Answer:
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a student nurse is questioning a nursing instructor about the responsibility to have malpractice insurance. the nursing instructor confirms the safeguard of malpractice insurance by emphasizing which points regarding student liability? select all that apply.
The activities of the student nurse are her/his responsibility, the same level of care required of nurses also applies to student nurses and if the assignment is beyond the student's level of proficiency, the nursing educator may be held accountable.
What about nurses?According to the Merriam- Webster wordbook, nurses are trained in promoting and maintaining health and should work autonomously or under the supervision of a croaker , surgeon, or dentist.From the time of birth to the top of life, nursers are present in every community, big and little.In addition to providing direct patient care and managing cases, nurses also establish nursing practice guidelines, develop internal control processes, and oversee complex medical care systems.The maturity of long- term care in the country is handled by nurses, who also structure the largest single group of the sanitarium labor force.The four- year Bachelor of Science in nursing( BSN) degree is the main route to professional nursing, as opposed to rehearsing at the specialized position.Providing independent and team-based care to people of all ages, families, groups, and communities—whether or not they are ill or not and regardless of circumstance—includes nursing.Health creation, complaint forestallment, and thus the care of the ill, impaired, and dying are all included in nursing.A RN is a good healthcare provider who offers direct case care in a variety of sanitarium and community settings.Learn more about nurses here:
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The student nurse is responsible for the student nurse's actions.
The student nurse is held to the same standard of care as a nurse.
The nursing instructor can be liable if the assignment is above the student's competency.
Student nurses are responsible for their actions and are held to the same standard of care as a nurse. The nursing instructor can be liable if the student assignment is above the student's competency. Students can practice as employees during an educational clinical experience. Students are responsible to be familiar with hospital policy and procedures.
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new mother is attempting to breastfeed for the first time. the nurse notices that the client has inverted nipples. what nursing action can the nurse take to assist the client in breastfeeding the newborn?
Provide breast shield in assisting mother with using a breast pump before each feeding to make the nipples easier for the newborn to grasp.
Alzheimer's disease is thought to be caused by an abnormal protein buildup in and around brain cells. Amyloid is one of the proteins involved, and deposits of it form plaques around brain cells. Tau is the other protein, and deposits of it form tangles within brain cells.
Breastfeeding, also known as nursing, is the process of feeding a child human breast milk. Breast milk can be expressed from the breast or pumped and fed to the infant. Breastfeeding should begin within the first hour of a baby's life and continue as often and as much as the baby desires, according to the World Health Organization (WHO).
Breastfeeding exclusively for six months is recommended by health organizations such as the WHO. This means that, aside from vitamin D, no other foods or beverages are usually given. The World Health Organization recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months of life, followed by continued breastfeeding with appropriate complementary foods for up to two years and beyond.
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the healthcare provider has prescribed digoxin for a client who has been taking furosemide (lasix) for six months. what laboratory serum levels should the nurse review before administering the digoxin?
The nurse should review the laboratory serum levels of potassium, magnesium, calcium, and creatinine before administering the digoxin.
What is Digoxin?
Digoxin is a prescription medication used to treat atrial fibrillation and heart failure. It is a type of drug known as a cardiac glycoside, which means it affects the heart muscle. It works by increasing the force of contraction of the heart, and slowing the heart rate. It can also help reduce the risk of strokes and other cardiovascular events.
The nurse should do this because furosemide can cause a decrease in potassium, magnesium, and calcium levels as well as increasing creatinine levels. Digoxin can interact with these levels and cause serious side effects therefore it is important to ensure that the client's levels are in the normal range before administering the digoxin.
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which value does the nurse recognize as the best clinical measure of renal function? creatinine clearance circulating adh concentration urine-specific gravity volume of urine output
Option A: creatine clearance is the value that the nurse recognizes as the best clinical measure of renal function.
When combined with albuminuria, GFR is thought to be the best technique to assess renal function and can assist assess the severity of CKD in an individual. Utilizing the plasma or urine clearance of an exogenous filtration marker is the gold standard for determining GFR. GFR is often calculated using an estimating equation from the individual's serum creatinine and/or cystatin C levels along with demographic data like age, race, and gender.
Only once a significant loss of functional nephrons is seen is a rise in blood creatinine levels. Estimating GFR using equations that take serum creatinine levels and some or all of the following factors—gender, age, weight, and race—is a better way to gauge kidney function.
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if your patient presents with a four-unit porcelain anterior bridge, which fluoride preparation is not appropriate for you to recommend?
A patient with four-unit porcelain anterior bridge should not be recommended 1.23 APF Gel used in tray technique.
What is an APF gel?
Acidulated phosphate fluoride gels or APF gels are a mixture of sodium fluoride, hydrofluoric acid, and orthophosphoric acid. They contain 12300 ppm Floride ions (1.23% APF) and have a pH of 3.2.
Topical fluoride treatments like 1.23 APF gel can cause changes in the surface of dental materials like porcelain. Caution needs to be taken when using neutral sodium present in 1.23 APF gels on porcelain dental materials.
Hence, a patient with four-unit porcelain anterior bridge should not be recommended 1.23 APF Gel used in the tray technique.
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A patient with four-unit porcelain anterior bridge should not be recommended 1.23 APF Gel used in tray technique.
What is fluoride preparation?Chemical Properties: Sodium fluoride is not an ignitable substance. It tastes like salinity. When the chemical reaction occurs, it converts the white to a greenish solid. It has a cubic structure. Sodium fluoride has an octahedral molecular structure. The melting point is low, and the boiling point is high. It's bad for the environment.
Uses: Nuclear molten salt reactors use sodium fluoride. It acts as a cleansing agent with the help of laundry soul. It was used to poison the stomachs of plant-feeding insects. It keeps poisonous substances from spreading in the oxidative metabolism.
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the primary care provider prescribes a tocolytic for a pregnant client with premature rupture of the membranes who begins to have contractions every 10 minutes. the drug has had expected effects when the nurse observes which finding?
When the contractions stop, the tocolytic has the anticipated impact on the expectant client. Tocolytic medications can halt uterine contractions and momentarily put off childbirth.
What does a tocolytic agent do?Tocolysis is a medical technique used during pregnancy to delay the delivery of a foetus in women who are experiencing preterm contractions. The goal of administering these drugs is to reduce foetal morbidity and mortality.Tocolysis is treated with a variety of medication types, such as beta-mimetics and magnesium sulphate. inhibitors of prostaglandins. Tocolysis works by establishing a calm environment in the uterus, which is supposed to extend gestation for two to seven days.The cardiovascular system of the mother, the metabolism of carbohydrates, and the foetal cardiovascular system are all adversely affected by tocolytics over the long term. Therefore, it is not advised to take prophylactic tocolytics for an extended period of time after stopping intravenous drugs.To learn more about tocolytic refer :
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you are on the scene of a 68-year-old patient with a history of copd who is breathing 44 times per minute and has a diminished level of consciousness. his wife states he has an albuterol inhaler and nitroglycerin tablets for angina. what is the most important drug you can administer to the patient?
You should provide the patient oxygen via a bag-valve-mask at all times. A vital emergency skill is bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation.
When endotracheal intubation or another definitive method of controlling the airway is not an option, this basic airway management approach enables patients to be ventilated and oxygenated while waiting for a more permanent airway to be created.
The most significant drawback of a BVM is that it takes training and practice to use one properly. Even after extensive practice, many still struggle to maintain a good mask seal and ventilate enough volume when only one rescuer is available.
Thus, the most crucial treatment you can provide the patient is oxygen via a bag-valve mask. Ventilation with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) is an essential emergency skill.
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the nurse is educating a client taking furosemide for heart failure about eating foods that are rich in potassium. which statement made by the client indicates that education was effective?
"When I take my medication, I will eat a banana or take it with a glass of orange juice." demonstrate the teaching of nurse.
What is furosemide?The loop diuretics class of medications includes furosemide (Lasix), which acts on the kidneys to eliminate surplus fluid from the body. It permits an excessive amount of salt to escape into the urine rather than being assimilated by the body.
What are Indications of Furosemide?Edema. Edema, a condition in which extra fluid is retained in the tissues as a result of a number of medical disorders, is treated with furosemide. These include kidney illness, cirrhosis of the liver, and congestive heart failure. Furosemide is given intravenously as part of the treatment for acute pulmonary edema if a rapid onset of fluid excretion is necessary.
Hypertension. Patients with mild to moderate hypertension are given furosemide. For severe high blood pressure, furosemide can be used in conjunction with other antihypertensive drugs and other treatment plans, such as a low salt diet, maintaining a healthy weight, engaging in regular exercise, and quitting smoking and drinking alcohol.
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a patient begins to hyperventilate while sitting in a clinic on miami beach and breathing room air. over the ensuing 1 minute, his paco2 drops to 20 mm hg. what is his pao2 at that moment in time?
The pao2 at that moment in time was 125 mm Hg.
Hyperventilation is rapid or deep respiration, normally as a result of anxiety or panic. This, as it is every so often called, can also truly go away you feel breathless. whilst you breathe, you inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide.
Excessive respiration creates a low level of carbon dioxide in your blood. This causes various signs of hyperventilation. you may hyperventilate from an emotional cause which includes a panic attack. Or, it could be because of scientific trouble, which includes bleeding or infection.
Some reasons for sudden hyperventilation include tension, fever, a few drug treatments, intense exercise, and emotional pressure. Hyperventilation also can occur due to issues because of allergies or emphysema or after head damage.
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the nurse is monitoring the vital signs of a client after delivery of a healthy newborn one day ago and notes that the mother's apical pulse is 56 beats/min. which nursing action is appropriate related to this finding?
The mother's apical pulse is 56 beats/min. So the nursing action that would be appropriate is introduction of deep breathing exercises to the patient.
What are breathing exercises?
Diaphragmatic breathing, abdominal breathing, abdominal breathing, or deep breathing is breathing that is done by contracting the diaphragm, a muscle located horizontally between the chest cavity and the abdominal cavity.Air enters the lungs when the diaphragm contracts strongly, but unlike traditional relaxed breathing (eupnoas), the intercostal muscles of the chest do minimal work in this process. The abdomen also expands during this type of breathing to make room for the diaphragm to retract.The use of diaphragmatic breathing is commonly practiced, especially in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, to improve a number of factors such as lung function, cardiorespiratory fitness, respiratory muscle length, and respiratory muscle strength.To know more about deep breathing exercises, click the link given below:
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the health care provider (hcp) orders an amniocentesis for a primigravid client at 37 weeks' gestation to determine fetal lung maturity. which is an indicator of fetal lung maturity?
At 37 weeks gestation, the health care provider (hcp) requests an amniocentesis for a primigravid client in order to assess fetal lung maturity. An indication of fetal lung maturity is the lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio.
The Lecithin-to-Sphingomyelin Ratio (L/S ratio) is one method that clinicians can use to assess embryonic lung development.
This biochemical test, first established in the 1970s and used to determine the probability that the infant may experience respiratory distress syndrome, was performed via an amniocentesis procedure to collect a sample of amniotic fluid (RDS).
As the fetal lung develops gradually, the pulmonary system matures with increasing gestational age. This biochemical test, first established in the 1970s and used to determine the probability that the infant may experience respiratory distress syndrome, was performed via an amniocentesis procedure to collect a sample of amniotic fluid (RDS). Thin-layer chromatography was used to analyze the sample and determine how big lecithin was in comparison to sphingomyelin. In the past, this test helped clinicians try to time the birth of newborns before 39 weeks gestation in an effort to reduce RDS. The test's utilization has decreased recently as a result of suggestions and guidelines from significant medical associations.
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the nurse is participating in a presentation regarding adolescent violence to middle and high school faculty and staff. what risk factors for violence should the nurse include?
When a nurse gives a presentation regarding adolescent violence to school staff, the major risk factors for violence that should be included are: students’ individual, family, peer, and social risk factors.
What do the risk factors that could lead to adolescent violence?There are three major risk factors that could result in violent behavior in teenagers. The risk factors are as follows:
Individual. A student who has experienced violent victimization has a history of aggressive behavior, or is involved with alcohol and drugs has concerning risk factors for violence.Family. Low parental education, low emotional attachment to parents, and poor monitoring or supervision from their parents are most likely to be the risk factors for adolescent violence.Peer and social. Poor academic performance, failure in class, and peer social rejection could also be risk factors.Since the 3 factors above are crucial to adolescent violence in school, the nurse should include them in the presentation.
This question is incomplete and is answered based on general knowledge.
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four clients injured in an automobile accident enter the emergency department at the same time. the triage nurse evaluates them immediately. the nurse should assign the highest priority to the client with the:
Emergency department triage involves giving priority to clients at highest risk for loss of life, limb, or vision. Clients with poor prognoses are given a lesser priority. The client with the maxillofacial injury and gurgling respirations needs immediate attention because of an impaired airway.
What is maxillofacial injury?
Maxillofacial trauma is injury to the face or jaw. Facial trauma includes skin lacerations, burns, nasal or sinus blockages, orbital (orbital) injuries, jawbone fractures, and missing or broken teeth.
Therefore, Emergency department triage involves giving priority to clients at highest risk for loss of life, limb, or vision. Clients with poor prognoses are given a lesser priority. The client with the maxillofacial injury and gurgling respiration needs immediate attention because of an impaired airway.
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a nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client regarding the use of nicotine gum. what information should be included?
I should avoid eating right before I chew a piece of nicotine gum.
Nicotine gum is an FDA-approved medicine that can assist people in quitting smoking. It can be used every 2 hours on its own to control withdrawal symptoms, or it can be used as needed in conjunction with a nicotine patch to control stronger cravings.
According to a large study, smokers who switched to e-cigarettes were much more likely to quit than those who used nicotine patches, gum, or similar products. The bad news is that people who successfully quit smoking were frequently addicted to e-cigarettes. E-cigarettes are far less dangerous than traditional cigarettes. Nicotine gum therapy has been shown to reduce weight gain in the first few months after quitting smoking, but its long-term effects are unknown.
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the nurse is caring for a newborn in the nursery and notes that the primary health care provider has documented that the child has gastroschisis. the parents ask the nurse about the treatment for the disorder. which statement would the nurse make to the parents?
The nurse make a statement as follows: Following the return of all contents to the abdominal cavity, the defect will be surgically closed.
Explain primary care provider.
An individual who treats patients with typical medical issues is known as a primary care provider (PCP). Most frequently, a doctor is this individual. A nurse practitioner or physician assistant, on the other hand, could be a PCP. Your PCP frequently takes an extended role in your treatment.
Gastroschisis is a birth abnormality in which the baby's intestines protrude from the body due to a hole in the abdominal (belly) wall next to the belly button. There may be a tiny or huge hole, and other organs like the stomach and liver occasionally protrude from the baby's body.
In order to close the abdominal hole and restore the exposed intestines to the abdominal cavity, gastroschisis requires surgical intervention. Sometimes this is done right away, but more frequently the exposed organs are covered with sterile drapes and the surgery is done later. Only 10% of affected newborns' cases can be resolved in a single surgery, so they frequently need multiple surgeries.
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which statement might the nurse make to nursing assistive personnel (nap) before delegating the collection of a routine urine sample from a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
If the urine appears cloudy, contains blood, or has sediment in it, do let me know. It's important to emphasize to the nurse the characteristics of the urine that a NAP must report. So, option D is the correct choice.
The care and welfare of patients in a range of clinical settings, including rehabilitation, are widely acknowledged to be significantly impacted by nursing assistive personnel (NAP). The American Nurses Association (ANA) considers the use of NAPs to be a suitable, secure, and cost-effective manner of delivering nursing care when done under the direction of a registered nurse (RN) in line with state nurse practice laws.
As a result, we can say, "Let me know if the urine appears cloudy, or contains blood, or sediment." The focus of this statement is on the characteristics of urine that a NAP needs to inform the nurse of.
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a client's new onset of dysphagia has required insertion of an ng tube for feeding. what intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
The nurse should include frequent assessment of the placement and function of the NG tube in the client's plan of care.
What is dysphagia?Dysphagia is a medical term that refers to difficulty swallowing. It can occur at any age and can affect anyone, but it is more common in older adults and in people with certain medical conditions. Dysphagia can be caused by a variety of factors, including structural abnormalities in the mouth or throat, neurological conditions, or muscle weakness.
Symptoms of dysphagia may include difficulty swallowing liquids or solids, choking or coughing during swallowing, food or liquid getting stuck in the throat or chest, and frequent heartburn or chest pain. Dysphagia can lead to malnutrition and dehydration if left untreated, as the person may not be able to eat or drink enough to meet their nutritional needs.
If you or someone you know is experiencing dysphagia, it is important to consult a healthcare provider for a proper diagnosis and treatment. Treatment options may include medications, speech therapy, dietary changes, or surgery, depending on the underlying cause of the dysphagia. Dysphagia can often be managed with the appropriate treatment and support.
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a patient with a poor diet showing symptoms of diarrhea, confusion, and discoloration of the skin suggests a possible
Niacin deficiency is the main deficiency in this condition .
What is Niacin deficiency?
Niacin deficiency is a disorder that happens when a person doesn't get enough of, or is unable to absorb, niacin or tryptophan, an amino acid. Niacin deficiency is quite uncommon in the US. However, niacin deficiency outbreaks have occurred in regions of the world where food is in short supply.
Niacin, one of the eight B vitamins, is often referred to as vitamin B3 or nicotinic acid. Niacin, like all B vitamins, is essential for the efficient functioning of the neurological system, the metabolism of lipids and proteins, and the conversion of carbohydrates into glucose. Niacin boosts circulation, lowers cholesterol, and assists the body in producing hormones associated to stress and sex.
One of the amino acids that go into making protein is tryptophan. Tryptophan from high-protein foods like meats can be converted by your liver.
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the mission of the acute care facility is, 'we are dedicated to creating a healthy community, one person at a time.' what nursing leadership activities would correlate with that mission? (select all that apply.)
We are committed to building a healthy community, one person at a time, according to the acute care facility's mission statement.
define healthy community ?
A healthy community is what? A healthy community is one where local organisations from all walks of life collaborate to fight illness and provide access to healthy lifestyle alternatives. The greatest health benefits are obtained when healthy living is promoted at the community level for the greatest number of people.
We are committed to building a healthy community, one person at a time, according to the acute care facility's mission statement. Which nurse leadership actions fit that mission best answer announcing a CEU course on healthy nutrition for low-income families to the nursing staff.
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Who requires hospitals to make all medications patient-dose specific?
The Joint Commission now requires hospitals to make all medications patient-dose specific.
What is the Joint Commission?More than 22,000 healthcare organizations and initiatives in the US are accredited and certified by The Joint Commission. It includes hospitals and organizations that offer services in the areas of ambulatory and office-based surgery, behavioral health, home health care, laboratory, and nursing care facilities.
The joint Commission's guidelines emphasize cutting-edge performance enhancement techniques that benefit healthcare businesses.
Therefore, hospitals are now required by the Joint Commission to make all drugs patient-dose specific.
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the nurse is administering cephulac (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. what should the nurse carefully monitor for that may indicate a medication overdose?
The nurse is administering cephulic (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. the nurse keeps an eye out for symptoms like watery diarrhea that could mean a pharmaceutical overdose.
Why does hepatic encephalopathy occur?
When toxins that the liver typically removes from the body build up in the blood and eventually reach the brain, it results in hepatic encephalopathy. When detected and treated as soon as possible, many hepatic encephalopathy symptoms are reversible.
A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving cephulic (lactulose), and the nurse is monitoring him for symptoms that could indicate a drug overdose, such as watery diarrhea.
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The nurse keeps an eye out for symptoms like watery diarrhea that could mean a pharmaceutical overdose of cephulic (lactulose)
Why does hepatic encephalopathy occur?
Hepatic encephalopathy is caused when the toxins that the liver usually gets rid of in the body build up in the blood and finally get to the brain. Many hepatic encephalopathy symptoms are curable when caught and treated right away.
