in a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does not replicate. in a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does not replicate.This statement is false.
Vaccines contain weakened or inactive parts of a particular organism (antigen) that triggers an immune response within the body. Newer vaccines contain the blueprint for producing antigens rather than the antigen itself.
A vaccination basically injects an inactive form of a pathogen into the body. This will activate an immune response and antibody production, which means that memory cells are made. There are several vaccines available for a number of diseases.
This protects the individual incase the real pathogen enters the blood again. Vaccinations use inactive or dead pathogens. A guidance this is used to stimulate the frame's immune reaction towards illnesses.
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a home care nurse is visiting a client who delivered her first baby one week ago. what behavior by the client would indicate to the nurse that maternal-infant bonding is occurring?
1. Holds baby face to face
2. Talks about the baby's features
3. Touches baby frequently
4. Talks to baby by the client would indicate to the nurse that maternal-infant bonding is occurring. a home care nurse is visiting a client who delivered her first baby one week ago.
The term "maternal-infant bonding" (MIB) refers to the mother's affective state, which includes her maternal sentiments toward the infant. It is thought that this affective state forms the foundation for the child's eventual attachment and sense of self. Mothers frequently express sentiments of utter love and bonding for their newborn in the first few hours after birth. When a baby and its caretaker establish a close emotional bond, this is known as attachment. It's crucial to form a bond with your infant. It aids in the production of hormones and chemicals in the brain that promote quick brain development.
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the nurse is preparing to gavage feed a preterm infant who is receiving iv antibiotics. the infant expels a bloody stool. what nursing action should the nurse implement?
The nurse is preparing to gavage feed a preterm infant who is receiving iv antibiotics. the infant expels a bloody stool. Assess for abdominal distension is the action that nurse implement.
Antibiotics are strong treatments that treat certain infections and can save lives when provided effectively. They either prevent the growth of bacteria or eliminate them. Usually, the immune system can get rid of bacteria before they multiply and cause symptoms. Even if symptoms occur, the immune system is normally able to control and stave off the illness because white blood cells (WBCs) eliminate harmful microorganisms. On rare occasions, though, the immune system is unable to completely eradicate all of the harmful microbes present. The usage of antibiotics is appropriate here. Penicillin was the original antibiotic. Penicillin-based antibiotics, such as ampicillin, amoxicillin, and penicillin G, are still available to treat a variety of infections and have been in use for many years. Modern antibiotics come in a variety of forms, but in the United States, they are often only available with a prescription. Over-the-counter (OTC) creams and lotions include topical antibiotics. Distinct antibiotics have different functions and come in a range of shapes and sizes.
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an infant who weighs 3.8 kg is delivered vaginally at 39-weeks gestation with a nuchal cord after a 30-minute second stage. the nurse identifies petechiae over the face and upper back of the newborn. what information should the nurse provide the parents about this finding?
The information which the nurse should provide the parents about petechiae over the face and upper back of the newborn is that the pinpoint spots are benign and disappear within.
A nuchal cord happens once your baby's funiculus becomes wrapped around their neck within the womb. Nuchal cords are quite common, and whereas they usually don't cause any health issues, in rare cases, serious complications will occur.
Petechiae are round pinpoint spots of harm below the skin. they will be caused by a straightforward injury, straining or additional serious conditions. If you've got pinpoint-sized red dots below your skin that unfold quickly, or petechiae and alternative symptoms, request medical attention.
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The diagnostic term for the state of excessive thyroxin production, which causes high sugar use levels and hyperactivity, is ______.hyperthyroidism
Hyperthyroidism is the medical word for the condition of excessive thyroxin production, which results in high levels of sugar consumption and hyperactivity.
When the thyroid gland produces more thyroid hormones than your body requires, the condition is known as hyperthyroidism, also termed overactive thyroid. The thyroid is a little gland at the front of your neck that resembles a butterfly. Thyroid hormones regulate how the body uses energy, which means they have an impact on almost every organ in your body, including how quickly your heart beats. Many of your body's processes speed up when your thyroid hormone levels are too high.
