Relating,Scouting,Persuading.A leader is in charge of organizing, directing, and managing people.
Which traits would help john in assuming this leadership role? They are visionaries who inspire and support their teams to achieve their goals.Understanding what leadership includes is critical to your success if your responsibilities require you to lead others. A good leader should be honest, self-aware, courageous, respectful, empathic, and grateful.They should be learning to be agile and flex their influence while effectively communicating and delegating.Consider how these critical leadership traits can be taught and improved at all levels of your organization. A role model. “Someone that acts as a role model to his fellow Scouts and Scouters. Persuasive leadership is the art of presenting a rational case for action in such a way that it elicits a strong positive emotional response.Leadership that persuades.One of the most important measures of a leader is how they utilize persuasion to motivate others beyond their official sphere of influence to act.To learn more about leadership role refer
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some countries have oil as a natural resource and capstone engineering based in iowa, is considering building a facility in one of those countries since it does not have easy access to oil near its manufacturing plant. which theory of foreign direct investment provides an explanation for this decision?
An eclectic paradigm, also known as the ownership, location, internalization (OLI) model or the OLI framework, is a three-tiered evaluation framework that businesses can use to determine whether or not they should pursue FDI.
What are Dunning's three components of his eclectic theory?
John Dunning created the eclectic paradigm in a series of publications (Dunning 1980, 1981, 1988, and 1992).The international activities of multinational enterprises (MNEs) are influenced by three factors.These are the advantages of ownership (O), location (L), and internalization (I).
How significant is eclectic theory?
The level and pattern of firms' foreign value-added activities, not the multinational corporation, are the focus of the eclectic paradigm.It contributes to the explanation of both the beginning and expansion of foreign production.
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Which form of departmentalization is best if the company services both business clients and end consumers?.
An organizational structure known as departmentalization divides people into groups known as departments based on a particular set of criteria.
Each of these departments has its own leader, but they collaborate to complete tasks. It is possible for multiple departments to collaborate on large or complicated projects.
An illustration of departmentalization
In functional departmentalization, an organization is divided into departments according to the roles they play in the company. A manufacturing company, for instance, might establish departments for production, sales and marketing, accounting, and human resources.
Which five kinds of departmentalization are there?
By function, process, product, market, customer, geographic area, and sometimes matrix (also known as project organization) are the primary types of departmentalization.
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one of the journal entries that clayborn must record as a result of the bank reconciliation includes:
Debit Cash $1,725 and credit Notes Receivable $1,725 are the adjusting journal entries that Clayborn needs to make as a result of the bank reconciliation.
The process of making two parties or groups amicable again following a dispute or conflict. [noncount] It was praised that the two nations had reconciled by signing the trade pact. Reconciliation ensures the legitimacy and correctness of financial data. A proper reconciliation procedure also makes sure that no illegal alterations to transactions have taken place while they are being processed. If reconciliation is required, some committees are instructed to make particular adjustments to spending, revenues, deficits, and the debt ceiling. Each committee creates a bill to accomplish its goal, and if more than one committee is required to take action, the Budget Committee combines the individual measures into a single large bill. And they all support you in maintaining your balances.
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what job function is least likely to be handled by union workers in unionized performing facilities?
An organization of a company's workers into a labor union, which will serve as a middleman between the workers and corporate management, is the process of creating a unionized workplace.
What is a Unionized Workplace?
An organization of a company's workers into a labor union, which will serve as a middleman between the workers and corporate management, is the process of creating a unionized workplace. The majority of workers must vote in order to authorize a union in most circumstances. The company is said to be unionized if a union is formed.
The workplace is more secure when it is unionized. Employees who belong to a union often have better job security than nonunion employees, and they frequently get richer pay and more comprehensive benefit packages. As a result, union employees might be less inclined to leave the company in order to pursue other opportunities, particularly if they would have to work in a nonunion setting. Less turnover for employers and lower costs for recruiting and training new employees result from greater stability.
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"if you knew that candidate x cheated on her taxes, would you vote for her?" is a question typical of __________.
"If you knew that a candidate x cheated on her taxes, would you vote for her?" is a question of push polls.
A push poll is a marketing strategy used during political polls when organizations or an individual manipulate the perspective of the voters. It usually occurs in the disguise of an opinion poll.
Opinions of voters are collected by these organizations and then analyze the responses to identify the trends in the opinion of the voters. It is a type of telemarketing or gossip propaganda that could support a candidate and criticize another candidate.
It has been criticized by the American Association of Political Consultants and the American Association for Public Opinion Research.
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an eight-year bond paying coupons annually has a yield of 12% and a duration of 7.198 years. if the bond's yield changes by 50 basis points, what is the percentage change in the bond's price? (input the value as a positive value. do not round intermediate calculations. round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
An eight-year bond paying coupons annually has a yield of 12% and a duration of 7.198 years. if the bond's yield changes by 50 basis points, Then the percentage change in the bond's price is 3.21%.
Modified duration= Macaulay duration/(1+r)
Modified duration= 7.198/ (1+0.12)
Modified duration= 6.426796
50 basis points= 0.5%
%Change in price= -modified duration*change in yield
%Change in price= -6.426786*0.005
%Change in price= -0.0321 or-3.21%
The bonds price decreased by 3.21%
What is bond price?
The bond price is the current discounted value of future cash flows generated by the bond. It is the sum of the present value of all expected coupon payments and the present value of face value at maturity. To calculate the bond price, we simply need to discount the known future cash flows. Bond prices and yields to maturity are negatively correlated.
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An organization's ________ is the group of potential customers toward whom it directs its marketing efforts.
A.) product market
B.) marketing demographic
C.) target market
D.) market segment
The correct option is C. An organization's target market is the group of potential customers toward whom it directs its marketing efforts.
A goal marketplace, also called a serviceable obtainable market (SOM), is a group of clients within an enterprise's serviceable-to-be-had market at which the enterprise pursues its marketing efforts and assets. A goal marketplace is a subset of the whole marketplace for services or products.
The goal marketplace typically includes customers who showcase comparable characteristics (which include age, region, profits, or way of life) and are considered most probable to buy a business's market services or are probable to be the most worthwhile segments for the commercial enterprise to the carrier via OCHOM.
A target marketplace is a set of human beings that have been identified as the most probable ability customers for a product because of their shared traits together with age, income, and lifestyle.
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if a rational behavior style customer makes intermittent eye contact, a service strategy you may want to use is to
If a rational behavior style consumer initiates fleeting eye contact, attentively listen and make eye contact as a possible customer service tactic.
Explain about the Active listening?A technique for listening to and responding to another person that improves understanding between the two people is active listening. It is essential to make this first move in order to defuse the situation and hunt for solutions to problems. In this lesson, students will discover what active listening is and why it is so important for managing conflicts.
You can prevent missing important information by paying close attention. You can learn more specific information from the conversation as a consequence of your heightened level of involvement with the speaker as a result of active listening's emphasis on hearing the complete message.
"Active listening" refers to genuinely listening, as the name suggests. That requires active listening as opposed to passively "hearing" what is being said.
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Which of the following types of accounts would prevent you from withdrawing ANY money without significant fees? Checking Account Savings Account Certificates of Deposit Money Market Accounts
A certificate of deposit (CD) locks your money away from one month to five years, while it earns a fixed interest rate. It's more restricting than a traditional savings account because you can't access your money until the term is finished.
A certificates of deposit (CD) is a time deposit, a financial product commonly sold by means of banks, thrift establishments, and credit unions within the u.S.A.. CDs vary from financial savings accounts in that the CD has a specific, constant term (frequently one, 3, or six months, or one to five years) and usually, a hard and fast hobby rate. The bank expects the CD to be held until adulthood, at which period they may be withdrawn and hobby paid. Like financial savings accounts, CDs are insured "cash inside the financial institution" (in the US up to $250,000) and hence, as much as the neighborhood insured deposit restriction, honestly threat unfastened. In the US, CDs are insured by means of the Federal Deposit coverage organisation (FDIC) for banks and with the aid of the national credit Union administration (NCUA) for credit score unions.
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erica is a social media influencer. she is hired by a snowboard company to promote their boots, helmets, and boards but is told not to disclose her connection with the brand. what legal or social issue in internet marketing does this most closely relate to?
