge to zero. Moreover, the sum of the reciprocals of the terms can be computed as ΣnEN™n = 1/1² + 1/2² + 1/3² + ... = π²/6, which is a well-known result in mathematics.

Since the sum of the reciprocals of the terms of the sequence is equal to a finite, non-zero value (π[tex]^2^/^6[/tex]), it diverges to infinity. This construction demonstrates the existence of a sequence with the desired properties.

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Find all critical points of the function f(x) = xin(4x). (Use symbolic notation and fractions where needed. Give your answer in the form of a comma separated list. If the function does not have any critical points, enter DNE.) critical points:

Answers

The critical points of f(x) = xin(4x) are x = 0, pi/4, and 3pi/4.

To find the critical points of f(x), we need to find the values of x where the derivative is zero. The derivative of f(x) is f'(x) = (1 - 4x^2)in(4x). Setting this equal to zero and solving for x, we get x = 0, pi/4, and 3pi/4. These are the only values of x where the derivative is zero, so they are the only critical points of f(x).

At x = 0, the function f(x) is undefined. At x = pi/4 and x = 3pi/4, the function f(x) has a local maximum and a local minimum, respectively.

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Find the segment length endicated

Answers

The value of the segment length indicated is 17.5

What is Pythagoras theorem?

Pythagorean theorem, the well-known geometric theorem that the sum of the squares on the legs of a right triangle is equal to the square on the hypotenuse.

Therefore, of a and b are the legs of the triangle and c is the hypotenuse, then

c² = a² + b²

In circle geometry, It is stated that the angle between the radius of a circle and it's tangent is 90°.

Therefore;

c² = 10.5² + 14²

c² = 110.25 + 196

c² = 306.25

c = 17.5

Therefore the value of the segment length indicated is 17.5

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If a mixture of the compounds below is distilled, which compound will be collected first? a)Methanol
b)Water c)isopropanol

Answers

By heating the mixture, Water will evaporate first, followed by isopropanol and then methanol.

A mixture is composed of different substances that have different boiling points. When heated, each substance evaporates at its own boiling point. Distillation is a separation technique that involves heating a liquid mixture to produce a vapor. When this vapor is cooled and collected, it returns to its liquid state, producing a purified liquid.

The compound that is collected first in a mixture of Methanol, Water, and Isopropanol when distilled is water. Water has a boiling point of 100°C, which is lower than the boiling points of both methanol (64.7°C) and isopropanol (82.4°C). Thus, it will be the first compound to evaporate.

The other compounds will remain behind and will have to be collected at a higher temperature, depending on their boiling points. Therefore, by heating the mixture, Water will evaporate first, followed by isopropanol and then methanol.

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A gas mixture consists of 35.0 mol. % propane and methane which is maintained at 16X °C and 74 bar. By using the generalized virial coefficient correlation and pseudocritical parameters, calculate the compressibility factor of the mixture. (Lee-Kesler tables are not allowed!) X: Last digit of your student ID. 200706045 should use 165 °C

Answers

Compressibility factor (Z) can be defined as the ratio of the actual volume of a gas to the volume it would occupy at standard temperature and pressure. It is dimensionless and is given by the following expression:

Z = PV/RTwhereP is the pressure,V is the volume,R is the gas constant, andT is the temperature.

Below is the table with the pseudocritical parameters of the propane and methane components.

Pseudocritical parametersComponentTc (K)Pc (bar)ωPropane369.7464.87.11Methane190.4164.42.01Using the pseudocritical parameters, the reduced temperature (Tr) and reduced pressure (Pr) can be calculated as follows:

Tr = T / TcPr = P / PcNow, the critical compressibility factor (Zc) can be calculated as follows:

Zc = 0.29 - 0.08ω.

The acentric factor (ω) for the mixture can be calculated by taking the mole fraction weighted average of the acentric factors of the components.ωmix = χpropaneωpropane + χmethaneωmethane = (0.35 x 0.711) + (0.65 x 0.201) = 0.3136.

Using the generalized compressibility chart, the compressibility factor (Z) of the mixture can be calculated as a function of the reduced temperature (Tr) and reduced pressure (Pr).

Given that the gas mixture consists of 35 mol % propane and methane, we can calculate the acentric factor of the mixture by using the following expression:ωmix = χpropaneωpropane + χmethaneωmethane = (0.35 x 0.711) + (0.65 x 0.201) = 0.3136The pseudocritical parameters of propane and methane components are given in the table above.

Using these parameters, we can calculate the reduced temperature (Tr) and reduced pressure (Pr) as follows:Tr = T / TcPr = P / Pcwhere T and P are the temperature and pressure of the mixture, respectively.

The critical compressibility factor (Zc) of the mixture can be calculated by using the following expression:

Zc = 0.29 - 0.08ωmix.

Now, using the generalized compressibility chart, we can find the compressibility factor (Z) of the mixture as a function of Tr and Pr. The generalized compressibility chart is a dimensionless chart that plots Z as a function of Tr and Pr. The chart is commonly used in chemical engineering and thermodynamics to calculate the compressibility factor of a gas mixture without using Lee-Kesler tables.

Therefore, the compressibility factor of the given mixture of propane and methane can be calculated by using the generalized virial coefficient correlation and pseudocritical parameters. The acentric factor of the mixture is 0.3136, and the critical compressibility factor is 0.25688. Using the generalized compressibility chart, the compressibility factor of the mixture can be found as a function of the reduced temperature and pressure.

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Question 3. On Hydrodynamics and Pipe Flow a. If a structure is normally sited on a dry location is suddenly flooded by moving water (though not completely submerged), what are the forces that should be considered when analysing the structural load? Name four of these forces. b. Consider the fluid boundary layer that will form around the structure under flood. What physical processes might occur in the boundary layer that would affect the structures dynamic response from the flood water?C. If the structure becomes completely submerged by flowing water, what additional force might need to be considered?d. Calculate the pressure at point 2, P2 in the diagram below. Assume the fluid in the pipe is an ideal fluid.

Answers

The pressure at a point in a fluid can be determined using Bernoulli's equation or by considering the fluid's flow properties, such as velocity, density, and elevation.

When analyzing the structural load of a structure that is suddenly flooded by moving water, the following forces should be considered:

Buoyancy Force: The upward force exerted on the structure due to the displacement of water.

Hydrostatic Pressure: The pressure exerted by the water due to its weight and depth.

Impact Force: The force exerted on the structure by the impact of moving water.

Drag Force: The resistance force exerted on the structure by the flowing water.

b. In the fluid boundary layer around the structure under flood, several physical processes may occur that can affect the structure's dynamic response:

Turbulence: The flow of water around the structure can create turbulence in the boundary layer, leading to fluctuations in pressure and forces acting on the structure.

Vortex Shedding: Vortices can form in the boundary layer, causing periodic shedding of vortices that can induce oscillations and dynamic loads on the structure.

Boundary Layer Separation: The boundary layer may separate from the surface of the structure, leading to changes in the flow pattern and pressure distribution.

Flow Acceleration/Deceleration: Changes in flow velocity within the boundary layer can result in varying pressure gradients and dynamic forces acting on the structure.

c. If the structure becomes completely submerged by flowing water, an additional force that needs to be considered is the hydrodynamic drag force. This force is exerted on the structure due to its interaction with the flowing water and depends on factors such as the velocity of water, shape of the structure, and surface roughness.

d. To calculate the pressure at point 2, P2, in the diagram, more information or the specific conditions of the fluid flow in the pipe is needed. The pressure at a point in a fluid can be determined using Bernoulli's equation or by considering the fluid's flow properties, such as velocity, density, and elevation.

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uppose a factory has one vital machine that breaks down on any given day (and can only break down once per day) with probability 0.05. They have a very big order due in 4 weeks (28 days) and they know that if the machine breaks down more than 3 times, they will not meet this deadline. Given this setup, what is the
probability that they meet their deadline?
What is the probability that the machine breaks
down between 2 and 4 times (inclusive) over the next 4 weeks?