A nurse is keeping an eye out for signs of a drug overdose, including watery diarrhea, in a patient with hepatic encephalopathy who is receiving cephulic (lactulose).
hence,the nurse keeps an eye out for symptoms like watery diarrhea that could mean a pharmaceutical overdose of cephulic (lactulose)
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a client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops an infection with anorexia. which advice will the nurse provide to the client? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse should advise patients to consume water, take oral medications, and check their capillary glucose levels.
Explain about type 2 diabetes:Type 2 diabetes is a disease in how well the body regulates and uses sugar (glucose) as fuel. The bloodstream circulates with too much sugar due to this chronic (long-term) condition. Over time, high blood sugar levels might cause problems with the cardiovascular, nervous, and immune systems.
When it comes to type 2 diabetes, there are essentially two related problems. Your pancreas does not create enough insulin, a hormone that regulates the amount of sugar that enters your cells. As a result, your cells do not respond well to insulin and take up less sugar.
Type 2 diabetes used to be referred to as adult-onset diabetes even though type 1 and type 2 can begin in childhood and maturity, respectively. Type 2 cases have increased in younger people because to the growth in juvenile obesity, even though type 2 is more common in senior folks.
Although there is no cure for type 2 diabetes, you can manage this condition by decreasing weight, eating healthfully, and exercising. You may also require diabetic drugs or insulin therapy to control the blood sugar if diet and exercise are insufficient.
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the nurse is counseling a client who will be taking isotretinoin for the treatment of acne. the nurse informs the client that the most common site for adverse effects is which system?
Integumentary is the area where negative consequences occur most frequently.
The animal's body is protected and kept in good condition by the skin and its appendages, which serve as a physical barrier between the inside and outer surroundings.
Your body's outermost layer is called your integumentary system. Your skin, hair, nails, and the glands and nerves located just beneath your skin make up your body. Your body's integumentary system serves as a physical barrier to keep out germs, infections, damage, and sunshine.
The integumentary system is made up of the epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, associated glands, hair, and nails. In addition to serving as a barrier, this system performs other intricate tasks including controlling body temperature and maintaining cell fluid.
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a nurse is providing care to a pregnant client hospitalized with preeclampsia. the nurse immediately notifies the health care provider that the client has developed eclampsia based on which finding?
The nurse notifies the healthcare provider that the client has developed eclampsia based on observing the seizure activity of the client.
What is eclampsia?
Eclampsia is a serious complication of preeclampsia and is generally defined to be the sudden onset of grand mal seizures and/or an inexplicable coma during pregnancy or postpartum. These seizures are unrelated to any underlying brain disorders.
A pregnant client with preeclampsia is already at high risk for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a condition that affects pregnant women with hypertension, proteinuria, and generalized convulsions. The onset of seizure activity is a definite symptom of eclampsia.
Hence, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider that the client has developed eclampsia based on observing the seizure activity of the client.
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Based on watching the client's seizure activity, the nurse informs the healthcare practitioner that eclampsia has developed in the client.
What about eclampsia?Eclampsia, a significant side effect of preeclampsia, is often characterized by the onset of grand mal seizures and/or an unexplained coma either during pregnancy or after childbirth. There are no underlying brain conditions that could be causing these seizures.Preeclamptic pregnant clients are already at a significant risk of developing eclampsia.Eclampsia is a disorder that causes generalized convulsions, proteinuria, and hypertension in pregnant women. The beginning of seizure activity is unquestionably an eclampsia sign.As a result, the nurse informs the healthcare provider that the client has eclampsia after observing the client's seizure activity.Eclampsia is a term used to describe seizures in pregnant women who have preeclampsia. High blood pressure, headaches, fuzzy vision, and convulsions are all signs of eclampsia. A rare but deadly illness known as eclampsia develops in the second part of pregnancy.Learn more about eclampsia here:
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the nurse is developing the plan of care for a school-aged boy with a chronic disability. the child frequently cries about being different from his siblings and wants others to do things for him that he is capable of doing for himself. to assist the family in coping with this child's chronic illness, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement
Recommend using continuous discipline and rewarding acceptable behavior
It is critical to aid the child in adapting to a chronic handicap or sickness by focusing on the child rather than the condition. With a chronically unwell child, consistent family rules (A) should be utilized, such as defining boundaries for acceptable behavior, mandating involvement in domestic tasks, and fulfilling school commitments. (B, C, and D) are potentially beneficial therapies, but they do not prioritize giving the kid with consistent expectations of acceptable behavior.
Chronic disease is defined as disease that lasts for an extended period of time. Chronic disease can limit the independence and health of people with disabilities by causing additional activity limitations.
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a client has a diagnosis of otitis media and has just begun antibiotic treatment. the client reports otalgia and has asked for medication. the nurse should anticipate the administration of:
Infections cause most primary otalgia and are treated with antibiotics, while mechanical receive treatment with decongestants, nasal steroids, or myringotomy. Secondary causes include a wide variety of diagnoses.
What is otalgia?
Otalgia (ear pain) divides into two broad categories: primary and secondary otalgia. Primary otalgia is ear pain that arises directly from pathology within the inner, middle, or external ear. Secondary or referred otalgia is ear pain that occurs from pathology located outside the ear.
In fact, all ear infections in children under 6 months old are treated with antibiotics. If the infection does NOT go away, on its own or with treatment, the doctor may recommend ear tube surgery.
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a client suffered trauma to the sclera and is being treated for a subsequent infection. during client education, the nurse indicates where the sclera is attached. which structure would not be included?
if a vaccine to a specific viral disease contained only a virus envelope protein, this would be called a. a live attenuated vaccine b. a nucleic acid vaccine c. a recombinant vector vaccine d. a subunit vaccine e. a conjugated vaccine f. an inactivated killed vaccine
If a vaccine to a specific viral disease contained only a virus envelope protein, this would be called a subunit vaccine.
A subunit vaccine, as opposed to a whole-pathogen vaccine, will only contain specific components derived from disease-causing bacteria, parasites, or viruses. These components, also known as antigens are highly purified proteins as well as synthetic peptides that are far less dangerous than whole-pathogen vaccine approaches.
Despite these benefits, the antigens in a subunit vaccine are very small as well as lack pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), which are required for antigen recognition even by host immune system, lowering the immunogenicity potential of the this vaccine approach.
Another weakness of subunit vaccines is the possibility of antigen denaturation, which can cause this same proteins to bind to different antibodies instead of the specific antigens which target the pathogen.
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the single parent of a young teenager is being treated for complicated bronchitis at a small rural hospital. the parent does not live in the area and has a poor command of english. the facility is experiencing delays in accessing a translator. in considering whether to allow the teenager to translate medical information for his parent, the nurse should consider that:
The nurse needs to take into account that the youngster could be able to translate under these conditions.
What is bronchitis?Life requires breathing, which is typically effortless. Each breath helps remove carbon dioxide from your body, which is a result of breathing, and supplies fresh oxygen into your bloodstream. Through your windpipe or trachea and a branching system of smaller airways known as bronchi, or bronchial tubes, the air you breath travels to your lungs.
Breathing becomes more challenging when your bronchial tubes are irritated or inflamed, a condition known as bronchitis. Bronchitis causes muscles to constrict and produce more mucus, which can make breathing challenging and result in coughing, wheezing, and chest pain.
There are two basic types of bronchitis: acute (short-term) and chronic (ongoing).
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a client comes to the dermatology clinic with bright red patches covered with silvery scales on both arms. the health care provider orders calcipotriene. the diagnosis for this client is:
The client comes to the dermatology clinic with bright red patches covered with silvery scales on both arms. the health care provider orders calcipotriene. the diagnosis for this client is: Psoriasis
The health care provider orders calcipotriene. Because the client was diagnosed with plaque psoriasis, Betamethasone and calcipotriene mixture are used on the skin and scalp to deal with plaque psoriasis. it's miles the shape of diet D that works using changing how the skin cells are made within the areas suffering from psoriasis. This medicine is to be had handiest with your medical doctor's prescription.
This medicinal drug is used to deal with psoriasis. It enables the reduction of the redness, thickening, and scaling of the pores and skin that occurs with this condition. wholesome skin lowers your threat of infection and protects you in opposition to the surroundings. Betamethasone is a robust corticosteroid drug that works by using decreasing swelling, redness, and itching. Calcipotriene is a shape of diet D. it's also known as calcipotriol in different countries.
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