can someone please help meeeeeeee

Answer:

Assume the weight to be invested in Bay Corp is x. That means (1 - x) will be the weight for City Inc. The expression for the expected return will be;

(x * 11.2%) + ( (1 - x) * 14.8%) = 12.4%

0.112x + 0.148 - 0.148x = 0.124

-0.036x = -0.024

x = 0.67

Portfolio beta is;

= 0.67 * 1.2 + ( 1 - 0.67) * 1.8

= 1.398 so beta condition is satisfied.

Amount in Bay Corp.;

= 0.67 * 50,000

= $33,500

Amount in City Inc.;

= 50,000 - 33,500

= $16,500

The amounts that will be invested in Bay Corp. and City Inc. will be $33500 and $16500.

Therefore, the equation to solve the question will be:

( x × 11.2%) + [(1 - x) × 14.8%)] = 12.4%

Open the brackets

0.112x + 0.148 - 0.148x = 0.124

Collect like terms

-0.036x = -0.024

x = -0.024 / 0.036

x = 0.67

The portfolio beta will be:

= 0.67 * 1.2 + ( 1 - 0.67) × 1.8

= 1.398 .

Therefore, the amount invested in Bay Corp will be:

= 0.67 × $50,000

= $33,500

Therefore, the amount in City Inc. will be:

= $50,000 - $33,500

= $16,500

Read related link on:

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Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

A potential obligation that depends on the future outcome of past events is a contingent liability!

- An obligation is something that is to be done

- A potential obligation is a thing or activity that is among the options of stuff that can be done

- When something depends on the future outcome of past events, it introduces or carries with it, the cost of waiting (for future outcomes)

- A contingent liability is something that poses probability of loss instead of gain. The opposite of liability is asset.

So in business, a potential obligation or action that depends on the future outcome of past events is a contingent loss rather than gain.

Answer:

answer c is correct i did this

Answer:

The company should purchase the machine.

Explanation:

Note: The complete question is attached below

Forecasted contribution margin income statement

For the Year Ended December 31

Particulars                                       Amount$

Sales                                                2,440,000

Variable cost(10,000*185(195-10))  1,850,000

Contribution margin                        590,000

Fixed cost (327,600+42,500)         370,100

Income                                              $219,900

Because the income increase by $57,500 due to the pruchase, the company should purchase the machine

Answer:

I think it is true.

Answer:

In the event of the insolvency of a partner any losses should be shared in the ratio of the last agreed capital balances before the dissolution took place. This is known as the Garner v Murray rule.

Answer:

advanced education

Explanation:

just got it right on edge 2020

Answer:

advanced education

Explanation:

hope this helps!

Answer:

$1,592.74

Explanation:

The computation is shown below;

The future value be

= Present value × (1 + rate of interest)^time period

= $10,000 × (1 + 0.03)^5

= $10,000 × 1.159274074

= $11,592.74

Now the more amount would be

= $11,592.74  - $10,000

= $1,592.74

This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options

Hence, the more amount is $1,592.74

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

Answer:

A. $11,590.00

Explanation:

Answer:

a. Non-normal cash flow

Explanation:

Non-normal cash flows are also called as unconventional cash flows and it consist of cash-flow patterns that changes direction more than once.  

Answer:

$9,932,000

Explanation:

Calculation for the terminal cash flow

First step is to calculate the Sales value

Sales value =21,000,000/15 years*7years

Sales value=9,800,000

Note 15 years -8 years will gives 7 years

Second Step is to calculate the tax amount

Using this formula

Tax amount=Book Value-Sales value

Let plug in the formula

Tax amount=10,000,000-9,800,000*(34%)

Tax amount=200,000*34%

Tax amount=68,000

Last step is to calculate the terminal cash flow

Using this formula

Terminal cash flow=Book value-Tax amount

Let plug in the formula

Terminal cash flow=10,000,000-68,000

Terminal cash flow=$9,932,000

Therefore the Terminal cash flow will be $9,932,000

Answer:

a. Is Johnny maximizing his utility?

in order to determine if Johnny is maximizing his utility we must calculate the utils per dollar spent on apples:

since both types of apples yield the same utility per dollar spent, then Johnny is maximizing his utility.

b. Suppose Johnny moves to an area outside the apple-growing region. Shipping the apples to his new area adds $2 to the price of a pound of apples, for both low- and high-quality apples. To simplify matters, assume Johnny's income increases by an amount large enough to fully offset the higher prices of apples. In other words, he can still afford the original bundle of eight pounds of each type of apples. If he continues to buy eight pounds of apples of each type, is he maximizing his utility? If not, how should he change his mix of high- and low-quality apples?

Johnny is no longer maximizing his utility since he should buy less-low quality apples and more high-quality apples

c. What are the implications for the mix of high- and low-quality apples in apple-growing areas and other regions? Where will most of the high-quality apples be sold?

Since distribution costs increase the price of apples equally regardless of their quality, low-quality apples will be consumer more in the areas surrounding apple-growing fields. On the other hand, high-quality apples will be sold in larger amounts in areas far away from apple-growing fields. Distribution costs are based on weight and volume, not quality. That is why it is more profitable to sell high-quality goods far away.

Answer:

Interest Expense $63,000

Interest Payable $63,000

Explanation:

$700,000 X 9% = $63,000 which is the annual interest expense that they will incur each year. Because it isn't paid until January 1st, it is rolled into the Interest Payable account.

Answer:

29th day of January the following year.

Explanation:

The date the loan matures can be determined by adding the number of days or periods that is covered by the term of the note to the initial date of Note Issuance.

This Note is Issued over a term of 90 days (November  - 30 days + December - 31days  + January - 29 days ).