Your firm may benefit greatly from marketing.It strengthens current client relationships and forges new ones.
However, before you start contacting clients or potential consumers, there are a few important legal considerations you need to be aware of.
The FTC and other consumer protection agencies' rules and regulations, as well as privacy and data collecting, intellectual property issues, and other legal matters, are the three primary legal areas you need to take into account.
It might sound obvious to say that you must gather contact information from your clients or potential customers before you can send marketing emails or messages.
The actual method of gathering the data, however, is far more difficult than it first appears, especially if you're attempting to do so in a way that complies with the law.
The majority of countries and regions have privacy laws in place that provide for notifying people before collecting their personal information.
This also applies to a current client, albeit in the UK there are a few rules that are a little more lenient for clients who have previously made a purchase from you.
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in a case where a client's ability to bear risk is significantly less than the client's expressed willingness to bear risk, the most appropriate action for a financial advisor is to:
In a case where a client's capacity to bear risk is significantly less than the client's expressed willingness to bear risk, the most appropriate action for a financial advisor is to (B) base the assessment of risk tolerance in the IPS on the client's ability to bear risk.
What is the risk?An organization's ability to create profits at the desired levels is threatened by hazards, which can also pose a long-term threat to the sustainability of the organization.The process of identifying, evaluating, and controlling risks to your company's financial stability is referred to as risk management.The best course of action for a financial adviser in a situation where a client's capacity to bear risk is much lower than the client's expressed desire to bear risk is to base the IPS' evaluation of risk tolerance on the client's capacity to bear risk.Therefore, in a case where a client's capacity to bear risk is significantly less than the client's expressed willingness to bear risk, the most appropriate action for a financial advisor is to (B) base the assessment of risk tolerance in the IPS on the client's ability to bear risk.
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Complete question:
In a case where a client's capacity to bear risk is significantly less than the client's expressed willingness to bear risk, the most appropriate action for a financial advisor is to:
A. counsel the client and attempt to change his attitude towards risk.
B. base the assessment of risk tolerance in the IPS on the client's ability to bear risk.
C. attempt to educate the client about investment risk and correct any misconceptions.
A real estate agent would like to know how much she can expect a home to sell for depending upon the square footage of the home. Complete the statement based on the information. In this case, the explanatory variable is the and the response variable is the.
An explanatory variable that explains the results is the intended cause. The response variable, or anticipated outcome, responds to the explanatory variables.
According to your predictions, changes in one explanatory variable will occur before any modifications to the response variable. The variables are connected causally, either directly or indirectly. Through a mediator in a connection, an explanatory variable may indirectly affect a response variable. In the case of purely correlative relationships, there are no explanatory and response variables. A response variable may be the cause of both changes, even though changes in one variable are connected to changes in another. Explanatory and independent factors are very similar, but they also differ just somewhat. Research theory holds that independent variables are only subject to manipulation or modification at the hands of researchers and are not anticipated to be impacted by or dependent upon any other variables. If you do a controlled experiment in which you can exactly regulate how much caffeine each participant takes, the caffeine dose is an independent variable. However, the term "explanatory variable" is occasionally preferred over "independent variable" since independent variables can occasionally be influenced by other variables in real-world contexts. It appears from this that they are not truly independent.
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Answer:
-square footage
-selling price
Explanation:
edge 2023
seren works for alpha communications and is responsible for preparing and analyzing the company's financial statements. seren can be best described as a(n)
Seren works for alpha communications and is responsible for preparing and analyzing the company's financial statements. Seren can be best described as an Accountant.
Accountant may be defined as the person or professional working for a firm or individually who looks after the financing and accounts of the firm. All the expenses, revenue and all the business profits and accounts are managed by the accountant of the firm. An accountant is solely responsible for any ambiguity in the accounts of the firm and is the most responsible person within the firm. There are many business-related expenses, profits and shares that incur within a firm. These all are looked upon by the accountant. An individual has to give an examination in order to be legally get a degree of an Accountant and to practice accountancy. Further he/she can tie up with an organization or practice individually.
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analysis of the statement of cash flows involves assessment of operating, financing and investing cash flows and analysis of the resulting net income. group startstrue or false
Analysis of the statement of cash flows involves assessment of operating, financing and investing cash flows and analysis of the resulting net income is group structure.
