Answer:
If crossing over doesn’t occur, then 2 out of the 4 daughter cells would be identical.
We have 46 chromosomes and are diploid meaning we got 1 set (23 chromosomes) from our mom and 1 set (23 chromosomes) from our dad.
In prophase 1, homologous chromosomes associate (chromosome #1 from dad and chromosome #1 from mom. They both code for the same things, but they are NOT identical)
Let’s compare mitosis to meiosis
On the left, see how in mitosis all chromosomes (even homologous) line up in single file (imagine all 46 lining up individually). When anaphase splits the sister chromatids (which are identical) in mitosis, each daughter cell gets the exact same genetic info.
(they get both homologous chromosomes: 1 from dad (yellow)and 1 from mom (purple) resulting in a full diploid set)
On the right in meiosis, see how the homologous chromosomes associate and will split? Chromosome #1 from mom (purple) is going to the left daughter cell while chromosome #1 from dad (yellow) is going to the right daughter cell. This means the two daughter cells will only have 1 set for chromosome #1 (either moms or dads but NOT both) and become haploid (1 set of 23 chromosomes)
Again in mitosis, all 46 lined up individually, but in meiosis the 23 from mom and 23 from dad first associate and each orient to decide which daughter cell gets the dads chromosome or the moms chromosome. They assort independently meaning just because dads chromosome #1 went to the left DOESN’T mean that dads chromosome #2 or #3 will go to the left. This gives a unique pattern of 23 chromosomes for the 2 daughter cells of meiosis 1 (a various mixture of moms and dads, but it is possible to result in a daughter cell with just moms and just dads set, though this would be a very small probability like 1 in 2^23 )
So each daughter cell of meiosis 1 is a haploid set (only 1 set instead of 2) and the opposite of the other (since 1 has fathers while the other has mothers for the same chromosome)
Meiosis 2 is just like mitosis. Here the sister chromatids separate producing 2 identical daughter cells
(identical if crossing over doesn’t occur. Crossing over only occurs on adjacent homologous chromatids)
If crossing over doesn’t occur then both sister chromatids are identical so that 2 out of 4 daughter cells will be exactly identical haploid sets. The other 2 are identical to each other as well.
Explanation:
Answer:
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Explanation:
Mitosis creates two identical daughter cells that each contain the same number of chromosomes as their parent cell. In contrast, meiosis gives rise to four unique daughter cells, each of which has half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
sorry .it's half answer
Which statement below accurately describes how sweating helps maintain homeostasis?
C and D are INCORRECT, the answer that is correct is either A or B, give me the correct answer and you’ll get BRAINLIEST!!!
Answer:
answer is B.
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes consumer opinion about the use of biotechnology in agriculture? possible answers are,
a. agreeable
b. indifferent
c. skeptical
d. opposed
Answer:
They are skeptical
Explanation:
"There is also the consumer viewpoint to consider: Consumers are increasingly leery of biotechnological techniques and the use of drugs such as antibiotics and growth hormones to increase production because there is a fear that these chemicals are passed on in the meat, milk, or eggs of the animal."
In some cases, people who test positive for genetic testing can receive preventive treatments. For example, people who test positive for the breast cancer genes BRCA1 and BRCA2 can have a preventive mastectomy (breast removal surgery) before they develop the disease. In other cases, no preventive treatments are available, but frequent monitoring can help detect a disease earlier, when it’s more easily treated.
What ethical or professional concerns does a health-care professional need to address when he or she has a patient who wants to prematurely treat a genetic disease? Do you think genetic testing should be part of normal preventive healthcare? Why or why not?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
The obvious benefit of genetic testing is the chance to better understand of your risk for a certain disease. It can help ease uncertainty. Testing is not perfect, but it can often help you make decisions about your health.
Answer:
When it comes to treating genetic diseases, there are ethical and professional concerns that healthcare professionals need to address. For example, a patient who wants to undergo preventive treatment for a genetic disease may be putting themselves at risk unnecessarily, and a healthcare professional needs to weigh the potential benefits against the risks. Additionally, there may be financial and emotional costs associated with these treatments, and a healthcare professional needs to take these factors into account as well.
As for whether or not genetic testing should be part of normal preventive healthcare, there are arguments on both sides. On the one hand, genetic testing can help identify potential health risks before they become serious problems, allowing patients to take proactive steps to prevent or manage these issues. On the other hand, genetic testing can be expensive and may cause undue stress or anxiety for patients who receive unexpected results. Ultimately, the decision to include genetic testing in preventive healthcare should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the individual patient's needs and circumstances.
Explanation:
In the field of healthcare, it is vital to acknowledge the ethical and professional dilemmas that arise when patients request early intervention for a genetic ailment. While preventive treatments can be effective in certain scenarios, healthcare providers must weigh the potential benefits against the risks and side effects of the treatment. Moreover, healthcare practitioners must consider the psychological impact of a positive genetic test result on their patients.
