Complete the equivalent fraction.2/1= /18

Answer:

The simplest answer is

[tex] \frac{16}{21} [/tex]

The reason how I got that is because to divide fractions, you have to turn them improper. Once you've done that, you then can multiply it by using the reciprocal of the second fraction. Once they are rearranged, multiply all the numerators by each other. do the same with the denominators and form a new fraction.

[tex] \sf \longmapsto1 \frac{1}{3 } \div 1\frac{3}{4} [/tex]

[tex]\sf \longmapsto \frac{4}{3} \div \frac{7}{4} [/tex]

[tex]\sf \longmapsto \frac{4}{3} \times \frac{4}{7} [/tex]

[tex]\sf \longmapsto \frac{4 \times 4}{3 \times 7} [/tex]

[tex]\sf \longmapsto \frac{16}{21} [/tex]

Therefore the answer is :

[tex]\sf \frac{16}{21} [/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

All magnets have two poles -- arbitrarily called North and South; a magnet is characterized by the magnetic force it creates.

s = standard version amount

h = high quality version amount

we know that there were 1090 downloads of the song, meaning s + h = 1090.

we also know that the total amount of MBs downloaded was 3353 MBs, and since the standard is 2.1 MBs and the high quality is 4.9MBs, then 2.1s + 4.9h = 3353.

[tex]\begin{cases} s+h=1090\\ 2.1s + 4.9h = 3353\\[-0.5em] \hrulefill\\ h = 1090 - s \end{cases}\qquad \stackrel{\textit{substituting on the 2nd equation}}{2.1s+4.9(1090-s) = 3353} \\\\\\ 2.1s + 5341 - 4.9s = 3353\implies -2.8s + 5341 = 3353 \\\\\\ -2.8s=-1988\implies s = \cfrac{-1988}{-2.8}\implies \boxed{s = 710}[/tex]

Answer:-4

-3

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

thx

Answer:

x=9

Step-by-step explanation:

The purple expressions are equal because they are Z angles.

So solve

2x + 15 = 5x - 12

=>

15 + 12 = 5x - 2x

27 = 3x

x = 27/3 = 9

Answer:

[tex]x\geq 2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Write out the problem

[tex]\frac{x}{-5+6} \geq 2[/tex]

Simplifiy -5 + 6 = 1

[tex]\frac{x}{1} \geq 2[/tex]

Remember that any fraction with a denominator of 1 is equilvalent to the numerator, so

[tex]\frac{x}{1} =x[/tex]

[tex]x\geq 2[/tex]

Answer:

404

Step-by-step explanation:

you just add numbers you know first

Answer:

f(x)= 8x

Step-by-step explanation:

x represents the number of days. 8 represents the number of glasses per day.

Answer:

[tex]-4t \geq -25[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

"A number t multiplied by −4" can be written as '-4t'

At least is a phrase for "greater than or equal tp", so that would be our sign for the inequality.

A number t multiplied by −4 is at least −25 should be:

[tex]-4t\geq-25[/tex]

Hope this helps.

Step-by-step explanation:

35/48

this cannot be simplified any further

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming it has no spin

KE = ½mv²

KE = ½(12)10²

KE = 600 J

Answer:

i dont know 69 420?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

36 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

504/14=36

Answer:3333

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 ft 3 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4c 6th fastest 9.I gghiii

Answer:

g(f(-3)) = -11

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we evaluate f(-3) and then plug that value into g(x) for x:

f(x) = 5x + 11

f(-3) = 5(-3) + 11 = -15 + 11 = -4

Therefore:

g(f(-3)) = (-4)^2 + 4(-4) - 11 = 16 - 16 - 11 = 0 - 11 = -11

Answer: -11

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the value of g(f(-3)) given the two equations:

f(x) = 5x + 11

g(x) = x² + 4x - 11

Plug -3 into equation f(x).

f(-3) = 5(-3) + 11

Solve for f(x).

-4 = f(-3)

Plug -4 into the equation of g(x).

g(-4) = (-4)² + 4(-4) - 11

Solve for g(x).

g(-4) = (16) + (-16) - 11

g(-4) = -11

The value of g(f(-3)) is -11.

Answer:

  B)  102 units

Step-by-step explanation:

The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other. This means ...

  BE = ED

  3 -9x = -8x +14

  -11 = x . . . . . . . . . . . . add 9x -14

  BE = 3 -9x = 3 -9(-11) = 3 +99

  BE = 102 units

Answer:

72 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

You would multiply the 3 inches per hour times the 24 hours to get 72 inches of snow.

Answer:

72 Inches

Step-by-step explanation:

24x3=72

Answer:

Angle 145 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it can help you lovelots

Answer:

I , II, and III are true

Step-by-step explanation:

4+2x≤4

Subtract 4 from each side

4+2x-4≤4-4

2x≤0

Divide by 2

2x/2 ≤0/2

x≤0

0 is less than or equal to 0 so I is true

-4 is less than or equal to 0 so II is true

-3 is less than or equal to 0 so III is true

Answer:

$12

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming you meant $6 per 1/2 hour

since by multiplying 1/2 by 2 we get 1 ( our unit rate) 6*2 = 12

whole number

12

fraction

12/1

Brainliest would be appreciated if this is helpful. Let me know if you have more questions

Hope this helps!

The probability that the average selling price of the 35 homes will be within $2000 of the true mean is 0.5753

First, we need to find the z-score and this is expressed according to the formula;

[tex]z=\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

x is the sample space

[tex]\mu[/tex] is the mean value

[tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation

Given the following parameters

Mean = $275,000

Standard deviation = $10,500

If the true mean is $273,000, then;

[tex]z=\dfrac{273,000-275000}{10,500} \\z = \frac{-2000}{10500}\\z= -0.1905[/tex]

If the true mean is $277,000

[tex]z=\dfrac{277,000-275000}{10,500} \\z = \frac{2000}{10500}\\z= 0.1905[/tex]

This means that the z-score is between -0.1095 and 0.1095

Pr( -0.1095 ≤ z ≤ 0.1095)

According to the z table, the probability that the average selling price of the 35 homes will be within $2000 of the true mean is 0.5753

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/17436641

Answer:

b=114

c=43................

Answer:

3 (remainder 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

rise is 4 and run is 1 so 4/1 or 4

the answer is b

Hope This Helps!!!

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.3472 = 34.72% probability that it comes up five exactly once.

For each dice that is rolled, there are only two possible outcomes, either it comes up 5, or it does not. The probability of a dice coming up 5 is independent of any other dice, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

The probability that it comes up five exactly once is P(X = 1), hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{3,1}.(0.1667)^{1}.(0.8333)^{2} = 0.3472[/tex]

0.3472 = 34.72% probability that it comes up five exactly once.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

200%

Step-by-step explanation:

It increases by 3 times. Because 100% increase is a 2x increase, 200% will be a 3x increase. Therefore, your answer is 200%.