can you please help !

Answer:

-44.35

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 = 0.25 (as 0.25 * 4 = 1)

-25 1/4 = -25.25

-25.25 - 19.1 = -44.35

The value is -44.35.

The process of replacing a mathematical expression with one that is equivalent, simpler, and typically shorter. Examples of simplification include simplifying algebraic expressions in computer algebra, simplifying Boolean expressions in logic optimization, and simplifying fractions by using conjunction elimination in logic inference to produce a formula that is simpler but typically not equivalent to the original.

Given [tex]-25\frac{1}{4}[/tex] - 19.1

[tex]-25\frac{1}{4}[/tex] can be written as -(25 + 1/4)

1/4 multiply and divide by 25

we get 25/100

to convert fraction into decimal make the base multiple of 10 and put decimal ahead the no. of digits

20/100 = 0.25

equation is -25.25 - 19.1 = -44.35

Hence the value is -44.35.

Learn more about simplification;

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Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

15/8

Step-by-step explanation:

You will want all numbers to have the same common denominator, then you can add them together.

1 = 8/8

1/2 = 4/8

1/4 = 2/8

1/8 = 1/8

[tex]1+\frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} \\\frac{8}{8} +\frac{4}{8} +\frac{2}{8} +\frac{1}{8}[/tex]

Answer:

The mentioned number in the exercise is:

Step-by-step explanation:

To obtain the mentioned number in the exercise, first you must write the equations you can obtain with it.

If:

We can write:

Taking into account these data, we can use the third equation and replace it to obtain the number and the value of each digit:

Now, we know z (the ones digit) is 2, we can use the first equation to obtain the value of x:

And we'll use the second equation to obtain the value of y (the tens digit):

Organizing the digits, we obtain the number:

As you can see, the obtained number is 362.

Answer:

The y-int is different -1 is the y-int.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Rs.27000

Step-by-step explanation:

60000 ÷ 2 = 30000 per year

30000 × [tex]\frac{10}{100}[/tex] = Rs. 3000

30000 - 3000 = Rs. 27000

20 / 52 = 5 / 13

Probability(P) is the likelihood of occurrence of an event. It is given by;

P = total number of favourable outcomes ÷ total number of possible outcomes

In a pack of playing cards, there are 52 cards altogether.

Therefore, the total number of possible outcomes = 52

To get the probability that a card drawn at random is neither a face nor a black card, the following should be noted.

i. There are 12 face cards in the pack. These are the kings (4 cards), queens(4 cards) and the jacks (4 cards).

Therefore, number of cards that are not face cards = 52 - 12 = 40

ii. Black cards are half of the total number of cards = 26.

These black cards contain half of the kings, queens and jacks cards = 6 which are already included in the face cards. Therefore, the remaining black cards will be 26 - 6 = 20

Neither a face card nor a black card = 40 - 20 = 20 [number of favourable outcomes]

The probability of getting neither a face card nor a black card is

=> total number of favourable outcomes ÷ total number of possible outcomes

=> 20 / 52 = 5 / 13

Answer:

∠E = 150°

Step-by-step explanation:

All sides of the convex pentagon ABCDE are of equal length, and ∠A = ∠B = 90°. What is the degree measure of ∠E?

Solution:

A pentagon is a polygon with five sides and five angles. For a regular polygon, all the sides are equal and each angle is 108°.

Since ∠A and ∠B are right angles, and AE = BC = AB = CE. Therefore ABCE is a square. This means ∠AEC = 90°

Also triangle CDE is equilateral because all sides of the triangle are equal, hence ∠DEC = 60°.

Therefore ∠E = ∠AEC + ∠DEC = 90° + 60°

∠E = 150°

Answer:

0.5625 = 56.25% probability that she will make the next two free-throws in the next game.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each free throw, there are only two possible outcomes. Either Sellina makes it, or she misses. The probability of making a free throw is independent of any other free throw. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

75% of her free-throws.

This means that [tex]p = 0.75[/tex]

What is the probability that she will make the next two free-throws in the next game?

This is P(X = 2) when n = 2. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.75)^{2}.(0.25)^{0} = 0.5625[/tex]

0.5625 = 56.25% probability that she will make the next two free-throws in the next game.

