HELP I HAVE 5 MIN
what is x?

Answer:

b i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X=11

Step-by-step explanation:

5x+10+58=11x+2

-6x+68=2

-6x=-66

x=11

Answer:

1. is no its a dialation and 2. is yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

278.88 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,

Let the number be x, then

First subtract 14 from number x, then

x - 14

Now multiply difference by -2, results -44

(x - 14) × -2 = -44

By solving equation,

-2X + 28 = - 44

- 2X = -44 - 28

X = -72 ÷ -2

x = 36

So, Peter's number is 36.

Answer:

Cut them in half and do this

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2(?)(?)

Answer: The pattern of the numbers is constant: On the left and right side of the diamond, you have two numbers, sometimes called factors;In the top part you can find their product; and In the bottom section - their sum

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A i think to compare the measure of center ane varibaility

Answer:3 choice

Step-by-step explanation:

When you have this || you put the opposite mark

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

-6

-2

|-4|

|-5|

6

The || means "absolute value". Thats the distance from 0 on a number line.

Answer:u can estimate 246 to 200 and u can estimate 328 to 300

Step-by-step explanation:

add 34

Answer:

40.5

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 4 laps in 200 metres.

(200m÷50m)

2min 42 sec=120 sec+42sec (162sec)

so,

162÷4=40.5

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C:  none

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we have two separate functions named 'y.'  Eliminate 'y' temporarily by equating these functions together:

x + 2 = y = x - 1

Subtracting x from both sides, we get:

0 + 2 = y = 0 - 1, or

       2 = -1

This is never true, so C is the correct answer:  NO solutions.

An easier way in which to do this problem is to visualize the graphs of

y = x + 2 and y = x - 1.  The graphs are parallel straight lines; they never intersect, and therefore we can conclude "no solution."

Answer:

2 hours 45 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

9 :00 - 8:50 = 10 minutes.

11:35 - 9.00 = 2 hours 35 minutes.

So length of the trip = 2 hours 45 minutes.

Answer:

Solution given:

the trip take =11:35-8:50=2 hours 45 minutes.

Answer:

I think it's B, but this website says it A

Bobby’s conclusion is invalid because the number of clubs in which the student participates does not necessarily cause the English grade of a student to increase.

Step-by-step explanation:

Website:

It doesn't let me send the link but put this into ur search bar

AP Statistics Midterm 2020 quizziz, and click on the link that has AP Statistics Midterm 2020 on it, and it will be last question

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]3d^3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The contents of the box must make

[tex]7d^3 - \text{ BOX } = 4d^3[/tex]

To get [tex]7d^3[/tex] down to [tex]4d^3[/tex], you have to subtract [tex]3d^3[/tex]

Answer:

Well since there aren't any specifics all you can be given is an equation on how to solve it, if a box has 6 sides and it's a cube then it will just be L*W=A then multiply that area by 6, that gives you the full surface area and if you want it for 150 boxes then just multiply whatever you got for the surface area by 150. It will be different if it's a rectangular box though, with that you must solve the surface area for 3 different pieces and multiply them all by 2 then add them all up and you get the surface area of that shape, then you multiply by 150 and that's your answer.

Answer:

answer: 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello Love! The answer would be 1/4 because each time when flipping the coin you have a probability of 1/2 because you have equal chances of getting heads or tails then you multiply 1/2 by 1/2 and get 1/4

Answer: 1/4

Step-by-step explanation: In this problem, we are flipping a coin and we want to find the probability of flipping heads and heads.

Flipping a coin twice are events because the outcome of flipping 1 coin

does not affect the outcome of flipping the other coin.

First, find the probability of each event.

The probability of flipping headsnon the first coin toss is 1/2 since there

is 1 favorable outcome, flipping heads, and 2 possible outcomes.

The second flip will also be 1/2.

Now multiply the probabilities to get 1/4.

Answer:

33%

Step-by-step explanation:

(68/206) × 100 = 33%

the answer is 33%

Answer:

x < -5

Step-by-step explanation:

For the most part, you solve inequalities the same way you solve equations. So for this one, we just needed to divide both sides by 2.

The solution to the inequality is: x < -5. To solve the inequality 2x < -10, follow these steps:

1. Divide both sides of the inequality by 2 to isolate x.

2. Remember to reverse the inequality sign when dividing by a negative number.

Step 1: Divide both sides by 2:

(2x) / 2 < (-10) / 2

Step 2: Simplify:

x < -5

The solution to the inequality is:

x < -5

To know more about inequality:

https://brainly.com/question/20383699

#SPJ2

Answer:

the answer for the question is 8x2000

which is 16000 pounds

Answer:

If y is inversely proportional to x then y is 3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

√196 = 14

√169 = 13

√121 = 11

√225 = 15

√144 = 12

√100 = 10

Answer:

Hope this helps!!!

Have a great day!!!

√196=14

14*14=196

√169=13

13*13=169

√121=11

11*11=121

√225=15

15*15=225

√144=12

12*12=144

√100=10

10*10=100

Answer:

parallel lines

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is 0

Answer:

a) (0,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$493.01

Step-by-step explanation:

463.28 + 28.35 + 78.88 - 77.50

Answer:

493.01

Step-by-step explanation:

463.28 + (28.35+78.88) = 570.51

Deposits means to add money.

570.51 - 77.50 = 493.01

Step-by-step explanation:

That probability is 1/6 (one in six).  Certainly this outcome could happen, but the probability that it won't happen is 1 - 1/6, or 5/6.  Answer C is correct.

Answer:

the answer is 43.5. i am a 100% sure.

Step-by-step explanation: