Evaluate: show your work
Find the value of the variable.
102-8m=86

PLEASE HELP ME. I could really use your help. Please and thank you :))

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

minus 3 twice

 -3 times 2

Answer:

B (-3 x 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Think about it like simple multiplication. On the number line, there are two groups of 3, except the integer is actually negative. It's about the same though.

Answer:

The test statistic for this test is: z = -2.60, option b.

Step-by-step explanation:

The test statistic is:

[tex]z = \frac{X - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}[/tex]

In which X is the sample mean, [tex]\mu[/tex] is the value tested at the null hypothesis, [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation and n is the size of the sample.

H0: p = 0.50 vs HA : p≠0.50

This means that [tex]\mu = 0.5, \sigma = \sqrt{0.5*0.5} = 0.5[/tex]

A random sample of 900 13- to 17-year-olds found that 411 had a computer in their room with Internet access.

This means that [tex]n = 900, X = \frac{411}{900} = 0.4567[/tex]

Value of the test-statistic:

[tex]z = \frac{X - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}[/tex]

[tex]z = \frac{0.4567 - 0.5}{\frac{0.5}{\sqrt{900}}}[/tex]

[tex]z = -2.598[/tex]

The test statistic for this test is: z = -2.60, option b(should be).

Answer:

length of rectangular =250m

breath =130m

perimeter of rectangular field =(130*250)

=32500m

cost of fencing a rectangular field at the rate of 30 per meter

cost of the rectangular field =32500*30  

=rupees 975000

hope it helps

Answer:

B, D, B, D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

pucha no se

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:0.08

Step-by-step explanation:4756454434232

Answer:

70

Step-by-step explanation:

50 +20

Answer:

Algebaric Expression & Bar Diagram graphic representation of number of people in bus.

Step-by-step explanation:

No. of people on bus = n

After 9 more boarding & no one deboarding the bus , no. of people = n + 9

Bar diagrams is graphical method for presentation of data. Presenting the given in bar diagram :

Answer:

 can put this solution on YOUR website!

margin of error is t(0.995 df=67)*s/sqrt(n)

t=2.65

the margin of error is 2.65*885/sqrt(68)=$284.40

Answer:

you have got your mark in fraction.

Answer: the answer is 42.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is how you solve.

Take 140 and divide by 10.

You would get 14.

then, times 14 by 3 or add it 3 times.

14+14+14 is equal to 42.

hope This helped!

Answer:

5.60 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

7.63 - 2.01 = 5.62

5.62 ≈ 5.6

Tell me if there is any missing information in the question because the information for Denver seems useless and there probably something missing

Answer:

5/8 of swimmers in pool are male

Step-by-step explanation:

24 total swimmers

9 female so 9/24

15 male so 15/24

simplify 15/24

5/8 of swimmers in pool are male

Answer: $214

Step-by-step explanation:

First find how much you would have to pay if you payed $92 for 12 months. It would be 1104 (12 times 92)

Then you have to substract how much it would cot to pay by cash rather than paying $92 for 12 months. ( 1104-890 = 214)

Your answer is $214. You would save $214 if you pay by cash.

I hope this helps! May God bless you! :)

Answer:

What should I answer?

Step-by-step explanation:

Jim's payment is more than Jabu's after four months and Jabu's payment is more than Jim’s after five months.

It is given that Jim’s gym takes a deposit of 150 and a monthly charge of 120.

Let x be the number of months for which both are paying the charges.

Then, Jim's total charge=150+120x.

Now, Jabu’s gym takes no deposit and takes a monthly charge of 150.

Jabu’s gym total charge=150x

Substitute x=4 in the obtained expression to determine the total payment of both after four months.

Jim's total charge=150+120(4)

=150+480

=620

​Jabu’s gym total charge=150(4)

=600

So, Jim's payment is more than Jabu after four months.

Substitute x=5 in the obtained expression to determine the total payment of both after five months.  

Jim's total charge=150+120(5)

=150+600

=750

Jabu’s gym total charge=150(5)

=750

​So, Jabu's payment is more than Jim’s after five months.

Therefore, Jim's payment is more than Jabu's after four months and Jabu's payment is equal to Jim’s after five months.

To learn more about the deposit visit:

https://brainly.com/question/22697743.

#SPJ2

Answer:

1.66666666666666666667

Step-by-step explanation:

if rounded by the nearest tenth it is 1.7

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

10/6 = 1 and 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

10 pounds of candy, 6 bags.

that means 10 divided by 6, or 10/6

simplify that 10-6 = 4, 6 can only be subtracted once, so it is 1 and 4/6 or 2/3

2/3 is 0.666666... so add it together and you get 1.66666... or 1 and 2/3

Answer:

mode of this question is 71

Answer:

71

Step-by-step explanation:

because mode is the number that occurs most frequently

q(x=f(x-h+k

here, h=0, k=-8, so

to translate f(x) 8 units down, we have

q(x)=f(x-0)-8

=2x^2-3x+5-8

=2x^2-3x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]S _{n} = \frac{n}{2} (2a + (n - 1)d) \\ S _{14} = \frac{14}{2} ((2 \times 101) + (14 - 1) \times -3) \\ =1,141[/tex]

Answer:

49π

Step-by-step explanation:

Are of the circle equal π[tex]r^{2}[/tex] (where π is pi and "r" is the radius). Radius equals the diameter divided by 2. Therefore the area of this circle equals...

[tex](14 / 2)^{2}[/tex]π = [tex]7^{2}[/tex]π = 49π

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I am sorry but please give detailed question

Answer:

i'd be happy to help you, but there isn't an image attached.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

four million five hundred eight thousand three hundred

Step-by-step explanation:

your welcome!

Answer:

x = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

im 100% sure i hope this helps :)

Answer:

[tex]4x + 12 = 60 \\ 4x = 60 - 12 \\ 4x = 48 \\ x = \frac{48}{4} \\ x = 12[/tex]

=> 12 IՏ Tᕼᗴ ᑕOᖇᖇᗴᑕT ᗩᑎՏᗯᗴᖇ.

ʰᵒᵖᵉ ⁱᵗ ʰᵉˡᵖˢ

Answer:

$12

Step-by-step explanation:

His 4 late fees took -48 so I just divided the amount to the number of fees

Answer:

What are you even asking?

You'll lose on average $22 per roll.

====================================================

Explanation:

Normally there is a 1/6 chance to land on any given side of a standard die, but your friend has loaded the die in a way to make it have a 40% chance to land on "1" and an equal chance to land on anything else. Since there's a 40% chance to land on "1", this leaves 100% - 40% = 60% for everything else.  

Let's define two events

So far we know that P(A) = 0.40 and P(B) = 0.60; I'm using the decimal form of each percentage.

The net value of event A, which I'll denote as V(A), is -100 since you pay $100 when event A occurs. So we'll write V(A) = -100. Also, we know that V(B) = 30 and this value is positive because you receive $30 if event B occurs.

To recap things so far, we have the following:

Multiply the corresponding probability and net value items together

Then add up those products:

-40+18 = -22

This is the expected value, and it represents the average amount of money you earn for each dice roll. So you'll lose on average about $22. Because the expected value is not zero, this means this game is not mathematically fair.

This does not mean that any single die roll you would lose $22; instead it means that if you played the game say 1000 or 10,000 times, then averaging out the wins and losses will get you close to a loss of $22.

Step-by-step explanation:

x+6+90+3x-4=180 - - > x=22

So, the angle is 22+6=28°

Answer:

18/-4 as equivalent fraction there are many others