Generally speaking, mild hyperthyroidism during pregnancy is not an issue. But untreated severe hyperthyroidism during pregnancy can harm both the mother and the unborn child. Work with your doctor to manage your hyperthyroidism if you have plans to become pregnant or plan to become pregnant.
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a 54-year-old man presents with chest pain. he has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. the pain is located in the middle of his chest and radiates to his jaw. the pain began about 20 minutes ago, and he rates the pain as a 10 on a 0 - 10 point scale, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. he has had 3 similar episodes, but they have always resolved after 5 minutes or so of rest. he has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the past 36 years. he drinks 2 or 3 beers on friday nights. review of systems (ros) is positive for diaphoresis, acute dyspnea, and impending doom. ros negative for fever, chills, and malaise. physical exam shows an obese, middle-aged man in moderate distress. bp 126/80, pulse 100, respirations 26. heart and lung exams are normal, except for tachycardia and tachypnea. he has no pedal edema. what aspect of the patient's history is the largest risk factor for an acute myocardial infarction?
Diabetes mellitus is an independent risk for atherosclerosis. The risk of myocardial infarction (MI) in a patient with diabetes is the same as for someone without diabetes who has had a previous myocardial infarction (MI). The risk of death from cardiac events is also the same between these 2 groups.
What is Diabetes mellitus?
Diabetes is a result of too much sugar in blood (high glucose in blood).
When the body can't take up sugar (glucose) into its cells to use as fuel is when diabetes occurs.
Glucose is a very important source of energy for cells. Glucose is also the brain’s main source of fuel.
Often, the main cause of diabetes is when cells in fat, muscle and liver gain a resistance to insulin. Since there is no normal interaction, they don’t take enough sugar. The pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to manage blood sugar levels as well.
So, therefore, other important contributors to atherosclerosis and ischemic heart disease, including dyslipidemia, obesity, cigarette smoking, and hypertension, contribute to the risk of myocardial infarction; however, when evaluated independently, Diabetes mellitus is a greater risk factor.
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when assessing a client, what finding would the nurse interpret as indicating stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system? (select all that apply.)
Pupil constriction, Bronchoconstriction and Decreased heart rate indicates stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
The parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is one of three divisions of the autonomic nervous system, along with the sympathetic and enteric nervous systems. The enteric nervous system is sometimes considered a component of the autonomic nervous system and other times as a separate system.
The parasympathetic nervous system derives its nerve fibers from the central nervous system. Several cranial nerves, including the oculomotor nerve, facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and vagus nerve, are examples of specific nerves.
In calm "rest and digest" situations, the parasympathetic nervous system predominates, whereas the sympathetic nervous system drives the "fight or flight" response in stressful situations. The primary function of the PNS is to conserve energy for later use and to regulate bodily functions such as digestion and urination.
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the nurse taught the caregiver of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal (vp) shunt about when to contact the health care provider (hcp). the caregiver shows understanding of the instructions by contacting the hcp about which symptom?
The caregiver of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt or VP shunt will contact the health care provider when they witness the child vomiting after awakening from a nap and vomiting again one hour later.
What is a ventriculoperitoneal shunt?
A ventriculoperitoneal shunt, also called a VP shunt, is a thin, hollow tube called a is surgically inserted into the brain to assist in removing extra cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the area. Ventriculoperitoneal shunts are placed to treat hydrocephalus, which develops when cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does not drain properly from the brain's ventricles. The ventriculoperitoneal shunt drains the excess fluid and relieves the pressure on the brain caused by the fluid accumulation.
When a child has ventriculoperitoneal shunting surgery, there is a risk that the ventriculoperitoneal shunt malfunctions. In such cases, the intracranial pressure or ICP of the child will increase. The nurse must teach the caregiver of the child how to recognize symptoms of increased intracranial pressure and when the caregiver must contact a healthcare provider (HCP). Vomiting after a nap and then again after an hour, can indicate an increase in intracranial pressure.
Hence, the caregiver of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt or VP shunt will contact the health care provider when they witness the child vomiting after awakening from a nap and vomiting again one hour later.
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The caregiver of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt or VP shunt will contact the health care provider when they notice the youngster vomiting after awakening from a nap and vomiting again one hour later.
What is a ventriculoperitoneal shunt?A narrow, hollow tube called a ventriculoperitoneal shunt, commonly known as a VP shunt, is surgically implanted into the brain to help remove surplus cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the region. In order to cure hydrocephalus, which happens when cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does not correctly drain from the brain's ventricles, ventricular-peritoneal shunts are implanted. The ventriculoperitoneal shunt relieves the pressure on the brain brought on by the fluid buildup by draining the extra fluid. There is a chance that the ventriculoperitoneal shunt will malfunction after a child has ventriculoperitoneal shunting surgery. The child's intracranial pressure, or ICP, will rise under such circumstances. The nurse is responsible for educating the child's caretaker on the signs of elevated intracranial pressure and when to seek medical attention (HCP). Vomiting immediately following a nap and then again an hour later may be a sign of elevated intracranial pressure.To learn more about ventriculoperitoneal shunt refer :
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to the hospital with a leg ulcer that is infected with vancomycin-resistant s. aureus (vrsa). which nursing actions can be delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (lpn/vn)?
Collecting cultures from wounds while changing dressings.
Dressing adjustments and acquiring samples for wound culture are included in the LPN/LVN education and practise scope. The RN should perform complicated tasks like teaching, assessing patients, and arranging their care.
What causes vancomycin-resistant?
When bacteria stop responding to drugs meant to kill them, antibiotic resistance sets in. These germs become vancomycin-resistant enterococci if they grow resistant to vancomycin, an antibiotic used to treat some infections that are resistant to other types of treatment (VRE).
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus organisms can develop, rendering them ineffective. Enterococci that are resistant to vancomycin are these microorganisms (VRE). Because there are fewer medications available that can combat the bacterium, VRE can be challenging to treat.
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a client who is 36 weeks gestation has been admitted to the labor and delivery area for evaluation due to worsening signs of pregnancy induced hypertension (pih). the bp upon arrival is 168/96. while being monitored, she reports a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. further nursing assessment reveals vaginal bleeding, abdominal rigidity, and a fetal heart rate of 90/min on the fetal monitor. what nursing actions would be appropriate for this client?
A large bore injectable line should be used for a client who was admitted towards the labor ward at 36 weeks gestation.
The gestation period is what?From the start day of the female's most recent menstruation to the present day, it is counted in weeks. At 38 through 42 weeks is the usual gestational period. Premature birth refers to births that occur before 37 weeks. Postmature babies are those delivered after 42 weeks of gestation.
What distinguishes conception from gestation?Information. Between conception and delivery, a baby develops and grows inside of the mother's womb during the gestational period. Gestational age is calculated from the first day the mother's most recent menstrual cycle because it is impossible to pinpoint exactly when conception takes place.
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a greenstick fracture is one in which the bone is bent and only partially broken. t or f
A greenstick fracture is one in which the bone is bent and only partially broken , is False
What is Greenstick fracture?
A lengthy bone in the arm or leg that has been broken or cracked on one side is known as a greenstick fracture. The bone is not completely penetrated by the crack or break. Its name comes from the way a young, green twig responds to being bent.
A greenstick fracture is a crack or break that only extends partially through the bone and occurs on one side of a long bone in the arm or leg. Due to the softer and less brittle nature of children's bones compared to adults', greenstick fractures are more common in children. Immobilization of the bone or, in certain situations, surgery are used as treatments.
Bending of a bone can cause greenstick fractures. A greenstick fracture can be brought on by any force that causes a long bone, such as an arm or leg bone, to bend but not totally shatter. The bone splits on one side rather than breaking into two pieces.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has had a percutaneous tracheostomy (pct) following a motor vehicle accident and has been prescribed oxygen. what delivery device will the nurse select that is most appropriate for this client?
The delivery device will the nurse select that is most appropriate for this client is a tracheostomy collar delivers oxygen near an artificial opening in the neck.
What is percutaneous tracheostomy ?
A tracheostomy tube is inserted using percutaneous dilational tracheostomy (PDT), commonly known as bedside tracheostomy. This procedure avoids direct surgical visualization of the trachea.
What is delivery device ?
A system created by humans that is intended to deliver a chemical or medicine directly into a target cell, such as by the use of a liposome, a type of artificial vesicle.
Therefore, delivery device will the nurse select that is most appropriate for this client is a tracheostomy collar delivers oxygen near an artificial opening in the neck.
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a preschool-age child with a history of being abused has blood drawn. the child lies very still and makes no sound during the procedure. which comment by the nurse would be most appropriate?
The comment by the nurse that would be most appropriate for the child who is abused is "It's okay to cry when something hurts."
The correct option is 1.
What is the effect of abuse on a child?Abuse of a child refers to anything that is done to a child to harm the child physically, emotionally, or mentally.
The abuse of a child may either be done verbally or physically.
The effect of abuse on a child include the following:
avoiding people - the child avoids people and tends to be isolated from others.raising of pain threshold - the child becomes adapted to pain and even wishes to be hurt more in some rare cases. The child may go ahead and hurt himself or herselffeeling s of worthlessness - the abused may feel worthless and unloved and may even have thoughts of ending his or her lifedepression - abuse can cause a child to become depressedHence, the nurse should help the child to realize that it is okay to cry when hurt. The nurse should speak reassuringly to the child.
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Complete question:
A preschool-age with a history of being abused has blood drawn. The child lies very still and makes no sound during the procedure.\ 2. "That really didn't hurt, did it?" 3. "We're mean to hurt you that way, aren't we?" 4. "You were very good not to cry with the
during the inflammatory phase of diverticulitis, treatment includes antibiotics and a diet that is . group of answer choices lower in fiber higher in sugar lower in sugar higher in fiber
During the inflammatory phase of diverticulitis, treatment includes antibiotics and a diet that is low in dietary fiber.
The inflammatory phase comes after the proliferation phase, which lasts 3–10 days. This phase includes reepithelialization, angiogenesis, and the formation of granulation tissue. Cytokines and a multitude of growth factors, such as keratinocyte growth factor (KGF), nerve growth factor (NGF), epidermal growth factor (EGF), and insulin-like growth factor, initiate the re-epithelialization process (IGF-1). Angiogenesis then follows to develop new blood vessels to restore the tissue injury. A proteolytic enzyme produced by regenerated endothelial cells dissolves the basal lamina and assists in the proliferation and invasion of the burn wound. Finally, the granulation phase, when collagen and extracellular matrix are formed, is reached by fibroblasts, granulocytes, and macrophages. During the inflammatory stage, numerous leukocytes invade the tissue, including polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes, monocytes/macrophages, and T cells. These leukocytes mediate critical processes for typical wound healing by fighting pathogenic organisms, removing damaged tissue and apoptotic/necrotic cells, producing growth factors, and promoting extracellular matrix (ECM) remodeling.
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the nurse knows that disorders of the pituitary gland depend on the location of the physiologic abnormality. in caring for a child that has issues with the anterior pituitary, the nurse knows that this child has issues with which hormone?
In caring for a child that has issues with the anterior pituitary the nurse knows that this child has issues with Growth hormone.
What is the pituitary gland's primary purpose?
Through the hormones it produces, it controls metabolism, growth, and reproduction. Chemical signals delivered from the hypothalamus to the pituitary either encourage or inhibit the production of these hormones. Vasopressin and oxytocin are two hormones made by the posterior lobe.
What is the pituitary gland's regulator?
The pituitary is sometimes referred to as the master gland because it regulates the operation of the majority of other endocrine glands. The hypothalamus, a portion of the brain that is located directly above the pituitary, is in turn largely responsible for controlling the pituitary.
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patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions. each replacement drug has lipase, protease, and amylase components, but the drug is prescribed in units of:
Patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions each replacement drug has amylase, lipase and protease components, however the drug is prescribed in units of lipase.
Cystic fibrosis is a condition that causes damage to your lungs, digestive tract, and other organs. It is an inherited disease caused by a faulty gene that can be passed down through generations. Cystic fibrosis affects the cells responsible for the production of mucus, sweat, and digestive juices.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disease that runs in families. It is caused by a faulty gene that causes the body to produce abnormally thick and sticky mucus. This mucus accumulates in the lungs' and pancreas' breathing passages.
Cystic fibrosis can cause such severe damage to lung tissue that it no longer functions. Lung function typically deteriorates gradually and can eventually become life-threatening. The most common cause of death is respiratory failure.
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What are the "posterior poles of the eyes"?
The posterior pole, which in ophthalmology refers to the retinal tissue between the macula and the optic disc, is the term used to describe the rear of the eye.
What is posterior pole?Roth spots are symptoms of systemic sickness, and the patient's vital signs as well as general hemodynamic stability should be evaluated. Roth spots occur on fundoscopic examination as circular flame-shaped hemorrhages with a white/pale core (varying in size), most usually in the posterior pole.
White-centered hemorrhages known as 'Roth spots' are caused by retinal capillary rupture and entire blood ejection. This is followed by platelet adherence to the injured endothelium, which initiates a coagulation cascade and the creation of a platelet-fibrin thrombus in the center of the bleeding.
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during surgery, a veterinary technician drops a forceps. the surgeon will need this instrument to complete the procedure. which method of sterilization is most appropriate in this case? vet med
a patient is recovering from a stroke and demonstrates good recovery in the lower extremity (out-of- synergy movement control). timing deficits are apparent during gait. what can isokinetic training be used to help improve?
Rate control can be enhanced with isokinetic training at various movement rates.
What is isokinetic training?Exercise training using a unique machine is known as isokinetic training. There are many degrees of resistance produced by the exercise equipment. In this manner, regardless of the amount of force used, your movements will always be at a constant speed. No matter how strong you are, the machine can always exert the same amount of force as you.
A lot of people incorporate this training into their normal workout regimens. Isokinetic exercise is also well-liked for healing injured muscles and joints. There are machines for every muscle group. This enables physical therapists to examine and train your unique joints and muscles. The devices also provide measures so that professionals can keep tabs on your development.
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harriett is a nursing student who is performing a physical examination on jarred, a 6-year-old patient who is being admitted to the pediatric unit with abdominal pain. when would be the most appropriate time in the examination to palpate jarred's abdome?
Palpate tender areas last is the most appropriate method.
Why are the tender areas palpated last during the physical examination?
Palpate painful areas last since palpation requires touching various body parts and doing delicate assessments with the hands. Inspection is usually followed by palpation. But when looking at the abdomen, auscultation comes first, then palpation. Check the abdomen by palpating it for lumps, distention, or pain.
Hence the answer is palpate tender areas last is the most appropriate method.
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Pressure of the aqueous humor that fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye.
Pressure of the aqueous humor that fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye is generally between 12 to 20 mmHg.
What is aqueous humor?A transparent water like fluid containing the low protein concentration secreted by he ciliary body of the eye lenses is known as aqueous humor.
Composition:99.9% waterSugar vitaminsproteins and other mineralsFormation processes:DiffusionUltrafiltration Active secretion by the ciliary processes..Anterior:Generally the term Anterior is used to describe the view of something where anterior means the front or near the front view.
Hence, Pressure of the aqueous humor that fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye is generally between 12 to 20 mmHg.
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this type of care facility is designed to be used for conditions that need to be treated quickly but that are not a life threatening condition
The urgent care facility is equipped to address less serious medical conditions and illnesses. Although not life-threatening, these illnesses need to be treated right away. These consist of: A sprain or a strain
What is Emergency Condition in health?
A medical emergency is any major illness, symptom, or condition that puts someone's life or physical well-being in danger right away.
Get someone to an emergency care center as quickly as you can if they have undergone trauma, are having difficulties breathing, are bleeding uncontrollably, or are experiencing an altered state of mind.
Medical experts with the necessary training must respond quickly to medical emergencies. Make a 911 call right away if you or someone else is facing an emergency.
The resources and skilled medical staff at Dignity Health sites allow for the prompt and efficient handling of medical emergencies.