What exactly does a cash flow analysis cover?
A cash flow analysis can be used to evaluate a company's working capital, or the amount of money available to conduct transactions and manage business activities. That is determined by subtracting current obligations from current assets (cash or near-cash assets, such as notes receivable) (liabilities due during the upcoming accounting period). The statement of cash flows is used to show the reader of the report the cash inflows and outflows during a reporting period. Operating, investing, and financing operations are other categories used to categorize these inflows and outflows.
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which of the following expenses is most easily bunched, or accelerated, into one year, so that the itemized deductions can be used in one year and the standard deduction can be used the following year
Charitable contributions expenses are most easily bunched, or accelerated, into one year, so that the itemized deductions can be used in one year and the standard deduction can be used the following year.
Giving something of value—such as money or property—to a nonprofit organization so that it might further its objectives is known as a charitable donation. Donations made by individuals and businesses in the United States can be written off on their federal tax returns.
The annual deduction for U.S. taxpayers is up to 60% of their adjusted gross income (AGI).
They must utilize Form 1040 or Form 1040-SR and include a Schedule A form for itemizing their deductible donations.
However, for 2021, those who don't itemize may still deduct up to $600 of charitable contributions. Normally, charitable contributions must be itemized in order to be tax-deductible.
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Complete question:
Which of the following expenses is most easily bunched, or accelerated, into one year, so that the itemized deductions can be used in one year and the standard deduction can be used the following year?
a. Charitable contributions
b. State income taxes
c. Mortgage interest expense
d. Gambling losses
mr. green enters into a partnership with it doctors llp. mr. green's capital investment into the business is $10,000. shortly after joining the new business, a client sues the it doctors llp and wins a judgment of $750,000. how much is mr. green liable for?
Mr. green is liable for $10,000.
In an LLP, the individual partners are not held responsible for the debts and obligations of the partnership as a whole, but only for liabilities arising from their own conduct while acting on behalf of the firm. If an LLP was sued, each partner's individual assets would be protected, but the partnership's assets could be taken as well. The negligent or at-fault partner could be held personally liable for their actions even though the partnership would be sued. The conduct of the other partners or the LLP as a whole is not subject to your liability as a partner in an LLP; rather, it is restricted to your own conduct and the conduct of those you directly supervise.
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an observation that stocks with above average price-to-earnings ratios have consistently underperformed those with below average price-to-earnings ratios least likely contradicts which form of market efficiency?
An observation that stocks with above average, price-to-earnings ratios have consistently underperformed those with below average, price-to-earnings ratios least likely contradicts weak form of market efficiency.
What is the weak form of market efficiency?There are three versions of the efficient market hypothesis that are varying degrees of the same basic theory. The weak form suggests today’s stock prices reflect all the data of past prices and no form of technical analysis can be utilized effectively to aid investors in making trading decisions.
Advocates for the weak form believe that undervalued and overvalued stocks can be determined if the fundamental analysis is used, and companies' financial statements can be researched by investors to increase their chances of making higher-than-market-average profits.
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which of the following is not a condition for perfect competition? multiple choice firms take prices as given. firms sell a standardized product. firms are protected by barriers to entry. firms have perfect information.
Option C is correct. Firms are protected by barriers to entry is not a condition for perfect competition.
Perfect competition is a market structure where there are many buyers and sellers in the open market and the prices influence supply and demand. In this competition, a large number of producers and consumers compete with one another, and the opposite of a monopolistic market involves the supremacy of one firm in one field. Firms cannot influence the market price of their products with minimal differences in features and pricing.
All firms are allowed to come and sell their product in the open market, there is no barrier to entry in perfect competition.
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suppose that in 2018 and 2019, households and firms reduced desired expenditures. during the same period inflation fell and unemployment rose. a. the change in unemployment, but not the change in inflation, is consistent with what a given short-run phillips curve implies. b. neither the change in inflation nor the change in unemployment are consistent with what a given short-run phillips curve implies. c. the change in inflation, but not the change in unemployment, is consistent with what a given short-run phillips curve implies. d. both the change in inflation and the change in unemployment are consistent with what a given short-run phillips curve implies.
