During telephase, the

A. Nuclear membrane breaks down

B. Spindle fibers reappear

C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell

D. Chromosomes replicate

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell

Explanation:

Telophase is the phase of mitosis when the cell begins to split, forming nuclear membranes around each new set of chromosomes.


Related Questions

PLSSS HELP IF YOU TURLY KNOW THISS

Answers

I think the answer is option D, but I could be wrong so I hope this helps if that answer is right for you :)
It is Water pollution

why is the blood-testis barrier , formed by systentocyte cells, important? group of answer choices to prevent immune cells to attack sperm cells. because immature sperm cells lose their motility when they encounter any blood component actually, the blood-testis barrier has no function. because some blood contents are toxic to the spermatozoa

Answers

The blood-testis barrier, formed by systentocyte cells, important beacuse it prevent immune cells to attack sperm cells.

The blood testis barrier prevents nutrients and leukocytes from passing through the Sertoli cells and into the seminiferous tubules, shielding developing spermatogenetic cells from contact with immune cells and antibodies.

It stops the basal lamina from being breached by the membrane antigens of differentiating sperm, which would otherwise enter the circulation and trigger the immune system.

Neurons are outnumbered by astrocytes, specialised glial cells, by a factor of roughly five. They continuously tile the entire central nervous system (CNS) and carry out numerous significant, complex activities in a healthy CNS.

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drag each label into the appropriate category to designate which reflex is described by the following terms.

Answers

The Spinal Cord's Structures To indicate if a particular item is a component of the CNS, drag each label into the relevant category.

What are the different categories for reflexes?

There are two types of reflexes: somatic and autonomic. Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands are typically activated during autonomic reflexes, which are uncontrollable and mediated by the autonomic division of the nervous system.

What are the many sorts of reflexes?

Reflex actions are the unintentional movements of a body component in response to a specific stimuli. Because neither will or consciousness is necessary for access, these activities are automatic. The pupillary light reflex is probably the most widely recognized reflex.

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from an evolutionary perspective, why might monogamy be one of the most common forms of mating systems in humans?

Answers

Males could then defend their young from other males in their ancestors' communities who would murder them in order to mate with their moms.

Monogamy: Is it harmful?

Unfortunately, if monogamy is practiced in an unhealthy way, it may turn poisonous. In a poisonous monogamous culture where relationships are prescribed by society, this is especially true.

Why is monogamy such a rarity?

Genes are the last arbiter, according to evolution. And if genes desire anything, it's to spread as much as they can. Therefore, mammalian monogamy is uncommon. While men can travel and inseminate several other females at that time, females must wait a long gestation period before having a kid.

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micro bio antibodies present across individuals from different but related species are known as

Answers

When antibodies against a disease are given to a person rather than the individual making them naturally through their immune system, passive immunity is created.

Why do antibodies exist?

Proteins called antibodies serve as your body's defense against foreign substances. Your immune system creates antibodies, which bind to these foreign molecules and transport them out of your body. Immunoglobulin is a different term for antibody.

What are immunogenicity and antigen?

Antigenicity is the capacity of a substance to be specifically recognized by the antibodies produced as a result of the immunological response to the given substance, whereas immunogenicity refers to a substance's capacity to cause cellular and humoral immune response.

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what type of pollution is at a research lab, a scientist carelessly pours cultures of living microbes down the drain.

Answers

A scientist who carelessly spills living microbe cultures down the drain is an example of bacterial pollution.

Which factors lead to bacterial pollution?

The two main potential sources of fecal bacteria are (1) animal feces from home pets, waterfowl, and urban animals, and (2) human sewage from broken onsite sewage systems (septics), dripping sewers, or cross-connections.

What effects does bacterial contamination have?

They are known as pathogens, and if consumed by people, they can emit chemicals that can result in illness or even death. Waterborne illnesses can cause gastrointestinal problems such severe diarrhea, nausea, and potentially jaundice in addition to headaches and exhaustion.

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Fruit flies have 8 chromosomes in their body cells, while dandelion cells have 16 chromosomes. Which species do you predict makes the more genetically varied offspring? cite evidence from the model of meiosis to support your prediction.

Answers

Offspring of Fruit flies (Drosophila) and dandelion cells have same genetical variability because both of them are diploid cells.

During Meiosis , Each and every diploid species receives the same response.

There are just half as many chromosomes in somatic (body) cells.

Gametes cells have n cells, whereas somatic cells include 2n cells.

Fruit fly (Drosophila) gametes have four chromosomes, but dandelion cells gamete have eight chromosomes.

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which pathogen causes toxic shock syndrome? group of answer choices vibrio cholerae staphylococcus aureus pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answers

Toxic shock syndrome is most frequently brought on by Staphylococcus aureus (staph). Staph is present in the skin and nostrils of about 25% of individuals and animals. Staph can produce toxins that can lead to food poisoning, but in healthy individuals, it typically does not make them sick.

Either streptococcus or staphylococcus bacteria are responsible for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). These bacteria often reside harmlessly on the skin, nose, or mouth, but if they infiltrate deeper into the body, they may emit toxins that affect organ function and tissue.

Hemolysin, exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, leukotoxin, and toxic-shock syndrome toxin-1 are some of the toxins that S. aureus most frequently secret.

Thus, we can conclude that toxic shock syndrome is brought on by Staphylococcus aureus (staph) germs.

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what is the most likely mechanism of inheritance for the rare genetic disorder represented in the pedigree?

Answers

X - linked recessive is the most likely mechanism of inheritance for the rare genetic disorder represented in the pedigree.

The pedigree reveals that all girls and 50% of sons with normal parents are unaffected, indicating that the disease's allele should be present in the recessive condition. The condition is present in the mother on her X-chromosome, who acts as the carrier mother and conveys the trait to 50% of sons. The father exhibits all recessive traits because he has one copy of both the X and Y chromosomes. The kids would have displayed it equally frequently in both sexes had it been an autosomal feature. Additionally, the offspring of the sick father and unaffected mother are normal, indicating that the disorder is an X-linked recessive one.The condition does not manifest in a heterozygous daughter since the diseased father has passed the affected X-chromosome on to daughters who inherit the second copy of the X-chromosome from the healthy mother. However, these daughters will act as the disease's carriers. The illness known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy causes the muscles to gradually deteriorate. It is a sex-related condition. Only homozygous genotypes can express the disorder's allele; heterozygous genotypes cannot. Recessive alleles are those that can express themselves in homozygous genotypes but not in heterozygotes, as is well known.

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Which type of stem cell is able to differentiate into any cell type, including extraembryonic placental cells?(1 point)
Ο pluripotent cells
Ο multipotent cells
Ο embryonic cells
Ο totipotent cells

Answers

The totipotent cells type of stem cell is able to differentiate into any cell type, including extraembryonic placental cells.

What are totipotent cells?

Totipotent stem cells are cells that have the capacity to self-renew by dividing and to develop into the three primary germ cell layers of the early embryo and into extra-embryonic tissues such as the placenta.

Moreover, totipotent means having the ability to differentiate into all cell types. For example, the zygote and early embryonic cells are totipotent since they can differentiate into any cell type during development.

Therefore, totipotent stem cells have the capacity to produce all adult cell types, can enter the germ line (i.e. contribute genetic material to succeeding generations), and have proven ability to self-replicate (i.e. produce daughter cells that are identical to the parent).

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In the previous section, we saw a molecule made of three atoms to have a linear shape. In this section, we have observed a three atom molecule with a bent molecular shape. What is causing the difference in the two shapes?.

Answers

The causing difference in the two shapes is a standard explanation.

For bent vs linear, linear is a straight line with bond angles of 180 degrees. This only occurs when there are no lone pairs to cause repulsion. When there are lone pairs, then the molecule will be bent because the lone pairs cause the bonded elements to move away from the electrons.

Bent = Linear but bent due to the Lone Pairs that it contains, the more Lone Pairs the greater the bent and the smaller the degree.

If you have a lone pair of electrons you know the molecule is bent. In the case of water, there are two bonds connecting to H, but there are also two lone pairs pushing the two bonds, creating a bent shape rather than a straight line.

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air pollution can influence a person’s quality of life. which best identifies the influence of air pollution?

Answers

Air pollution can be recognized as the influence of a bad environment.

Air pollution is a condition in which the air contains harmful molecules, either caused by human activities or due to natural occurrences from the Earth. The main cause of air pollution today is the burning of fossil fuels, such as oil and coal. Combustion of these fuels is usually used to produce energy for electricity generation or transportation.

Poor environmental conditions due to the many activities that use fossil fuels in motorized vehicles or industrial factories around us, are the main cause of air pollution. The content of carbon dioxide from fossil fuels traps heat in the atmosphere which will result in poor air quality. Air pollution will affect a person's quality of life by having a different adverse impact on each person depending on each person's immunity. A person can suffer from various kinds of diseases ranging from eye irritation, dizziness and even bronchitis and pneumonia due to the content of harmful substances in the air.

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What evidence do you look for to determine whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A.)