The question of whether genetic testing should be included in routine preventive healthcare is multifaceted. On one hand, genetic testing can provide valuable insight into a patient's susceptibility to certain diseases, thereby facilitating early detection and intervention. However, genetic testing can also pose ethical concerns regarding privacy and possible discrimination based on genetic data.
In the end, the decision to pursue genetic testing as a means of preventive healthcare should be determined on a case-by-case basis, with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits, as well as the individual values and beliefs of the patient.
Why does the rate of somatic cell division differ?
Answer:
The cells divide in order to replace the old and damaged cells, and so that the body of the living being can grow
Explanation:
Answer:
The skin cells prevent germs from coming in our bodies. Skin cells are very easily removed, so it needs to reproduce faster. Every single person both young and old has new cells every second replacing the old and dead cells in your body.
explain : Changes in temperature and humidity: skin helps to regulate body temperature, control moisture loss and maintain the balance of fluids. Pressure, blows and abrasion: skin recognises pain and alerts us to danger. It acts as a barrier and shock absorber.
Name given to the two new cells formed at the end of cell division.
Answer:
Diploid cells
Explanation:
The daughter cells from mitosis are called diploid cells. Diploid cells have two complete sets of chromosomes.
if you were a monkey what would you do?
If i was a Monkey i would relax
and do monky things
Monkeys better than humans
Where is the foramen in this diagram of a bone from the vertebral column?
A. option A
B. option B
C. option C
D. option D
Answer:
What is C. option C
Explanation:
See Diagram of vertebral column I have provided below.
Have a happy day! <3Miss Hawaii
Why are bacteria called the borderline between plants and animals
Answer:
it's because they have the both characteristics of plants and animals
example:-
bacteria have cell wall that is a characteristic of the plants.but at the same case they also produce some nucleic acids that are only found in animals.so, they are the borderline between plants and animals.
Explanation:
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Frederick Griffith made a scientific discovery in 1928. Which best describes
the knowledge about genetics before 1928?
Answer:
Frederick Griffith's discovery on the theory of genetics is credited to his experiment on mice. He subjected them to different strains of pneumonia bacteria. He concluded that there is an unidentified force that leads to the formation of different strains from what the mice were subjected to. This leads to the discovery of DNA, the carrier of traits. Scientist before did not know how the trait is passed on not until Griffith's experiment.
Explanation:
antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to t cells in the _____________.
Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in the LYMPH NODES. These nodes are regions of the body where lymphocytes are activated.
T cells are white blood cells (lymphocytes), which form part of the immune system.
These cells (T cells) develop in the bone marrow.
The lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs in which naive T cells that search for specific antigens examine antigen-presenting cells (APCs) for their activation.
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enzymes that recognize specific, short nucleotide sequences in double stranded dna and cleave dna at these specific sites are known as
Answer:
Restriction enzymes, also called restriction endonucleases, recognize a specific sequence of nucleotides in double stranded DNA and cut the DNA at a specific location. They are indispensable to the isolation of genes and the construction of cloned DNA molecules.
what two main factors would best indicate the quality of life of a country’s population?
which statement is true regarding the agricultural production of genetically modified organisms
Explanation:
GMO stands for genetically modified organisms. The DNA of these organisms have been genetically altered through the techniques of genetic engineering which makes the organism better than its wild variety. These genetically altered organisms are also known as transgenic as they consist.
Genetically modified organism are in widespread use nowadays. But some reports shows that they might causes some health risks and may even lead to cancer. Thus, option D is correct.
What is genetically modified organisms?Genetically modified organism or GMOs are plants or animals with recreated or specially designed genes. The genetic modification is carrying for acquiring desirable characteristics and flourishment in growth.
Genetically modified crops will grow easily with inserted properties and characteristics. However they contains certain toxins that will effects human beings.
Health issues such as reproductive disorders, hepatic and pancreatic disorders, allergic reactions and even cancer. Therefore, genetically modified organism creates problems rather than their benefits.
Hence, option D that is, GMOs may be hazardous to human health in ways that we cannot yet understand is correct.
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your question is incomplete and your complete question probably was:
Which of the following are true regarding genetically modified organisms?
a) Widespread use of GMOs may promote a loss of biodiversity.
b) No scientific evidence has been found that GMOs pose any special risks to humans or the environment.
c) GM plants make up a significant part of our food supply.
d) GMOs may be hazardous to human health in ways that we cannot yet understand.
e) GMOs can be more nutritious than standard crops.
Which is NOT considered an organism?
fungi
virus
bacteria
German Sheppard
Answer:
Virus.