So on the 29th day of January the following year, the loan matures.

Answer:

Direct labor rate variance= $26,100 unfavorable

Explanation:

To calculate the direct labor rate variance, we need to use the following formula:

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Actual rate= 269,700/34,800= $7.75

First, we need to calculate the standard rate:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

5,600 = (35,600 - 34,800)*standard rate

5,600/800= standard rate

$7= standard rate

Now, the direct labor rate variance:

Direct labor rate variance= (7 - 7.75)*34,800

Direct labor rate variance= $26,100 unfavorable

Answer:

c. real estate investment trust.

Explanation:

Real estate investment trust are businesses that own real estate that is used to generate revenue.

They include office spaces, apartments, hospitals, hotels, shopping malls and so on.

So when there is fund of real estate holdings that can be privately held or publicly traded on an exchange, it is a real estate investment trust.

REIT provides a long term and stable source of income as real estate properties tend to appreciate over time. They also pay lower corporate tax

Answer:

3.5 percent

Explanation:

Answer:

7.44 %

Explanation:

The Yield to Maturity (YTM) is the Interest rate that makes the Present Value of Coupons and Principle equal the Market Price or Current Price of the Bond.

The Yield to Maturity can be calculated using a financial calculator as follows :

PV = - $100

N = (15 -2) × 2 = 26

PMT = ($100 ×  7.30%) ÷ 2 = $3.65

FV = $103

P/YR = 2

YTM = ?

Therefore, Inputting the values in the calculator as shown gives the Yield to Maturity is 7.44 %.

Answer: A. Business tenants are generally easier to deal with than apartment house tenants.

D. Ask each agent to fill out an evaluation.

Explanation:

Property tax is a tax that is paid by an individual to the government for having a property such a a real estate. An advantage to purchasing a commercial property compared to a residential property is that business tenants are generally easier to deal with than apartment house tenants. Typically, apartment house tenants are tougher to deal with because there are a lot of challenges or misunderstanding that one will encounter with them.

For Blake or his agent to get a feedback from the other licensees, he should ask them to fill out an evaluation. This will be vital to know how they feel and other necessary issues can also be addressed using the evaluation.

Answer:

What do you want me to search the link?

Answer: The difficulty of choosing the right career

Explanation: One of the major problems I experienced was choosing the right career for me. When you are young and just got out of high school right away you think about college but, what career is the right one? that was not just my problem but a lot of young adults and teenagers deal with this.

The thing is people feel pressure in going to college and sometimes make bad decisions when choosing a career, thats why is important to take some time before deciding which career studying.

Answer: $‭1,343‬

Explanation:

Net Present Value = Present value of Cash inflows - Present value of Cash outflows

Cash inflows are constant and so are an annuity.

Present value of Cash inflows = Annuity * Present value interest factor of annuity, 4 years, 10%

= 7,900 * 3.170

= $‭25,043‬

Net Present Value = ‭25,043‬ - 23,700

= $‭1,343‬

Answer:

30.26%

Explanation:

Return on equity measures how profitable a business is, when compared to it's equity.

Return on equity is computed as;

= Net income / Shareholder's equity

Where,

Shareholder's equity = Company's assets - Debts

= $114,900,000 / ($730,200,000 - $350,496,000)

= $114,900,000 / $379,704,000

= 30.26%

Answer:

on my view its c for sure

Answer:

c. six or seven

Explanation:

The computation of the number of kanban containers required is shown below:

Number of Kanbans = (Average Demand During lead Time + Safety Stock) ÷ Size  of container

= (3,000 units × 0.3 + 0.15 × 3000 × 0.3) ÷ (150)

= (900 + 135) ÷ 150

= 6.9

So the number of kanbans required is 6.9 i.e. it lies between six or seven

hence the correct option is c.

Answer:

1: Increased output: The first and most important advantage of group work is, that it increases total productivity

2: More resources :The more member you have in a group, the resources you have at the end of the day...

3: Reliability: Project are safer with team than with individual.

4: proper decision making

5:Exposure to diversity.

Answer:

andvatage whem itsits when couple enoustryied withcouple walangjowa ble

Explanation:

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Answer:

the answer is b

Explanation:

Answer:

The firm's operating income will be overstated by $58,000.

Explanation:

Cost of Goods Sold Model is as below

Opening Inventory                           xxx

Add: Cost of goods manufactured xxx

Cost of goods available for sale    xxx

Less: Ending inventory                     xxx

Cost of goods sold                           xxx

It is the cost of goods sold so obtained, that is taken to the income statement. Hence, overstatement of the ending inventory will result in understatement of the cost of goods sold to the same extent. Consequently the operating profit will be overstated to the same extent.

Answer:

b) internal rate of return will exceed its required rate of return.

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0. If the NPV is positive when calculated using the project's discount rate, then the IRR is going to be higher than the discount rate.

Option A is wrong because the profitability index (PI) of a project is calculated by dividing the present value of its cash flows by its cost. If the NPV is positive, it means that the present value of its cash flows will be greater than the costs, so the pI will be more than 1.

Option C is wrong because if the costs exceed the benefits, then the NPV will be negative.

Option D is wrong because that would mean that the NPV is negative.  

Option E is something made up that doesn't make any sense.

Answer:

Explanation:

The main opportunity that small businesses face (and the most compelling one) is the chance to be successful, make lots of profit and grow exponentially. If a small business has a great product, marketing, and strategy they can begin to become immensely profitable which leads to exponential growth. On the other hand, small businesses usually face competition as their biggest threat. When entering a new market there are bound to be a large number of competitors that can outprice your products and ultimately run you out of business if the small business does not have a proper strategy in place.