B.)

C.)

D.)

Answers

Answer:

Eukaryotic cells have a distinct nucleus that houses the cell's genetic material, whereas prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and instead have free-floating genetic material. This is where the two types of cells most significantly diverge.

what is love for and why?

Answers

love is being there for someone. love is a commitment you have with a person. Being there for someone is what a real relationship needs. You need to put efforts or else the bond will break and things won’t work out.

Answer:

Being there for someone is what a real relationship needs. When we neglect to put in the effort is when things don't work out with someone that could have been perfect for us.

Love is considered to be both positive and negative, with its virtue representing human kindness, compassion, and affection, as "the unselfish loyal and benevolent concern for the good of another.

Explanation:

if you take a test in the same condition in which you studied for the test, you are using ____ _____ learning.

Answers

If you take a test in the same condition in which you studied for the test, you are using state-dependent learning.

What is state-dependent learning?

State-dependent learning refers to the situation in which the internal state is distinct from the observed and or reported during the training procedure, thereby leading to distinct performance that may impair the final results of the process.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that State-dependent learning is a process associated with the differential state between the internal condition and observations related to such state of the process.

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What is the name of the scientist that developed the classification system we use today?.

Answers

Answer:

Carl Linnaeus

Explanation:

All modern classification systems have their roots in the Linnaean classification system. It was developed by Swedish botanist Carolus Linnaeus in the 1700s. He tried to classify all living things that were known at his time.

which finding provides evidence that opioid drugs enhance the brain reward system in animal models?

Answers

Answer:

Opioids are currently the most effective pain relieving pharmaceuticals. However, they are also rewarding and their repeated use can lead to dependence and addiction. In fact, addiction to opioid analgesics is a growing socioeconomic and health problem with potentially serious consequences documented by a rise in deaths due to overdose [1, 2]. A critical CNS locus for opioid reward is the ventral tegmental area (VTA, glossary, vide infra). Recent work indicates that there is great anatomical and pharmacological heterogeneity in VTA neurons and that there are numerous opioid

the most important step in making sure the proper amino acid is added to a growing polypeptide chain is:

Answers

The anticodon that binds to the proper position on the mRNA is only found on the tRNA that carries the subsequent amino acid in the polypeptide chain. By using this approach, the chain's amino acids are inserted in the right order.

What controls the addition of the proper amino acid to the expanding protein chain during translation?

The aminoacyl-tRNA anticodon base couples with the mRNA codon at the A (amino acid) site to ensure that the proper amino acid is added to the lengthening polypeptide chain.

What two procedures guarantee that a developing polypeptide chain is augmented with the proper amino acid?

First, each aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase only binds a single amino acid to the proper tRNA after recognizing it specifically.

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What mode of nutrition distinguishes animals from fungi, both of which are heterotrophs?.

Answers

The mode of nutrition which differentiates animals from fungi, both of them being heterotrophs, is- Ingestion: Eating.  

Animals and fungi are both heterotrophs, i.e. they are not able to synthesize their own food like the autotrophs (plants). The only difference between them is that the animals take in their food by means of Ingestion  and digest the food inside their body. However, fungi are saprophytic in nature, i.e. they feed on dead and decaying organisms, and are not able to digest the food inside their body.

The question is incomplete. The complete question is:-

Which mode of nutrition differentiates animals from fungi, both of them being heterotrophs?

The options are given below:-

(a) Vitamins: Mode,

(b) Ingestion: Eating,

(c) Mitosis: Scales,

(d) None of the above.

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what does it mean when 30% of the phenotypic variation in a quantitative trait is due to environmental variation

Answers

acts on quantitative qualities controlled by several genes, often known as expanding the options Favors at least two phenotypes Specific genotype fitness values are higher inside one environment & lower in another.

Which are the two forms of variation in phenotypes?

Phenotypic variation in populations is a result of three nongenetic factors, including stochastic developmental variation or environmentally induced variability (EIV) (SDV).

What do phenotypic and genotypic variation mean?

The genotype, which is the actual DNA code, is the combination of alleles in a particular gene.Phenotypic variation—the difference in phenotypes across individuals—can be caused by genetic variation.A genotype's physical expression is called a phenotype.

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A nucleotide deletion early in the coding sequence of a gene would most likely result in __________.

Answers

Early deletion of nucleotides in the coding sequence of a gene can result in missense mutation, frameshift mutation, multiple missense mutation and non-functional protein.

A mutation is a change in a short portion of a gene's nucleotide sequence. One nucleotide is frequently replaced by another in point mutations; other changes involve the insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides. Large deletions can eliminate a whole gene or a number of nearby genes, whereas small deletions just remove one or a few nucleotides from a gene. The impacted protein or proteins' functionality may change as a result of the removed DNA. A frameshift mutation in a gene refers to the insertion or deletion of nucleotide bases in non multiplier numbers of three. This is important because when a cell makes a protein it reads the code for the gene in groups of three bases. A missense variant is a type of substitution in which a nucleotide change replaces one protein building block (amino acid) with another in the protein made from the gene. An amino acid change can alter the function of a protein. Another type of substitution is nonsense transformation. However, instead of a change in one amino acid, the altered DNA sequence results in a stop signal that tells the cell in advance to stop making the protein.

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Based on the pattern of inheritance known as sex linkage, if a male is a hemophiliac, how many genes for this trait are present on the sex chromosomes in each of his diploid cells?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answers

Answer:

Based on the pattern of inheritance known as sex linkage, if a male is a hemophiliac, he has two genes for this trait on the sex chromosomes in each of his diploid cells, which is the correct answer choice (B).

Explanation:

In humans, the trait for hemophilia is a recessive trait that is carried on the X chromosome. A male has only one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, while a female has two X chromosomes. This means that a male will express a recessive trait carried on the X chromosome if he inherits a copy of the mutated gene from his mother, while a female will only express the trait if she inherits a copy of the mutated gene from both of her parents.

Since a male hemophiliac inherited the mutated gene for hemophilia from his mother, he has two copies of the mutated gene, one on each of his X and Y chromosomes. This means that there are two genes for this trait on the sex chromosomes in each of his diploid cells.

The other answer choices are incorrect, as they do not accurately reflect the pattern of inheritance for sex-linked traits.

Write a short note on how Forest influence the quality of Air, soil and water resources.

Answers

Forest influences the quality of Air, soil, and water resources in many ways. It helps in maintaining the temperature of the earth.

Forest is an ecological system that includes many life forms. It helps in controlling various climatic changes. Forest protects biodiversity by helping many plants and animals.

The role of forest in influencing air, water, and soil involves the following:

Air: The forest helps in maintaining various gases in the atmosphere like oxygen, carbon dioxide, etc. It purifies the air and in turn, reduces the greenhouse effect.

Soil: The forest adds nutrients to the soil. Forest helps in firmly binding the soil by absorbing nutrients and water using trees. This, in turn, helps in reducing soil erosion.

Water: The forest helps increase the level of underground water through the rain. Eventually helping in water conservation. It balances and regulates the water cycle.

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Answer:

(i) Forests protect the soil from erosion. (ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another. (iii) Forests influence the climate and water cycle. (iv) Soil helps forests to grow and regenerate.

Explanation:

do antibiotics create resistant strains of bacteria? choose one: a. yes, overexposure to antibiotics causes the proteins on the surface of the bacteria to change. b. no, to become resistant to antibiotics, individual(s) in a population must randomly mutate, and that mutation, if heritable, causes the bacterial population to become resistant to antibiotics. c. no, antibiotics can work only on the strain they were tested for. d. yes, overuse of antibiotics causes the dna of bacteria to mutate and the bacteria becomes resistant.

Answers

No, to become resistant to antibiotics, individual(s) in the population must randomly mutate and that mutation, if heritable, will cause the bacterial population resistant to antibiotics.

Antibiotics are drug treatments that combat infections resulting from bacteria in humans and animals by using both killing the microorganism and making it difficult for the bacteria to develop and multiply.

An antibiotic is a sort of antimicrobial substance lively towards microorganisms. It's miles the most important sort of antibacterial agent for fighting bacterial infections, and antibiotic medicinal drugs are widely used in the remedy and prevention of such infections.

Antibiotics are used to deal with or save you from some forms of bacterial contamination.

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Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes produce:
- Class II MHCs
- Self proteins
- Antibodies, which make holes in cell membrane of infected cells
- Perforin, which makes holes in cell membrane of infected cells

Answers

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes produce Perforin, which makes holes in cell membrane of infected cells.

What is Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes?It is possible to extract cytotoxic T cells from healthy blood cells, develop them in the lab, and then provide them to a patient to eradicate cancer cells. A cytotoxic T cell is a specific kind of lymphocyte and white blood cell. additionally known as killer T cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes.In order to kill their prey, cytotoxic T cells induce apoptosis in them (Fig. 8.35). Centrifugation can quickly bring target cells and cytotoxic T cells into contact, causing antigen-specific target cells to be programmed to die within five minutes, albeit the death may not be fully apparent for many hours.