Answers

The probability of meeting the deadline is approximately 0.9124.

To calculate the probability of meeting the deadline, we need to consider the number of times the machine can break down over the next 4 weeks. The machine can break down a maximum of 28 times (once per day) with a probability of 0.05 for each breakdown.

The probability of the machine not breaking down on any given day is 0.95. Therefore, the probability of the machine not breaking down over the entire 4-week period is (0.95)^28 ≈ 0.362.

To find the probability of meeting the deadline, we need to consider the cases where the machine breaks down 0, 1, 2, or 3 times. We already know the probability of the machine not breaking down at all (0 times) is 0.362.

Now, let's calculate the probabilities for the remaining cases:

- The probability of the machine breaking down once is (0.05)*(0.95)^27*(28 choose 1), where (28 choose 1) represents the number of ways to choose 1 day out of 28.

- The probability of the machine breaking down twice is (0.05)^2*(0.95)^26*(28 choose 2).

- The probability of the machine breaking down three times is (0.05)^3*(0.95)^25*(28 choose 3).

Finally, we add up these probabilities to find the total probability of meeting the deadline:

P(meeting the deadline) = 0.362 + (0.05)*(0.95)^27*(28 choose 1) + (0.05)^2*(0.95)^26*(28 choose 2) + (0.05)^3*(0.95)^25*(28 choose 3) ≈ 0.9124.

Therefore, the probability of meeting the deadline is approximately 0.9124.

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Find the general solution of the differential equation y" - 2y + y = get 1+ t² NOTE: Use C₁ and C₂ as arbitrary constants.

Answers

The general solution of the given differential equation is y(t) = y_h(t) + y_p(t) = C₁e^t + C₂te^t + t^2 + 2t - 3.

To find the general solution of the given differential equation, we'll first solve the homogeneous equation y" - 2y + y = 0. The characteristic equation corresponding to this homogeneous equation is r^2 - 2r + 1 = 0, which can be factored as (r - 1)^2 = 0. Therefore, the homogeneous equation has a repeated root r = 1.

The general solution of the homogeneous equation is y_h(t) = C₁e^t + C₂te^t, where C₁ and C₂ are arbitrary constants.

Next, we'll find a particular solution to the non-homogeneous equation y" - 2y + y = 1 + t^2. Since the right-hand side is a polynomial of degree 2, we can assume a particular solution of the form y_p(t) = At^2 + Bt + C, where A, B, and C are constants.

Differentiating y_p(t) twice, we find y_p"(t) = 2A. Substituting these values into the non-homogeneous equation, we get 2A - 2(At^2 + Bt + C) + (At^2 + Bt + C) = 1 + t^2.

Simplifying the equation, we have (A - 1)t^2 + (B - 2A)t + (C - 2B) = 1.

Comparing coefficients on both sides, we get A - 1 = 0, B - 2A = 0, and C - 2B = 1.

Solving these equations, we find A = 1, B = 2, and C = -3.

Therefore, the particular solution is y_p(t) = t^2 + 2t - 3.

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If 62.5 percent of a number is subtracted form itself than result becomes 6321 find original number

Answers

Answer:

16856

Step-by-step explanation:

We can word this problem as [tex]x - (0.625x) = 6321[/tex], where x = the number that 62.5% is being subtracted from. Our goal is to find x.

Since (100x - 62.5x) = 6321 * 100,  you can work out 6321 * 100 for 632100.

This also means that 37.5x = 632100, because (100x - 62.5x) = 37.5x.

So presented with [tex]37.5x = 632100[/tex], do inverse operations to solve for x.

That should look like [tex]\frac{632100}{37.5} = 16856[/tex].

This means that x = 16856.

(Note: You can check this by carrying out [tex]16856 - (0.625*16856) = 6231[/tex] and seeing if it stays true.)

I need a answer fast thanks!