Answer:

(2, −6.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to a system of equations is where they intersect

They intersect near x = 2 y = -6.5

Answer:

(2, −6.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

∠1 = ∠5 (corresponding angle)

⇒∠5 = 50 deg

∠5+∠6=180 deg   (total sum is 180)

50+∠6=180

∠6=180-50

∠6=130

Step-by-step explanation:

∠5=86 (corresponding angle)

∠5=(4x+38) (vertically opp angle)

86=4x+38

4x=86-38

4x=48

x=12

Answer:

angle 1+angle 6=180(being exterior alternate angle)

50+angle 6=180

angle 6=180-50

angle 6=130

for value of x

angle 5=86 degree(being corresponding angle)

angle 5=angle 4x-38

86=4x-38

86+38=4x

124/4=x

31=x

relationship between angle 2 and 6 is they are corresponding angles

angle 1=63+61

angle 1=124 degree

5 no .second option is correct

6 no a=75 degree

last question answer =34 degree

Step-by-step explanation:

The change she receive = 20-6.43= 13.57$

Answer:

$13.57

Step-by-step explanation:

$20 - $6.43

=13.57

5 )

x^2 = 5^2 + 5^2

x^2 = 2 × 5^2

x = √( 2 × 5^2 )

x = 5√2 cm

_____________

6 )

x^2 = 30^2 + 40^2

x^2 = 900 + 1600

x^2 = 2500

x = √2500

x = 50 yards

Answer:

74

3n+2

3×24=72

72+2=74

Ans it depends but i think it is a and b

Answer:

Results are below.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is not clear what the question is. But, I will assume that we need to calculate the future value of each investment at age 65.

First, we need to calculate the future value of the monthly deposit made by Ben. We will use the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= monthly deposit= 500

Interest rate (i)= 0.11/12= 0.0092

Number of months (n)= (26 - 19)*12= 84

FV= {500*[(1.0092^84) - 1]} / 0.0092

FV= $62,944.74

Now, the future value of the investment of Ben at age 65:

FV= PV*(1 + i)^n

n= (65 - 26)*12= 468 months

FV= 62,944.74*(1.0092^468)

FV= $4,574,131.31

Finally, the future value of the investment for Arthur:

i= 0.0092

n= (65 - 27)*12= 456

A= 500

FV= {500*[(1.0092^456) - 1]} / 0.0092

FV= $3,484,032.07

Answer:

150.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula to the find volume of a pyramid:

V=1/3 (B)(h)

V=1/3 (19) (23.8)

Answer:

The answer final is : 11x  I'm very sure

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want me to expand on the equation leave me a comment

Answer:  38 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the dimensions of the garden, we can infer that it a rectangular garden because one side is longer than the other.

The perimeter of a rectangle is calculated as:

= (2 * length) + (2 * width)

= (2 * 15) + (2 * 4)

= 30 + 8

= 38 feet

Answer:

(1/4)CD

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of a segment that represents 25% will be 1/4 as long as the segment representing 100%.

25% is 1/4 of 100%

25% = 1/4 = 0.25

Answer:

The answer is 21 remainder 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine price per lb, divide dollar amount by lbs.

- Company A sells 2 1/2lbs (2.5lbs) for $32.50

So, Company A's price / lb = ($32.50/2.5lbs) = $13.00/lb

- Company B sells 2 3/4lbs (2.75lbs) for $35.00

And, Company B's price / lb = ($35.00/2.75lbs) = $12.73/lb

Therefore, Company B is offering the lowest price/lb at $12.73/lb.

Answer: tasha's investment will be worth $1,440

Step-by-step explanation:

4%= 4/100= 0.04

PRT=6,000*0.04*6= $1,440

Answer:

3.9 mi^2 (rounded)

Answer:

0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

10^-2 = 1/100

1/100 * 5 = 0.05 or 1/20

Answer:

12.5 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Im taking the exam!!

Answer:

The initial arm of an angle rotates to its terminal position, either in a positive, counterclockwise direction or a negative, clockwise direction. The principal angle is the first positive angle less than 360°.

The positive angle formed when an angle is in a standard position is called principal angle.

An angle is formed at the point where two or more lines meet.  And it is said to be in a standard position if its edge is located at to the origin with its initial arm in line with the horizontal axis. The initial arm of an angle is the side with which the angle is measured from, while the terminal arm is the side on which the measure of an angle terminates. Thus, angles are normally measured from there initial arm to the terminal arm.

Therefore, the first positive angle formed between the initial and terminal arm of an angle in a standard position is usually called the principal angle.

A sketch for more clarifications is herewith attached to this answer.

Reference: https://brainly.com/question/21074748

Answer:

A: -9a

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope that helps!