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what is the correct order in which inhaled air sequentially moves through the structures of the respiratory passageways starting from the mouth ?

Answers

Correct order in which inhaled air sequentially moves through the structures of the respiratory passageways starting from the mouth is :  Nostrils →pharynx →larynx →trachea →alveoli.

How is inhaled air moves through the structures of the respiratory passageways?

The process of taking air into the lungs is known as inhalation, and process of breathing it out is exhalation and air is inhaled through the mouth or  the nose. The sequence of air passage during inhalation is: Nostrils →pharynx →larynx →trachea →alveoli.

Organ system that helps in the breathing process is called respiratory system. It includes nasal airway (Nose, Pharynx, Larynx, and Trachea), Lungs and blood vessels for the gaseous exchange.

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c. how do the thermodynamic contributions involved in establishing the equilibrium of the folded to unfolded state of proteins? (proteinfolded

Answers

When a protein's structural changes are being tracked by spectroscopic or calorimetric methods in the presence of a denaturing agent, this is referred to as thermodynamics of protein folding.

What thermodynamic variables affect the folding of proteins?

Protein folding is a very delicate process that is regulated by a variety of external stimuli, such as temperature, pH, chemicals, molecule crowding, electric and magnetic fields, and temperature. These elements affect a protein's capacity to fold into the appropriate functional forms.

The hydrophobic effect and traditional hydrogen bonding, coupled with Coulombic interactions and van der Waals interactions, are the main causes of protein folding.

The research revealed that several ideas concur that protein folding is a subject to thermodynamic regulation.

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what is the fill-in endoskeleton or exoskeleton

Answers

Answer: An exoskeleton is a hard external skeleton that protects the outer surface of an organism. An endoskeleton is an internal skeleton composed of hard, mineralized tissue that also enables movement by attachment to muscles.

Explanation: An endoskeleton is a skeleton found within the interior of the body; it provides structural support and protection for the internal organs and tissues of an organism.

Endoskeletons can take several forms, and can differ in complexity, shape and function, depending on the requirements of the animal. Most vertebrates have an endoskeleton, which is comprised of mineralized tissue in the form of bone and cartilage. This ‘true skeleton’ is formed from the mesoderm during embryogenesis.  

Examples :

humans

horses

monkeys

dogs

sharks

An exoskeleton is defined as a stiff outer covering made of chitin and calcium carbonate located on the exterior of some creatures. It covers, supports, and protects the main body of many organisms, for example, invertebrates and crustaceans. Oftentimes, exoskeletons include multiple segments linked by flexible joints that allow for mobility. Exoskeletons are not a living structure and act as the main structural component of creatures who possess them.

Examples :

Grasshoppers

Bees

Cicadas

Scorpions

Crabs

Lobsters

Shrimp

Snails

Clams

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why can't the results shown here be used as proof that the two different forms of the enhancer are important in determining dark versus blond hair?

Answers

An enhancer's DNA sequence that differs by a single nucleotide and is located more than 350,000 base pairs from the gene's coding region.

Explain about the enhancer?

Enhancers are DNA-regulatory components that increase the transcription of a gene or genes more than it would be the case without them. These elements act remotely by generating chromatin loops that put the enhancer and target gene close together23.

The regulatory mechanisms by which cells develop patterns of gene expression are supported by enhancer function. According to recent research, enhancers are defined by specific chromatin marks in pluripotent cells. These chromatin marks can be changed later in development to change patterns of gene expression and cell differentiation options.

Enhancer sequences are regulatory DNA sequences that promote the transcription of a related gene when they are bound by particular proteins known as transcription factors.

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write down one function of growth hormone and one function of insulin​

Answers

One function of growth hormone (GH) is to stimulate growth and cell reproduction. This hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of tissues and organs. It stimulates the uptake of amino acids by cells, promoting the synthesis of proteins, which are essential for growth and tissue repair. GH also stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which enhances the effects of GH on growth and metabolism.

One function of insulin is to regulate glucose metabolism and maintain blood sugar levels within a healthy range. This hormone is produced by the pancreas and plays a key role in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose by cells, allowing them to use it as a source of energy. It also stimulates the synthesis of glycogen, a molecule that is used to store glucose in the liver and muscles. Insulin also inhibits the production of glucose by the liver, preventing the blood sugar levels from becoming too high.

Hey thanks for making my previous answer brainliest, happy to help :)

Answer:

Insulin: The main function of insulin is to allow glucose to enter the cells so that it can be used as energy. Insulin helps to maintain the normal level of glucose found in the bloodstream.

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