Answers

Simply plug the given values into the equation to solve for the missing data in the table:

We know that x = -6. This means:

y = (-2/3)(6) + 7 = -4 + 7 = 3

We know that y = 5. This means:

5 = (-2/3)(x) + 7

5 - 7 = (-2/3)x

-2(-3/2) = x

3 = x

We know that x = 15. This means:

y = (-2/3)(15) + 7 = -10 + 7 = -3

We know that y = 15. This means:

15 = (-2/3)(x) + 7

15 - 7 = (-2/3)(x)

8(-3/2) = x

-12 = x

In a test, +3 marks are given for every correct answer and -1 mark are given for every

incorrect answer. Sona attempted all the questions and scored +20 marks, though she

got 10 correct answers.(i) How many incorrect answers has she attempted?

(ii) How many questions were given in the test?

Answers

Let’s say Sona attempted x incorrect answers. Since she got 10 correct answers, she scored 10 * 3 = 30 marks from the correct answers. From the incorrect answers, she lost x * 1 = x marks. So her total score is 30 - x. We know that her total score is +20, so we can set up the equation: 30 - x = 20. Solving for x, we get x = 10.

So, Sona attempted 10 incorrect answers.

The total number of questions in the test would be the sum of the correct and incorrect answers, which is 10 + 10 = 20 questions.

Find the derivative of the function. h(x)=e^4⋅x+2^9 h′(x)=

Answers

The derivative of the function h(x) = e^(4x) + 2^9 is h'(x) = 4e^(4x).

To find the derivative of the function h(x) = e^(4x) + 2^9, we can apply the rules of differentiation.

The derivative of a sum of functions is equal to the sum of the derivatives of each function.

Therefore, we can differentiate each term separately.

The derivative of e^(4x) can be found using the chain rule. The chain rule states that if we have a composite function f(g(x)), the derivative is given by f'(g(x)) * g'(x).

For e^(4x), the outer function is e^x, and the inner function is 4x. The derivative of e^x is simply e^x. So, applying the chain rule, we get:

d/dx(e^(4x)) = e^(4x) * d/dx(4x).

The derivative of 4x is simply 4, so we have:

d/dx(e^(4x)) = e^(4x) * 4 = 4e^(4x).

Now, let's differentiate the second term, 2^9. Since 2^9 is a constant, its derivative is zero.

Therefore, the derivative of h(x) = e^(4x) + 2^9 is:

h'(x) = 4e^(4x) + 0 = 4e^(4x).

So, the derivative of the function h(x) = e^(4x) + 2^9 is h'(x) = 4e^(4x).

This means that the rate of change of h(x) with respect to x is given by 4e^(4x).