Explanation:
Living things are organisms
Fungi is a plant which is a living thing
bacteria is an organism
and a German Shepherd is a animal which is a living thing
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6. explain the relationship between enzymatic active sites & the
catalytic cycle of an enzyme
Answer: To catalyze a reaction, an enzyme will grab on (bind) to one or more reactant molecules. These molecules are the enzyme's substrates. ... The part of the enzyme where the substrate binds is called the active site (since that's where the catalytic “action” happens). A substrate enters the active site of the enzyme.
Explanation: Hope this helps.
29. When a substance is moved from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration,
a energy is needed.
b. cells begin to rupture.
C. diffusion has occurred.
d. mitochondria aren't needed.
What muscle type is located in blood vessels?
a
cardiac muscle
b
striated muscle
c
skeletal muscle
d
smooth muscle
Answer:
d.smooth muscle
Explanation:
Blood vessels contain only smooth muscle cells. These muscle cells reside within the tunica media along with elastic fibers and connective tissue
Answer:
d smooth muscle
Explanation:
Involuntary muscle that is found within the intestines, throat, uterus, and blood vessel walls.
the nucleus acid (blank) copies DNA so (blank) can be made
Answer:
RNA, Protein
Explanation:
The cell uses RNA as a messenger to carry the instructions to make proteins.
the actions of the internal intercostals are most important during __________.
Answer:
forced expiration
Explanation:
The speed at which air is expelled from the lungs during the middle portion of a forced expiration is very important to the actions of the internal intercostals.
hello, i need help with this :]
Answer:both would be an unshaded square
Explanation:because if they both have the same thing and it doesn’t say either are shaded then they aren’t shaded
what de-polymerizes microtubules to separate sister chromatids during anaphase?
Mitotic spindles depolymerize microtubules to separate sister chromatids during anaphase.
What are microtubules?Microtubules are present inside the cell. They are present in bundles, and they are together with a group of 9 to 11 microtubules. They are rigid and hollow from the inside. They are part of the exoskeleton.
Regarding how chromosomes travel during anaphase A, there are two primary theories. One is that the chromosomes are pulled along the kinetochore microtubules by motor proteins at the kinetochores using the energy from ATP hydrolysis, which causes the microtubules to depolymerize.
Therefore, the microtubules are separated or depolymerized by spindle fibers, to separate the sister chromatids into lines.
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why is it necessary for scientists to use clues from celestial objects to determine the age of our planet?
Answer:
Meteorites, which are the very components of our planets (through the process of accretion), are the remnants of the Solar System's origins. Dating meteorites thus allows us to give a lower age to the Solar System (4,56 billion years old).
Explanation:
how is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?
Answer:
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Explanation:
which is the main receptive portion of the neuron?
Answer:dendrites
The dendrites make up the receptive portion of the neuron, and receive most synaptic afferent inputs from upstream neurons. Cell body. The cell body, also the soma, is the integrative portion of the neuron, where incoming signals from dendrites are summed together.
Explanation:
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Question 2 of 25
Which best describes the scientists who contributed to our current body of
knowledge?
A. Scientists from all areas of the world
B. Scientists from the United States
C. Scientists from the Middle East
D. Scientists from Europe
Answer:
(a) because everyone is dmsrtll
A father with type A+ blood and a mother with type 0+ blood have four children. Of their four children, two have type A+ blood and two have
type O+ blood. What is the genotype of the father?
Answer:
The father IA i
Explanation:
They have a child O (ii)
the vitamin that poses the greatest risk for toxicity is:
The name of the tube which leads from kidney to the urinary bladder is
(a) capillary
(b) urethra
(c) ureter
(d) none of these
Answer:
What is (c) ureter
Explanation:
The ureters are two tubes that drain urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Each ureter is a muscular tube that drains into the bladder.
Answer:
c. ureter.......yhnjmm
the hazard communication standard is also known as
Answer:
OSHA's Hazard Communication standard, also known as the “Right to Know Law,” is designed to ensure that vital information about chemical hazards and protective measures is passed along to workers who may come in contact with or handle these types of chemicals.
Explanation:
The Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) is also known as the "Right-to-Know" standard because the standard gives workers the right to know about hazardous chemicals.
What is the Hazard Communication Standard?The HCS was created by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration for workers so that they are informed about the hazards of the chemicals they work with and to reduce the incidence of injuries, and the standard requires chemical manufacturers, importers, and employers to communicate information about hazardous chemicals to workers through a variety of means. Employers must inform workers about the identity and hazards of any chemicals they work with, and HCS applies to all hazardous chemicals used in the workplace, including chemicals used in manufacturing and construction.
Hence, the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) is also known as the "right-to-know" standard.
Learn more about the Hazard Communication Standard here.
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A natural function of the body necessary to support life is called _________________
Answer:brain
Explanation: