Judy has depression, and despite medicine and various therapy, she is not improving.In light of this, her doctor may advise recurrent TMS as a form of treatment (rTMS).
What is rTMS treatment used for?Using a series of brief magnetic pulses to stimulate nerve cells in regions of the brain known to be linked to significant depression, TMS is a noninvasive technological advancement.Due to the repeating nature of the magnetic pulses used in the treatment for depression, it is frequently referred to as repetitive TMS (rTMS). A changing magnetic field is used to electromagnetically create an electric current to a particular region of the brain during transcranial magnetic stimulation, a non-invasive method of brain stimulation.A magnetic coil attached to the scalp is coupled to an electric pulse generator or stimulator.An electromagnetic coil is applied to the scalp close to the forehead during a rTMS session.An electromagnetic pulse is painlessly delivered by the electromagnet, stimulating the nerve cells in the area of the brain responsible for mood regulation and depression.To learn more about rTMS treatment refer
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a client is scheduled for a renal arteriogram. no allergies are recorded in the client's medical record, and the client is unable to provide allergy information. during the arteriogram, the nurse should be alert for which assessment finding that may indicate an allergic reaction to the dye used?
Pruritus may indicate allergic reaction to the dye used.
A moderate allergic reaction to the arteriogram dye may manifest as itching and urticaria, therefore the nurse should be on the lookout for these symptoms. Both dyspnea and decreased (not increased) attentiveness could happen (not hypoventilation). Skin that is remarkably smooth is not an indication of anaphylaxis.
An impulse to scratch that is painful and irritating and can occur anywhere on the body.
The painful, irritable feeling of having itchy skin makes you want to scratch. Itchy skin, also referred to as pruritus, is frequently brought on by dry skin. Given that aging skin tends to get drier, older persons frequently experience it.
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the older adult client tells the health care provider about experiencing incontinence ever since starting diuretic therapy 2 weeks ago. what term should the provider document in the medical record related to the type of incontinence?
The older adult client tells the healthcare provider about experiencing incontinence ever since starting diuretic therapy 2 weeks ago. The type of incontinence the provider should document in the medical record is "transient".
What is transient incontinence?
Incontinence on its own is a health condition that affects urine flow when it is urinary incontinence or how stool is being passed from the rectum, in the form of fecal incontinence. Generally, this condition is not easily cured.
However, transient incontinence is when this condition becomes treatable due to the cure of the underlying issue that caused it.
Stroke, certain medications, stress, and depression are some known underlying causes of incontinence.
In summary, the diuretic therapy was the underlying cause of incontinence. If the diuretic therapy is removed, the client might not experience incontinence again. Hence, incontinence becomes transient.
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which descriptions are advantages of health care information technology (it)? (select all that apply.)
Answer:
which descriptions are advantages of health care information technology (it)? (select all that apply)
1. IT can help to improve the quality of patient care.
2. IT can help to reduce the cost of health care.
3. IT can help to improve the efficiency of health care delivery.
4. IT can help to improve communication between patients and providers.
5. IT can help to improve the coordination of care between different providers.
6. IT can help to provide patients with better access to their health care information.
7. IT can help to improve the privacy and security of health care information.
oral metronidazole (flagyl) is prescribed for a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis, a protozoan infection. what precautions should the practical nurse (pn) instruct the client to follow while taking this medication?
The precautions would be ''if the patient consumes ethanol (alcohol) while taking metronidazole (flagyl), a reaction similar to that of disulfiram (Antabuse) may happen''.
What is vaginal trichomoniasis ?A common sexually transmitted ailment called trichomoniasis is brought on by a parasite. Trichomoniasis in women can result in unpleasant vaginal discharge, itchy genitalia, and painful urination.Trichomonas in men often causes no symptoms. Trichomonasis-infected pregnant women may be more likely to birth their newborns early.Taking an antibiotic, such as metronidazole (Flagyl), tinidazole (Tindamax), or secnidazole, is the primary method of treatment for trichomoniasis (Solosec). All sexual partners should receive treatment at the same time to avoid contracting the infection again. By carefully using condoms each time you have sex, you can lower your chance of contracting an infection.symptoms :
A significant amount of a thin, frequently unpleasant-smelling vaginal discharge that may be clear, white, gray, yellow, or green.Itching, burning, and redness in the genitalia.Pain during sex or urination.A lower stomach area that hurts.Learn more about Vaginal trichomoniasis refer :
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a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) is treated with exposure therapy. what change is most likely expected in the client after receiving this therapy?
A client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is treated with exposure therapy and the expected in the client after receiving this therapy is being able to control thoughts and feelings about the event.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental state condition that is triggered by a alarming event — either experiencing it or witnessing it. Symptoms might embody flashbacks, nightmares and severe anxiety, furthermore as uncontrollable thoughts concerning the event.
Exposure therapy is employed to treat turning away behavior in shoppers with anxiety disorder. The medical aid might facilitate the shopper face and management the thoughts relating to the traumatic event. This medical aid doesn't directly cause improvement in group action or sleep quality or stop dreams from occurring.
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the goal of hospice care is to provide group of answer choices medical options for the treatment of terminal illnesses so that death can be avoided. death with dignity and pain management in a humane and comfortable setting. liaisons to experimental treatments that might not be readily available for some patients. legal options for family members making medical decisions on the part of another.
The goal of hospice care is to provide death with dignity and pain management in a humane and comfortable setting and is denoted as option B.
What is Hospice?This is referred to as a type of home which provides care for the sick or terminally ill. This is available to people who are nearing the end of life and have some month or weeks before dying.
This type of home provides care and comfort which ensures that death comes with dignity and the appropriate pain management which is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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a client with tuberculosis receiving cycloserine orally twice daily must have blood drawn in 1 week to measure the serum concentration of the medication. the nurse prepares the client for this test by providing which information to the client?
The nurse's instructions for the test are to take the morning dosage & have the blood collected two hours later.
Since the 1950s, cyclosporine has been utilized in the treatment of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB).
The use of cyclosporine in the majority of MDR-TB patients is justified by the drug's favorable safety profile. Patients experiencing simple MDR-TB were much more likely to have a good result with cyclosporine than those with pre-XDR-TB or XDR-TB. As a result, individuals with pre-XDR-TB or XDR-TB may need more rigorous regimens.
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a nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. what procedure would the nurse educate the patient about for termination of the dysrhythmia?
The procedure that would the nurse educate the patient about for termination of the dysrhythmia is elective cardioversion.
What is elective cardioversion?A controlled electrical current is delivered to your heart muscle by special electrodes attached to the skin on your chest and back during elective (nonemergent) cardioversion. Cardioversion attempts to restore normal rhythm (sinus rhythm).
If the ventricular rate is not too slow, atrial fibrillation can also be treated with elective cardioversion or digitalis.
A ventricular problem is treated with defibrillation. A Mace procedure is merely a diversion from this question. Pacemakers are used to treat bradycardia.
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scholars can provide advice on discharge instructions, prescriptions, and how the patient should manage their pain.
a. true
b. false
It is false that scholars can provide advice on discharge instructions, prescriptions, and how the patient should manage their pain.
Discharge instructions are outlined as any style of documentation given to the patient or guardian, upon discharge to home, for the aim of facilitating safe and acceptable continuity of care. Discharge instructions play many crucial roles. They assist a patient perceive what's identified concerning their condition and what was in hot water them within the emergency department.They conjointly give a thought for treatment and follow-up and reasons to come to the emergency department.
Discharge prescriptions are the indication that a drugs ought to be taken by or given to the patient when being discharged from an encounter.
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all of the following patients would indicate the need for professional topical fluoride treatment except one. which one is the exception? group of answer choices a patient wearing orthodontic appliances a patient who exhibits xerostomia a patient who does not have community water fluoridation a patient with postsurgical exposed root none of these are correct.
None of the given options are correct. All of the patients would indicate the need for professional topical fluoride treatment.
Fluoride treatments are generally professional procedures that a dentist or dental hygienist applies to a patient's teeth to enhance oral health and lower the risk of cavities. These in-office procedures might come in the shape of a varnish, gel, solution, or foam.
Professional fluoride treatments are given by dentists in the form of a foam, gel, varnish, or highly concentrated rinse. A brush, tray, swab, or mouthwash can all be used to provide the therapy. Fluoride in these treatments is substantially higher than in your water or toothpaste. Applying them just takes a few minutes.
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Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
a. Temperature regulation
b. Hunger sensation
c. Postural reflexes
d. Processing areas
Answer:
c. Postural reflexes
Explanation:
Postural reflexes is function of vestibulocerebellum which consists principally of the small flocculonodular cerebellar loves that liye under posterior cerebellum and adjacent portion of the vermis.
a nurse is caring for a client, age 4 years, who is being treated for osteomyelitis in his left femur. he is on a 28-day course of iv vancomycin to be administered daily at 1300. today is day 3 of treatment, and the pharmacist asks the nurse to draw a peak vancomycin level. what would be the most appropriate time to draw this blood?
The best moment to take his blood is when the nurse measures the peak vancomycin level at 1500.
What role does the VRE play?
The bacteria can sometimes develop drug resistance. They can therefore survive despite the fact that the medicine is meant to kill them. Vancomycin-resistant enterococci, or VRE, are the name for these superbugs. Because they are more challenging to treat than common infections, they are harmful.
VRE can infect the bloodstream, wounds connected to catheters or surgical incisions, other body sites, or the urinary tract. Symptoms will vary depending on where the infection is but may include fever and soreness there.
Therefore, A nurse is taking care of a 4-year-old patient who has osteomyelitis in his left femur and is receiving treatment for it.
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the nurse is assessing a pregnant client with type 1 diabetes mellitus about her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. the nurse determines that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?
"I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy."
Do insulin needs decrease in the first trimester?Due to higher pancreatic and peripheral insulin sensitivity during the first trimester of pregnancy, there is a reduction in the need for insulin. The client knows how to manage her diabetes while pregnant, as evidenced by the truthfulness of alternatives 2, 3, and 4.
Insulin needs may decrease until the end of the first trimester as a result of these early pregnancy changes to your blood glucose levels. To lower your chance of hypos, particularly severe ones, you probably need to adjust your insulin dosages or pump delivery now.
Mostly based on clinical experience, it has been claimed that the first trimester will see a more mild, temporary drop in insulin demand. A few days of normal or almost normal fasting and postprandial glucose levels may precede the decline, which might happen suddenly, even overnight.
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an informatics nurse specialist is involved in evaluating a new electronic documentation system being used by the facility. the nurse specialist has collected the necessary data, analyzed it, and is now preparing to display the data using a bar graph to present the information. when displaying the data, which information would be important for the nurse specialist to include? select all that apply.
While displaying the data, nurse specialist should include the following important information :
* Title of the graph
* Date range
* Sample size
* Legends for colors
A health practitioner specialist specializes in a particular region of drugs or a collection of sufferers to diagnose, manage, save you or deal with sure forms of signs and conditions
A senior doctor who practises in one of the clinical or surgical specialties with know-how in the breadth in their area of expertise. They're expected to offer consultation and control complex instances and they are considered an professional inside the care they deliver.
Scientific specialists like internists, own family remedy physicians, and pediatricians promote healthful dwelling and treat ailment with medicinal drugs. Surgical professionals like fashionable surgeons consciousness on situations which could want a system or surgery.
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a patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (dvt) is being treated with unfractionated heparin, which is being administered intravenously. the nurse who is providing care for this patient should consequently prioritize what assessments?
The nurse tending to the patient who has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving unfractionated heparin intravenously should prioritize looking for internal and external bleeding.
When used therapeutically, heparin has bleeding as one of its main adverse effects. There is currently a lot of proof that employing low molecular weight heparins, heparinoids, and heparin with poor affinity to AT III can separate the hemorrhagic and antithrombotic effects of heparin.
This medication may result in severe bleeding. This occurs as a result of the drug's reduction in your body's capacity to produce blood clots. You could bruise more readily if you take heparin. Your body may also take longer to cease bleeding.
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The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the.
The diencephalon is the part of the brain that surrounds the third ventricle and consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and subthalamus.
What one of the three areas of the brainstem is most rostral?One of the three divisions of the brainstem is the midbrain, which is the division closest to the top of the brainstem and the most rostral of the three. A region known as the midbrain-diencephalon junction is where the midbrain joins the brainstem to the diencephalon.
Does the third ventricle have a diencephalon enclosure?The thalamus, which encircles the third ventricle, is a distinguishing feature of the diencephalon at this level. The internal capsule's posterior limb divides the thalamus from the surrounding telencephalic tissues (i.e., the globus pallidus and putamen).
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At what age can an infant start to eat rice cereal mixed with breast milk or formula?.
An infant can start to eat rice cereal mixed with breastmilk or formula at around six months old.
Generally, babies are not ready for solid foods until they are around six months old. Rice cereal is considered a solid food. By the time babies are around eight months old, they can start to eat a variety of foods from different food groups, such as meat, fruits, vegetables, dairy, and more.
You must note that it's important to offer a variety of fortified cereals if your infant wants to eat cereals. By fortified, it means cereals that have a good amount of vitamins, minerals, and other nutrients, so they can still get enough nutrition.
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the staff educator for a pediatric unit is presenting a class to a group of new nurses. today they are talking about emergent situations in infants. what would the staff educator identify as the most common cause of emergent situations in infants?
the staff educator would identify Respiratory decompensation as the most common cause of emergent situations in infants.
Respiratory decompensation is defined as the need for supplemental oxygen of any type, a high-flow nasal cannula, noninvasive ventilation (bilevel positive pressure or continuous positive pressure), or endotracheal intubation within 72 hours of admission.
An Emergent Situation is defined as a sudden, urgent, or unexpected occurrence or occasion that necessitates immediate action to protect against an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare or to protect against an imminent threat of significant property damage.
If your Infant is not breathing, is unconscious or is having a seizure, or you are concerned that your child's life is in danger or that your child is seriously ill or injured, dial 911.
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based on given half-life of selenium at what rate is this radioactive isotope, reducing in patient's bodt?
The half-life of 75Se, a radioactive isotope of selenium used in pancreatic imaging, is 119.77 days.
How is radioactive decay calculated using half-life?
A reaction's half-life is the time it takes for the reactant concentration to fall to one-half of its initial value. The half-life of a first-order reaction is perpetual which is proportional to the rate constant: t1/2 = 0.693/k. First-order reactions are radioactive decay reactions.
Selenium-80 is the most common, accounting for roughly half of all natural selenium. Selenium-74 (0.9%), selenium-76 (9.4%), selenium-77 (7.6%), selenium-78 (24%), and selenium-82 (8.7%) are the other five stable isotopes and their relative proportions.
Therefore, 75Se, a radioactive isotope of bused in pancreatic imaging, has a half-life of 119.77 days.
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a 52-year-old woman has just been told she has breast cancer and is scheduled for a modified mastectomy the following week. the nurse caring for this client knows that she is anxious and fearful about the upcoming procedure and the newly diagnosed malignancy. how can the nurse most likely alleviate this client's fears?
The nurse caring for this client knows that she is anxious and fearful about the upcoming mastectomy therefore the nurse can most likely alleviate the client's fears by telling her that it is important to prevent it from spreading to other parts and for a permanent resolution.
Whom is a Nurse?This is referred to as healthcare professionals which specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved thereby reducing the risks of complications.
Mastectomy is referred to as the medical procedure which is used to remove all breast tissue from a breast son as to treat or prevent breast cancer in individuals.
The nurse will most likely alleviate the client's fears by telling her that it is important to prevent it from spreading to other parts and for a permanent resolution.
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a primipara client gave birth vaginally to a healthy newborn girl 48 hours ago. the nurse palpates the client's fundus and documents which finding as normal?
The nurse examines the client's fundus by palpating it and notes that the level of the umbilicus is normal.
What increases a client's chance of bleeding on the first postpartum day?Uterine atony, a disease in which the uterus does not contract vigorously enough, causes hemorrhage because these blood vessels flow easily. This is the most frequent reason for postpartum bleeding.
Which assessment of the mother should be done right away in the first two hours following delivery?the first day following birth: Every postpartum woman should undergo routine evaluations of vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions, fundal height, temperature, and heart rate (pulse) over the first 24 hours beginning with the hour following delivery. Immediately following birth, blood pressure should be checked.
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Which medication is used to decrease portal pressure, halting bleeding of esophageal varices?.
The medication used to decrease portal pressure and halt the bleeding of esophageal varices is: vasopressin. To prevent any side effects, vasopressin is usually registered with nitroglycerin.
What is vasopressin?Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or arginine vasopressin (AVP), is a drug that regulates blood pressure, blood osmolality, and blood pressure volume. It stimulates water reabsorption and helps our kidneys to control the amount of salt and water in our bodies. Hence, to decrease portal pressure and halt the bleeding of esophageal varices, we can get a vasopressin injection to control the urination frequency, and increase thirst so the water loss from our body can be minimalized.
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shane, a 25-year-old man, is diagnosed with asthma. he began an albuterol mdi 2 weeks ago. he reports that his symptoms persist in spite of using albuterol mdi as prescribed. what advice should the nurse give the client?
Shane has been identified as having asthma. 2 weeks ago, he started using an albuterol MDI. He laments the fact that his symptoms still exist despite utilising his albuterol MDI as directed. The recommendation must be to speak with the doctor to get further drugs.
An example of a short-acting bronchodilator is albuterol. By allowing the smooth muscles in your airways to relax, it can help you recover from an asthma attack. A metered dose inhaler is typically used to administer it. Albuterol is used to treat severe asthma attacks. If you go to the emergency room while having an asthma attack, you'll need medication right away to control your asthma. These may consist of: beta-agonists with a brief action, like albuterol.
Thus, we may conclude that the recommendation must be made to him to contact a healthcare professional in order to receive supplementary medications.
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Complete Question
Shane, a 25-year-old man, is diagnosed with asthma. He began an albuterol MDI 2 weeks ago. He complains that his symptoms persist in spite of using his albuterol MDI as prescribed. What advice must he be given?
A. Contact the health care provider to obtain an increased dosage of albuterol.
B. Contact the health care provider to obtain adjunctive medications.
C. Use the MDI more often.
D. Clean the MDI thoroughly on a regular basis.
E. Contact the health care provider to obtain adjunctive medications.
you have been called for a geriatric patient with advanced demential. the staff at the skilled nursing facility believe her to be suffering from a urinary tract infection. at bedside, you find her to be confused and aggressive. she is on constant oxygen at 3 lpm for copd. during transport, she repeatedly spits and tries to strike you. you should respond by:
Move aside from the patient in response so she cannot attack you.
The term "geriatrics" relates to the medical treatment of elderly people, a difficult-to-define age category. Gerontology is the study of aging, which includes changes in biology, society, and psychology. Although "older" is preferable over "elderly," both phrases lack precision.
Any infection in the urinary system is referred to as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra are components of the urinary system. Most infections affect the bladder and urethra, which are parts of the lower urinary system.
Compared to males, women are more likely to get a urinary tract infection (UTI). An infection that just affects the bladder can be uncomfortable and unpleasant. A urinary tract infection (UTI), however, can spread to the kidneys and cause major health issues.
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the nurse is caring for a 2-month-old with a cleft palate. the child will undergo corrective surgery at age 3 months. the mother would like to continue breastfeeding the baby after surgery and wonders if it is possible. how should the nurse respond?
If the mother would like to continue breastfeed the baby after surgery the nurse should respond by saying "Breastfeeding is likely to be possible, but check with the surgeon."
Most women can breastfeed normally after anesthesia and surgery, without having to pump and discard breast milk. If a medication could otherwise be prescribed to the infant for a medical condition, it is generally thought to be safe for the mother to take while breastfeeding.
Breastfeeding should not be affected by general anesthesia. Once you are awake and alert enough to hold your baby, you can safely nurse. By that point, the amount of medication in your bloodstream is so low that the amounts in your milk are negligible.
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after undergoing billroth i gastric surgery, the client experiences fatigue and complains of numbness and tingling in the feet and difficulties with balance. on the basis of these symptoms, the nurse suspects which postoperative complication?
The postoperative complication that this patient may have is that it results in pernicious anemia.
Why can this operation cause pernicious anemia?In billroth i gastric surgery, what happens is that the distal two thirds of the stomach are removed, joining the rest of it to the duodenum. But patients with billroth i gastric surgery can get to generate pernicious anemia since there will not be a correct absorption of vitamin B12, which is generated in the stomach. This generates poor iron absorption and iron deficiency leading to pernicious anemia.
Pernicious anemia is one that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12, since this vitamin helps us to produce red blood cells.
Therefore, we can confirm that the postoperative complication that this patient may have is that it results in pernicious anemia.
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the nurse is caring for a preterm infant with necrotizing enterocolitis (nec). which nursing interventio is most important for this infant
The nursing intervention that is most important for preterm infants with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is to measure the abdominal girth.
What is the necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition?The necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition is a health problem that occurs during the development of infants in which tissue in the bowel is inflamed. This inflammation occurs in small and or large intestines.
The diagnosis of the necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition may be made through different medical procedures which include, for example, the observation of fecal samples under a microscope, also by the observation of the substances in the blood, or through X rays tests.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition is a health problem that occurs in infants and may affect the abdominal girth, thereby the measurement of this region may be indicative of this disease.
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an adolescent is admitted with partial- and full-thickness burns of the arms and upper torso. which are the primary purposes of administering pain medication via the intravenous route, rather than the intramuscular route? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The primary purposes of administering pain medication via the intravenous route, rather than the intramuscular route helps in decreasing the damage done to burned tissues and the irritation caused to them.
Intravenous and intramuscular drug routes are essential in the treatment of clinical seizure where oral drugs cannot be used. Using intramuscular rather than intravenous can damage already damaged tissues.
intravenous have more advantage over intramuscular like, Bioavailability is 100%, drug reaches the stream of blood immediately, drugs can be delivered at a uniform rate, very large volumes can be infused and etc.
This also help reduce severe pains.
This intravenous route can go into blood streams works in minutes.
Intramuscular can cause inadequate amounts of medications absorbed.
hence, decreasing the risk of tissues irritation, decreases the infection rate and hence intravenous is much preferred.
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which factors are more likely to make a patient email their physician? (select all that apply) female gender higher income older age higher education
The factors that could make a patient to email their physician are;
Female genderOlder ageWho is a physician?A physician is an expert that have been trained to attend to the general health needs of individuals. The physician has gone through an intense and a rigorous training in the medical school but may not have specialized in any of the disciplines of medicine.
A patient is a person which seeks to receive medical care from a trained physician. The medicare care can involve a wide range of issues that athe patient may hve and need to be helped by the physician.
There are certain unique factors that couold make the patient to send a speciel email to the phsysician. These special emails helps the physician to be able to attend to the needs of the patient in a more personal way.
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when teaching a patient with a family history of hypertension about health promotion, the nurse describes blood pressure screening as which type of prevention?
Because screening exams are given to persons who have not yet shown symptoms of diseases with a long latency period, they are an example of a secondary preventative measure.
What do basic, tertiary, and secondary prevention entail?The primary prevention strategy aims to stop disease before it starts; secondary prevention makes an early detection and intervention effort; and tertiary prevention focuses on managing an individual's existing disease and preventing subsequent consequences.
What does "primary prevention" mean?Primary Prevention refers to efforts such as immunizations, changing risky behaviours (bad eating habits, tobacco use), and outlawing drugs that are known to be linked to a disease or health condition in order to intervene before adverse health impacts arise.
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