Suppose that in 2018 and 2019, households and firms reduced desired expenditures. during the same period inflation fell and unemployment rose then option D) both the change in inflation and the change in unemployment are consistent with what a given short-run phillips curve implies.
The broad word for an increase in the cost of goods and services throughout an economy in the study of economics is inflation. As the general price level rises, each unit of currency may buy fewer goods and services, hence inflation is related to a reduction in the purchasing power of money. Inflation is the term used to describe when prices in an economy rise or when the purchasing power of money falls. According to economists, a number of factors, such as a rise in the money supply, higher wages, and increased aggregate demand, may contribute to inflation. Economic weakness can result from both low and high levels of inflation. When the economy is struggling and inflation is too low, the Fed will use the opposite technique, cutting interest rates or buying assets to increase cash flow.
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Which situation best describes how a change in the reserve requirements affects the economy?.
If reserve requirements were increased, there would be more money in reserves and less money available for banks to lend, which would raise customer interest rates and slow economic growth.
What is economic growth?Economic growth, when accounting for inflation, is the increase or improvement in the market value of the goods that an economy generates during a specific time period. This growth is often measured by statisticians as a percentage rate of growth in the real GDP, or gross domestic product. Growth is often measured in real terms, or terms that have been corrected for inflation, in order to remove the inflationary distortion on the pricing of goods produced. Economic growth is measured using national income accounting. Since GDP growth is used to measure economic growth, both the advantages and disadvantages of that strategy are present. Using the GDP to population ratio, nations' economic growth rates are commonly compared (per-capita income).
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Price is constant to the individual firm selling in a purely competitive market because.
Price is constant or given to the individual firm selling in a purely competitive market because each seller supplies a negligible fraction of the total supply. For a purely competitive seller, price equals average revenue.
In economics, especially general equilibrium theory, the perfect market, also called an atomistic market, is defined by several idealized conditions collectively called perfect or atomistic competition. A theoretical model with perfect competition states that the market will reach an equilibrium in which the quantity supplied of any product or service, including labor, equals the quantity demanded at the current price. This equilibrium is Pareto optimal.
Perfect competition provides both allocative efficiency and production efficiency: Such markets are efficient because output occurs whenever marginal cost equals average return, i.e. price (MC = AR). target. Under perfect competition, all profit-maximizing producers face a market price equal to their marginal cost (P = MC).
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what laws could legitimately regulate (or apply to) the activities of a large bank that engages in the businesses of taking deposits, lending money and investing, all through a network of physical branches located across canada?
The operations of a large bank that operates physical branches across Canada could only be lawfully governed by federal law.
What is federal law ?The Canadian Parliament and the provincial legislatures share "jurisdiction" the power to enact laws. Regarding topics delegated to it by the Constitution, Parliament may pass laws that apply to the entire country of Canada.The body of legislation developed by a nation's federal government is known as federal law. When several political entities, such as states or provinces, unite to form a federation, they cede much of their individual sovereignty and authority to the federal government while keeping or reserving other, more restricted, powers. As a result, there are two or more levels of government within a defined geographical area. Federal law is the body of law governing the common central government.Everyone in the nation is subject to federal laws. People who reside in or conduct business in a certain state, commonwealth, territory, county, city, municipality, town, township, or village are subject to the state's and area's local laws.To learn more about federal law refer :
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a monopolistically competitive firm faces group of answer choices a horizontal demand curve. a vertical demand curve. a downward sloping demand curve. a perfectly elastic demand curve.
Answer:
Which career professional would be considered part of the Human Resources pathway of the Business, Management, and Administration career cluster?
Labor Relations Specialist
Data Entry Keyer
Compliance Manager
Management AnalystWhich career professional would be considered part of the Human Resources pathway of the Business, Management, and Administration career cluster?
Labor Relations Specialist
Data Entry Keyer
Compliance Manager
Management Analyst
Explanation:
why is reducing air pollution a public good ? the clean up is financed by the public sector the public generally desires cleans up of air pollution members of the public who do not pay for the cleaner air can still benefit from the cleaner air. cleaner air is beneficial to the public.
The Clean Air Act of 1970 established a number of federal organisations to monitor air pollution. The organisations entrusted with managing the air pollution were attempting to reduce pollution from several sources.
The solution is because they provided incentives to businesses to reduce their pollution.According to analysts, maintaining clean air and eliminating pollution would cost close to $500 billion, but the associated benefits would be $22 trillion, or 44 times more valuable. The Environmental Protection Agency presented this report to examine the costs and advantages of the Clean Air Act from 1970 to 1990. People will be able to enjoy long, healthy lives because to the advantages of clean air. It will benefit the industries that ultimately depend on clean air, resulting in higher revenues.The Clean Air Act of 1970 (also known as the 1970 CAA) marked a significant change in the federal government’s approach to combating air pollution. With the help of this legislation, comprehensive national and state regulations to control emissions from both fixed (industrial) and mobile sources can be created.
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stefan is going in for a job interview and realizes he needs to whiten his teeth. he goes to the store and picks out a brand of whitening strips he remembers from an advertisement on television. his level of brand loyalty could be described as .
Sandy is going in for a job interview and realizes he needs to whiten his teeth. His level of brand loyalty could be described as-----recognition.
How would you describe your brand awareness?
Brand awareness is the degree to which a consumer can correctly identify a particular product or service simply by looking at the product or service's logo, slogan, packaging, or advertising campaign. Brand awareness can also be triggered by audio cues such as: A jingle or theme song associated with the brand.
What is good brand awareness?
Brand awareness is a concept used in advertising and marketing. It is considered successful when people can recognize a brand based on visual or auditory cues such as logos, slogans, packaging, colors, or jingles.
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An increase of one on the richter scale represents ____ increase in the movement of the earth.
An increase of one on Richter scale represents 10-fold increase in movement of the earth.
What is Richter scale?Charles Francis Richter created the Richter scale, also known as the Richter magnitude scale, Richter's magnitude scale, and Gutenberg-Richter scale, and first published it in his seminal 1935 work under the name "magnitude scale." Later, the local magnitude scale, abbreviated as ML or ML, was developed and named. Most seismological authorities now publish earthquake magnitudes using other comparable scales, including the moment magnitude scale (Mw), as a result of the original ML scale's numerous flaws; yet, a large portion of the news media continues to refer to them as "Richter" magnitudes. All magnitude scales are adjusted such that their numerical values are substantially equivalent and keep the original's logarithmic nature (typically in the middle of scale).
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consider the following question describing the demand curve facing a monopolist: quantity price 0 17 1 15 2 13 3 11 4 9 5 7 6 5 .... what is the marginal revenue generated by the production and sale of the 3rd unit?
Monopolists face downward sloping demand curves due to the fact they are the only dealer of a unique exact or service and the market demand curve is consequently the monopolist's demand curve.
How lots market strength a firm has is a function of the shape of the demand curve.
Is monopoly demand curve elastic or inelastic?elastic
The monopolist will choose to be on the elastic portion of the demand curve, to the left of the midpoint, the place marginal revenues are positive. The monopolist will keep away from the inelastic element of the demand curve through reducing output until MR is fantastic
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https://brainly.com/question/15695659#SPJ4you are a self-employed profit-maximization consultant specializing in monopolies. five single-price, profit-maximizing monopolies are currently seeking your advice, and although the information they have supplied to you is incomplete, your expert knowledge allows you to go back and make a definite recommendation in each case. select one of the following recommendations for each firm in the short run: a. remain at the current output level. b. increase output. c. reduce output. d. shut down. e. go back and recalculate your figures because the ones supplied cannot possibly be right. firm p mr tr q tc mc atc avc your recommendation a 3.90 3.00 2,000 7,400 2.90 3.24 (click to select) b 5.90 10,000 5.90 4.74 4.24 (click to select) c 9.00 44,000 4,000 9.00 11.90 10.74 (click to select) d 35.90 37.90 5,000 37.90 35.90 (click to select) e 35.00 3,990 1,000 3,300 at min value 23.94 (click to select)
Firm A increases output; Firm B decreases output; Firm C keeps output at its current level; and Firm D decreases output. Option E and Firm E. E is the option.
How do monopolies work?Firm-A
The tableland indicates that firm A is expanding at the condition where the price (P) is 3.90 and the marginal cost (MC) is less than the marginal revenue (MR).
