can anyone help this is my last try agian

Answer:

ABQ  = 139

BCR is the same as QBC since they are alternate interior angles

BCR = 41

Step-by-step explanation:

CBQ and SCB are same side interior angles so they add to 180

2a-9  + 5a +14 = 180

Combine like terms

7a +5 = 180

Subtract 5 from each side

7a = 175

Divide by 7

7a/7 = 175/7

a = 25

ABQ  is the same as SCB  since they are corresponding angles so

ABQ = SCB = 5a+14 = 5*25+14 = 125+14 = 139

BCR is the same as QBC since they are alternate interior angles

BCR = QBC = 2a-9 = 2*25 -9 = 50-9 = 41

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment for math work and answer.

Answer: 2 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

An object take 2 seconds to reach to the ground. option A is correct.

An object that is projected straight downward with initial velocity v feet pee second.
s = vt + 16t2
s = 84 feet and v = 10

Velocity is ratio of displacement to the time.

We have equation.
s = vt + 16t2
Now, put s =  84 and v = 10
84 = 10t+16t2
8t2+10t-42=0
Taking roots of equation.
We get t = 2 and -21/8
Since time couldn't be negative.
So,
t = 2  

Thus, An object take 2 seconds to reach to the ground.

Learn more about Velocity here:
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Answer:

It's A.

Step-by-step explanation:

I just did it on edmentum (plato)

hope this helps!!

vote brainliest if it did!

:))))

The boutique's monthly sales when Jenny first began tracking the data is 4000

A function which is defined by multiple sub-functions, each sub-function applying to a certain interval of the main function's domain (a sub-domain).

Given:

According to given function we can say that there x represent the number of month.

So, if jenny begin tracking the data then jenny spend 0 month on working

Thus, we will use the function

f(x)= 4000*(1.1)^x

f(x)= 4000*(1.1)^0

f(x)= 4000

Learn more about piecewise function here:

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Answer:

its c

Step-by-step explanation:

took the testisk...........

Answer:

PLSS HELP I NEED TO AWNSER HOW DO I?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

p(-1,5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10 days: ofc there is an easier way to do this but i did my own way down below :)

Step-by-step explanation:

in 1 day

cowboys: 300+25 is 325

saints: 700-15=685

in 2 days:

cowboys: 325+25 is 350

saints: 685-15 is 670

in 3 days:

cowboys: 350+25 is 375

saints: 670-15 is 655

in 4 days:

cowboys: 375+25 is 400

saints: 655-15 is 640

in 5 days:

cowboys: 400+25 is 425

saints: 640-15 is 625

in 6 days:

cowboys: 425+25 is 450

saints: 625-15 is 610

in 7 days:

cowboys: 450+25=475

saints: 610-15 is 595

in 8 days:

cowboys: 475+25 is 500

saints: 595-15 is 580

in 9 days:

cowboys: 500+25 is 525

saints: 580-15 is 565

in 10 days:

cowboys: 525+25 is 550

saints: 565-15 is 550

in 10 days, they will have the same number of followers

Answer:

i can explain it to you.

Step-by-step explanation:

SO first you're going to label the graph with the munbers. If you don't know how they go just search one up because they all look the same.

Then you're going to place them on the coordinates that they correspond to. (x,y)

Then for the rotation you're going to move it 90* clockwise which would be right but in the shape of a circle. But you have to connect the dots.

Basically you're just laying it down on its side to the right.

Hope this helps. :)

Answer:

F(-3)= -14

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)= -5x-1

f(x)=-5(-3)-1

f(x)= -15-1

f(x)=-14

Answer:

I think it's B

...........

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Given endpoints (x₁, y₁ ) and (x₂, y₂ ) then the midpoint is

( [tex]\frac{x_{1}+x_{2} }{2}[/tex], [tex]\frac{y_{1}+y_{2} }{2}[/tex] )

Here (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 2, - 3) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (1, [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ), thus

midpoint = ( [tex]\frac{-2+1}{2}[/tex], [tex]\frac{-3+\frac{1}{2} }{2}[/tex] ) =  ( [tex]\frac{-1}{2}[/tex], [tex]\frac{-3+\frac{1}{2} }{2}[/tex] ) = ( - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex], [tex]\frac{-\frac{5}{2} }{2}[/tex] ) = ( - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex], - [tex]\frac{5}{4}[/tex] ) → d

Answer: 92

Step-by-step explanation:

Here's our set-up:

(70 + 75 + 80 + 83 + x) / 5 = 80

Simplify:

(308 + x) / 5 = 80

Multiply both sides by 5:

308 + x = 400

Subtract 308 from both sides:

x = 92

Answer:

92

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to get an 80 in 5 tests, he needs to accumulate 400 points.

If he accumulated 80+70+75+83 points, 308, he would need a 92 on the next test to get an 80 average.

this photo which I attached is steps of solution and the answer.

Answer:

Factor 3y23y2 out of 3y33y3.

3y2(y)−9y23y2(y)-9y2

Factor 3y23y2 out of −9y2-9y2.

3y2(y)+3y2(−3)3y2(y)+3y2(-3)

Factor 3y23y2 out of 3y2(y)+3y2(−3)3y2(y)+3y2(-3).

3y2(y−3)

Step-by-step explanation:

mark me the brainliest please

Answer:

( 4 x − 1 ) ( x − 3 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor by grouping.

Answer:

Your answer is: x = 3 , 1/4

Solve the equation for  x  by finding  a ,  b , and  c  of the quadratic then applying the quadratic formula.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped : )

Given : 56 men can do a work in 42 days .

To Find : In how many men will do the same work in 14 days .

Solution : We will use Unitary method here to solve the above problem . This is a case of inversely proportional that is when one will increase the other will decreases . Here if the number of men will increase then the number of days will decrease and vice - versa .

If in 42 days 56 men can do the work ,

Then in 1 day 42 × 56 men can do the work .

Then in 14 days , [tex]\sf \dfrac{42\times\cancel{56}}{\cancel{14}}[/tex] will do the work = 168 .

Hence 168 men will do the work in 14 days .

[tex]\Large\boxed{\red{\bf Answer = 168 \:men}}[/tex]

Answer:

x=11

Step-by-step explanation:

take 90+35 = 125

then take 180-125=55

then take 55 divided by 5 to get the answer of 11

Answer:

21 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The diameter of the handle of a softball bat is 1 ¾ inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 3,486,784,401

Step-by-step explanation:

9 raised to the 11th power is 31,381,059,609

Then divide that by 9 to get 3,486,784,401

Answer: division :3

Step-by-step explanation:

The line in a fraction that separates the numerator and the denominator represents division.

To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator.

Answer:

sfddddddgfd

Step-by-step explanation:

the first option is the correct answer

Answer:

2 ≤y+3 <6

Step-by-step explanation:

y+3 ≥2  and y+3 <6

Let y+3 = x

x ≥2  and x <6

2 ≤x and x<6

2 ≤x <6

Replace x with y+3

2 ≤y+3 <6

y-6 =4 (1-4)

y-6=-12

y=-6

Answer:y= -6

Answer:

[tex]280 \: dollars[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]3500 \times .08 = 280[/tex]

Simple as that ^^^ Just find 8% of 3500

280,00$

8% of 3500$ equals to

(8/100)*3500=

280,00$=