Visit a local ER or urgent care facility.
In an emergency, it may not always be possible to make a diagnosis before treating the patient. However, the medical scheme must approve therapy if doctors believe the patient has a condition that is covered by PMBs. Plans may ask that the diagnosis be verified with proof within a reasonable amount of time.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a permanent pacemaker. the nurse knows that which three primary problems can occur when cardiac pacemakers malfunction? select all that apply.
Failure to sense, Failure to capture, Failure to pace or fire the nurse is caring for a client with a permanent pacemaker. the nurse knows that which three primary problems can occur when cardiac pacemakers malfunction
Failure to sense, Failure to capture, Failure to pace or fire the nurse is caring for a client with a permanent pacemakers. pacemaker is a little gadget that is implanted in the chest to assist in controlling the heartbeat. To keep the heart from beating too slowly, it is utilized. A surgical operation is necessary to implant a pacemaker in the chest. A cardiac pacing device is another name for a pacemaker. For around 4 to 6 weeks after your pacemaker installation, you should refrain from demanding activities. Following this, you ought to be able to participate in most activities and sports. However, it's crucial to avoid collisions if you play contact sports like football or rugby.
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which education would the nurse provide the parents of a boy born with hypospadias about the age in which the repair of this congenital defect is typically performed?
The most appropriate response by the nurse should be after 6 months and before 1 year of age for boy born with hypospadias.
The best time to castrate a male is infancy, when neither body image nor fear of castration have yet developed. Surgery needs to wait until the phallus has fully matured after birth. Children between the ages of 4 and 5 are in the developmental stage where fear of mutilation is present. It is too late to do corrective surgery right before puberty begins. Before the child is required to share toilets with other boys, corrective surgery should be performed. For a youngster of this age, the absence of a regular stream of pee can lead to psychological problems and challenges with self-esteem.
Hence, between 6 months to 1 year age is best time to deal congenital defect.
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when the nurse interviews a client with internal hemorrhoids, what would the nurse expect the client to report?
For a client with internal hemorrhoids, the nurse expects the client to report instances of bleeding in the rectal area.
What are the symptoms of hemorrhoids?Internal hemorrhoids cause bleeding but, unless they protrude through the rectum, are unlikely to cause pain. Although, straining or irritation when passing stool can cause bleeding during bowel movements without pain.
Other causes that can trigger internal hemorrhoids are chronic diarrhea, obesity and eating low-fiber diet. It can be checked by a doctor through digital rectal examination. External hemorrhoids may cause few symptoms, or they can produce pain, itching, and soreness of the abdominal region.
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the nurse is preparing to educate a client with restless legs syndrome who reports sleeplessness and prefers to use nonpharmacologic methods to promote sleep. which recommendation will the nurse include in the teaching?
Begin and end the day with stretching recommendation the nurse will include in the teaching.
Why does restless leg syndrome occur?
The reason of RLS is typically unknown (called primary RLS). RLS, however, has a genetic component and is present in families where symptoms first appear before to age 40. Particular gene variations have been linked to RLS. There is evidence that suggests low levels of iron in the brain may also be the cause of RLS.
What is missing from your body that causes restless legs?
Dopamine. There is evidence to suggest that an issue with the basal ganglia, a region of the brain, is connected to restless legs syndrome. Dopamine is a substance (neurotransmitter) that the basal ganglia use to assist regulate muscle activity and movement.
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a pregnant client asks the nurse about the type of exercises that are allowable during the pregnancy. the nurse would instruct the client that which is the safest exercise?
The safest exercise for a pregnant client is swimming.
Exercising during pregnancy can be healthy, as long as the objective is just keeping the current fitness level rather than trying to reach peak fitness. The best and safest kind of exercise is the one that doesn't make you bear any weight, such as swimming.
The exercises that must be avoided during pregnancy are the high-impact ones, the ones that need holding breath (such as diving), and exercises that place extreme pressure on the pelvic floor. It would be much better if the client clears each exercise with their healthcare provider first before attempting any.