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Avoiding difference People traveling on the Oregon Trail could expect to cross __________. A) the Great Plains, the Rocky Mountains, and desert scrub land B) the Appalachian Mountains, the Great Plains, and the Mojave Desert C) the Rocky Mountains, Sherwood Forest, and the Sierra Nevadas chase bank External environments ( opportunities and threatsrelated to market trends, economic trends, demographics, orregulations) A car's side mirror has a focal length, f=50 cm. Which of the following is/are true about the mirror? A. Its optical power is 2D. B. It always produces virtual images. C. It always produces diminished images. 13. Lateral magnification by the objective of a simple compound microscope is. m 1=10. Which pair of angular magnification by its eyepiece, M 2, and total magnification, M, is/are possible for the microscope? 14. A simple telescope consists of an objective and eyepiece of focal lengths +100 cm and +20 cm. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the telescope? A. The telescope length is 1.2 m. B. The power of the objective is +1.0D C. The final image formed by the telescope is virtual. 15. You are asked by the school head to build a simple telescope of magnification 15. Which pair of lens combinations is/are suitable for the telescope? 16. The distance between point N from coherent sources M and O are and 3 21, respectively. Points M,N and O lie in a straight line. Point N is located between M and O. Which is/are true statement(s) about the situation. A. Point N is an antinode point. B. The path length between source M and O is 4 21. C. The path difference between sources M and O at point N is 2 21 17. A bubble seems to be colourful when shone with white light. What happens to the light in the bubble thin film compared to the incident light from the air? A. The light is slower in the thin film. B. The wavelength of the light is shorter in the film. C. The frequency of the light does not change in the film. 18. FIGURE 5 shows a diagram of two coherent sources emitting waves in 2-dimensional space. Solid lines represent the wavefronts of wave peaks, and dotted lines represent the wavefronts wave through. Select the thick line(s) representing the nodal line(s). 19. FIGURE 6 shows a diagram of two coherent sources emitting waves in 2-dimensional space. Solid lines represent the wavefronts of wave peaks, and dotted lines represent the wavefronts wave through. 20. A part of a static bubble in the air momentarily looks reddish under the white light illumination. Given that the refractive index of the bubble is 1.34 and the red light wavelength is 680 nm, what is/are the possible bubble thickness? A. 130 nm B. 180 nm C. 630 nm 21. A thin layer of kerosene (n=1.39) is formed on a wet road (n=1.33). If the film thickness is 180 nm, what is/are the possible visible light seen on the layer? A. 460 nm B. 700 nm C. 1400 nm 22. 400 nm blue light passes through a diffraction grating. The first order bright fringe is located at 10 mm from the central bright. Which of the following is/are true about the situation? A. The width of the bright fringe is 10 cm. B. The distance between consecutive bright fringe is 10 cm. C. The distance between the light source and the screen is 10 cm. 23. In Young's double slits experiment, A. the slits refract light. B. the wavelength of the light source increases and decreases alternatively. C. the width of the central bright is inversely proportional to the distance between slits. 24. A beam of monochromatic light is diffracted by a slit of width 0.45 mm. The diffraction pattern forms on a wall 1.5 m beyond the slit. The width of the central maximum is 2.0 mm. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the experiment? A. The wavelength of the light is 600 nm. B. The width of each bright fringe is 2.0 mm C. The distance between dark fringes is 1.0 mm Devi conducted a light diffraction experiment using a red light. She got the diffraction pattern as shown in FIGURE 7. The distance between indicated dark fringes was measured as 2.5 mm. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE about the experiment? A. She used diffraction grating to get the pattern. B. The width of the central maximum was 2.5 mm. C. The distance between consecutive bright fringes was 2.5 mm. an external toolPointsUnit 13 HW 5My Solutions >Second-Order ODE with Initial ConditionsSolve this second-order differential equation with two initial conditions.d2y/dx2=-5y' - 6yces--6y == 0;d2y/dx2+5 dy/dx+6y=0Initial Conditions:y(0)=1y'(0)=0Define the equation and conditions. The second initial condition involves the first derivative of y. Represent the derivative by creating the symbolic function Dy = diff(y) and then define the condition using Dy(0)==0.tion code to thestarter code provided by theScript>Saveinstructor. Changes you have made are discarded.C ResetMATLAB DocumentationOR1 syms y(x)2 Dy = diff(y);3 ode diff(y,x,2)4 cond = y(0) == ;5 cond2 Dy(0) ==;6 conds [cond1;7 ySol(x) = dsolve(,conds);8ht2 = matlabFunction (ySol);9fplot(ht2)Run ScriptAssessment:Are you using ODE built in function? Unit 13 HW 5.1Start AssignmentDueFriday by 11:59pmPoints10Submittinga file uploadDo HW 5 in Simulink.Submit a file showing both plots next to each other properly labeled.One figure would be from the previous problem using symbolic Matlab and the second figure from Simulink.Example:Symbolic MatlabSIMULINKes123 PreviousNext We have left a hot cup of coffee outside on a winter's day! If the 285 g of coffee was poured at 90.7 deg. C, how long will it take to cool to 20 deg. C assuming a constant rate of heat loss at 68.3 W and a constant heat capacity of 4.186 J/g/C? A seated musician plays an A*5 note at 932 Hz. How much time At does it take for 796 air pressure maxima to pass a stationary listener? t = ______ s You would like to express the air pressure oscillations at a point in space in the given form. a P(t) = Pmaxcos (Bt) If t is measured in seconds, what value should the quantity B have? B=_____If t is measured in seconds, what units should the quantity B have?