As a result, firm A can change, prolong the presentation or result till the MC evolves to be equivalent to the MR, and lower the price to sell more. Firm A will also optimize its total profit during this procedure.
Therefore, increasing output or choosing option B would be advised for firm A.
Firm-B
Keep in mind that the P for firm-B is equal to the MC. In the situation where MC = MR and P > MC, firm B may be generating far more than the profit-maximizing output.
In order to increase monopoly profit, company B can cut production output, increase prices, and produce somewhere at output level where MR=MC optimizes total profit.
As a result, option-c, which involves decreasing output, is advised for firm B.
Firm-C
Once more using the table as a guide, firm C is operating where MR=MC and, as a result, is maximizing profit. It is increasing its overall profit while producing a total production of 4000.
To ensure that profit is maximized, it must, nevertheless, charge a P per unit that is higher than both MR and MC.
As a result, option-a or staying at the existing production level is advised for firm C.
Firm-D
As can be seen from the table, Firm-D is operating at the point where profits are maximized. However, the P per unit of output given by Firm-D is significantly lower than both MC and MR and generates only normal profits since P is comparable to Average Total Cost (ATC).
As a result, firm D is asking a very low price that is lower than both MR and MC at the profit-maximizing level. It is also interesting to note that MC is bigger than ATC.
As a result, it is advised for firm-D and go back again recalculate your calculations since the ones provided are inadmissibly incorrect or option-e.
Firm-E
Since the ATC for firm-E is at its lowest value, it is implied that MC and the ATC are equal in this situation.
Now, firm-E charges 35 per unit of output, which is more than the MC, and 1000 units of output are created overall.
However, since statistics on MC and MR are unavailable, we cannot be certain that this is the output that maximizes profits.
Because the figures provided couldn't possibly be accurate, it is advised for firm-E can go back as well as recalculate your numbers. Option-e can then be used to assess whether the current total output is potential revenue or not.
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cooper medical center was concerned about rising costs for patients who have surgery for joint replacement. it tried rewarding staff in any quarter they met targets for lower use of supplies, but costs continued to rise. an investigation showed that one source of costs was the readmission of patients who experienced infections after surgery. the human resource department proposed setting up a gainsharing program with an effectiveness measure related to reducing infections. which statement about gainsharing best supports this recommendation? group of answer choices gainsharing creates a competitive environment, so employees will try to outdo one another. the success of gainsharing requires management acceptance of employee input. with gainsharing, employees are freed to collaborate on how to improve performance. gainsharing will narrow employees' focus to the key aspects of their individual jobs and rewards. gainsharing is appropriate because the jobs in this case are simple, and so are the performance standards.'
Gainsharing is commonly used in a healthcare system. Gain sharing means that organization shares its gains like profits with employees and employees collaborate with each other to increase efficiency and effectiveness of organization.
What are the benefits of gainsharing?
A gainsharing plan not only motivates a worker to put in his best performance, but also cultivates in him a sense of pride in his achievements at the workplace. This results in indirect benefits such as lower levels of employee attrition and subsequently, lower time and money spent in training new workers.What's the difference between gainsharing and profit-sharing?
Gainsharing systems typically have a (potential) payout on a monthly basis. Profit Sharing systems typically payout (potentially) on an annual basis. Of course, the more closely we tie the rewards to the performance, the greater the motivational impact of the rewards paid out.Learn more about gainsharing plan
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the jolly green giant used by the green giant company facilitates the development of a. brand quality. b. product equity. c. brand associations. d. product preference. e. brand loyalty.
The jolly green giant used by the Green Giant Company facilitates the development of brand associations.
Brand association definition?When a customer associates your brand with a concept, picture, emotion, experience, person, interest, or activity, this is known as a brand association. This association, which has a strong influence on buying decisions, might be immediately favorable or unfavorable.
Which brands have examples of associations?Coca-Cola is a timeless brand, similar to Downey's softness, Apple's simplicity, Tesla's electricity, and Nike's performance.
What three categories exist for brand associations?Despite the fact that a brand can be linked with a wide variety of things, brand associations often fall into one of three groups: qualities, benefits, or attitudes. Because they have an impact on purchasing decisions, brand associations are significant.
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