The question above seems incomplete. The completed version is as follows:
A pregnant client asks the nurse about the types of exercises that are allowable during pregnancy. The nurse should tell the client that which exercise is safest?
1. Swimming
2. Scuba diving
3. Low-impact gymnastics
4. Bicycling with the legs in the air
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61. at 0500 hours, you respond to the home of a 76 year old man complaining of chest pain. upon arrival the patient states that he had been sleeping in the recliner all night due to indigestion, when the pain woke him up. he also tells you he has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. his vital signs are as follows: respirations, 16 breaths/min; pulse, 98 beats/min; blood pressure, 92/76 mm hg. he is still complaining of chest pain. what actions should you take to intervene.
Give out oxygen at a high rate has to be the immediate action required in this situation.
Explain indigestion.
Your upper abdomen hurts when you have indigestion, also known as dyspepsia or an upset stomach. Instead of describing a specific illness, indigestion explains certain symptoms, such as abdominal pain and a feeling of fullness soon after you begin eating. A number of digestive disorders can also present with indigestion as a symptom.
Angina is managed with nitroglycerin (chest pain). When a portion of your heart does not receive enough blood, angina is a pain or discomfort that results. It has a pressing or squeezing sensation. Your chest, neck, arms (often the left), and lower jaw are all possible locations. The class of medications known as vasodilators includes nitroglycerin.
Your body's smooth muscles and blood vessels are relaxed by nitroglycerin, which is how it works. By doing this, your heart receives more blood and oxygen. Your heart consequently doesn't work as hard. Chest pain is lessened by this.
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a registered nurse (rn) calls in sick, leaving an rn and two nursing assistants to care for twelve postpartum clients. how should the rn on the postpartum floor respond to the staffing issue?
Notify the supervisor and request that another RN be assigned to the unit. If a registered nurse (RN) calls in sick, leaving an RN and two nursing assistants to care for twelve postpartum clients.
It's not easy to hire employees for your business. Your staff will work with your clients and vendors and be involved in the manufacturing process. The incorrect team might make or break your business.
Selecting software is not the same as hiring employees. You must find the ideal mix of academic credentials, professional experience, and soft talents. Here are five things to think about when staffing. They will assist you in choosing employees for your company who can achieve both your short-term and long-term objectives.
Hence, request to another a registered nurse is way to deal in this case.
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Trained strength and conditioning specialists are generally more qualified to provide exercise advice for health purposes than medical doctors.
Trained strength and conditioning specialists are generally more qualified to provide exercise advice for health purposes than medical doctors is a true statement.
A physical performance specialist known as a strength and conditioning coach employs exercise prescription to boost a team of athletes' or an individual competitor's performance. Combining strength training with aerobic conditioning and other techniques helps to achieve this.
You might study and earn your certification as a strength and conditioning professional in 3 weeks to 9 months, depending on your prior knowledge. There are two sections on the test: Scientific Foundations (Exercise science, nutrition, and psychology).
In accordance with good scientific principles, the strength and conditioning coach creates training plans, oversees workouts, evaluates athletes, keeps track of athletes, and instructs strength and conditioning classes as necessary.
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a pregnant woman in the second trimester of pregnancy complains of constipation and describes the home care measures she is taking to relieve the problem. which would the nurse determine is a harmful measure in preventing constipation?
Adding 1 tablespoon of mineral oil to a bowl of cereal daily is a harmful measure in preventing constipation.
What is constipation?
Constipation is when a person has three or fewer bowel movements a week or has difficult bowel movement as well.
Symptoms and signs of constipation are:
Passing three or fewer stools a week.Having hard or lumpy stools.bowel movements are strainedFeeling like there is blockage in your rectum that is preventing bowel movements.Constipation is often caused due to not consuming enough fibres like fruit, cereals, and vegetables. Changes in one’s lifestyle or routine, such as a change in eating habits, having limited privacy while using the toilet, even ignoring the urge to pass stools.
So therefore, adding 1 tablespoon of mineral oil to a bowl of cereal daily is a harmful measure in preventing constipation.
Learn more about constipation here: https://brainly.com/question/11805805
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