burberry men's watch cost $425 markup 200% dollar markp selling price

Step-by-step explanation:

short - S

long - L

L=10+S

L+S = 48

SINCE L=10+S

10+S+S=48

10+2S=48

2S=48-10

S=38/2=19

SHORT=19CM

LONG=10+S=10+19=39CM

Explanation:

Multiply the numbers up top: 8*1 = 8

Multiply the numbers in the bottom: 9*4 = 36

The two fractions 8/9 and 1/4 multiply to 8/36. Reduce this to 2/9 after dividing both parts by the GCF 4.

In other words,

8/4 = 2

36/4 = 9

Hello there! :)

When multiplying fractions, we multiply the numerator times the numerator and the denominator times the denominator. We reduce if it's necessary.

So multiply:

[tex]\frac{8}{9} *\frac{1}{4} \\[/tex]

Reduce and get:

[tex]\frac{2}{9} *\frac{1}{1} \\\frac{2}{9}[/tex]

And that's our final answer. Hope it helps you!

~Just a joyful teen

[tex]SilentNature[/tex]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Get 15% of 870:

   First, get 10 percent of 870, which is 87, then half that, which is 43.5

   Get the 87 and add the 43.5 on it, to get the full 15%, you end up with $130.5, which is the monthly payment.

(Only problem is that im pretty sure you put an extra 0, because if you just wrote 87 dollar's then you would've got 13.05, the actual answer, but if you add an extra 0 then you end up with 130$, just to let you know.)

Answer:

A. 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

GradPoint answer

I got it correct on the lesson.

Answer:

approximately 7 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

I’m not absolutely sure so double check

Answer:

See below:

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the slope, we use the following formula:

[tex]\frac{y_{2} - y_{1} }{x_{2} - x_{1} }[/tex]

For this case, we can use (6,60) as the first set of points.

We can use (4,70) as the second set of points.

Now, we can use the formula, 70-60 is for the top of the fraction (10)

We can do 4-6 to find the bottom, which is (-2)

Now, if we add the fraction back we get -> 10/-2 which is -5 for slope!

To find out the y intercept, it in simple words is "What is y when x is 0?".

We can do that by using the slope intercept formula: [tex]y=mx+b[/tex].

Once we insert our slope which is -2 we get: [tex]y=-2x+b[/tex]

We can now substitute a point, lets use (6,60) so we can find out b.

We now get the equation: [tex]60=-5(6)+b[/tex].

If we solve for that we get 90!

Once we input that, we get, [tex]y=-5x+90[/tex]

Now we put in x as 0 and we get our y intercept as 90!

If this answer helped, consider marking as brainliest!!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 16.8

Explanation: well for starters you have to do what's in the parenthesis, so 4 times 1.4 is equal to 5.6. so now we add up the equation and get 28, so now we are left with 28-5.6-5.6 which equals 16.8

hoped this helped;)

Answer:

She subtracted the lengths of the diagonal lines instead of adding them.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 300 miles, $220

Step-by-step explanation:

graphed in the image attached with points,

hope this helps :D

Answer:

There are 3.28084 feet per meter. So if you want to convert meters to feet using your own calculator, just multiply your number of meters by 3.28084.

Answer:

9.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

500 Hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes you are right, 500 hours is not an hour and I doubt anyone can work that much, there are only 168 hours in a single week.

If we're talking reality, it would take well over a few weeks.

If its just math then yeah you would get 500.

Either way, 500 is the right answer.

Answer:

you two shares for every one share of a company you own

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

15 is divided by a number

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  x = -19 or 72

Step-by-step explanation:

The range of the given numbers is 5 to 48. In order for x to make the range be 67, the value of x must be 67 less than 48, or must be 67 greater than 5.

  x is 48 -67 = -19

or

  x is 5 +67 = 72

before you enter the data into the regression calculator, decide which variable should be on x and y axis. then enter the data pairs. press the linear regression button to create the regression line

Answer:

times by 2 because it keeps going up by times 2 the number of blocks

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  5th: 32

  6th: 64

The number doubles at each step.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sequence problems are always tricky. Any finite list of numbers can always be represented by a polynomial, and can include any arbitrary next number. Generally, you are asked to find a simple rule that can explain the sequence shown and can be used to predict the continuation of the sequence.

It is often useful to look at the differences between values and/or their ratios. The sequence of block counts is ...

  2, 4, 8, 16

1st differences are 4 -2 = 2, 4, 8 . . . . . the differences match the sequence

ratios are 4/2 = 2, 8/4 = 2, 16/8 = 2 . . . . . . the ratio is common: 2

We observe that each number of blocks is double the one before, and that the number of blocks is a power of 2 equal to the step number.

The blocks in the 5th step will be 2^5 = 32.

The blocks in the 6th step will be 2^6 = 64.

_____

Additional comment

It also looks like the shape alternates between a rectangle and a square. The 5th step will probably be a rectangle, and the 6th step will be a square.

Answer:

stan

Step-by-step explanation:

Stan paid less price per liter of gas which is $0.95 per liter.

A unitary method is a mathematical way of obtaining the value of a single unit and then deriving any no. of given units by multiplying it with the single unit.

Given, Harry filled the 75 L gas tank of his pickup truck for $73.88.

Therefore, The cost of 1L of gas is $(73.88/75) = $0.98 per liter.

And Stan paid $0.95 per liter, So Stan paid less per liter of fuel.

learn more about the unitary method here :

https://brainly.com/question/28276953

#SPJ2

Answer:

The answer is 19

Step-by-step explanation:

I forgot how I figured it out but I did

Answer: LCM of 8, 12, and 15 is 120.

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Answer:

2 and 1

Step-by-step explanation:

1 is the best which can go into

8 15 and 12

Answer:

Looking at the equation, k=23 is our constant of proportionality because 23 is the constant number we multiply x by.

Answer:

dy/dx = - (y/x)^4

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the equation:

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{1}{ {x}^{3} } + \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } = {a}^{3} }[/tex]

Recall important differential formulas such as:

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{d}{dx} (f(x) + g(x)) = \frac{d}{dx} f(x) + \frac{d}{dx} g(x)} \\ \displaystyle \large{ \frac{d}{dx} k = 0 \: \: \tt(k \: \: is \: \: a \: \: constant.)}[/tex]

Above is a basic property of differential. Looking at the equation above, differentiate both sides with respect to x. (dy/dx)

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{d}{dx}( \frac{1}{ {x}^{3} } + \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } )= \frac{d}{dx} {a}^{3} }[/tex]

Apply the distribution property in.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {x}^{3} } + \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } = \frac{d}{dx} {a}^{3} }[/tex]

We treat x^3 and y^3 as function to one another, this type of differential will be called implicit once another variable of function is involved f(x,y).

But we treat a^3 as a constant so we just put 0.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {x}^{3} } + \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } = 0 }[/tex]

Recall the quotient rules for the numerator = 1.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{d}{dx} (\frac{1}{f(x)}) = -\frac{ \frac{d}{dx} (f(x))}{ {(f(x))}^{2} } }[/tex]

Thus:

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ - \frac{ \frac{d}{dy} ( {x}^{3} )}{ ({x}^{3})^{2} } + \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } = 0 } \\ \displaystyle \large{- \frac{ 3 {x}^{2} }{ {x}^{6} } + \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } = 0 }[/tex]

Make sure to recall power rules for differential and exponent laws.

From 3x^2 / x^6.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ - \frac{ 3 }{ {x}^{4} } + \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{ {y}^{3} } = 0 }[/tex]

Now what do we do with 1/y^3? We just differentiate it normally but we multiply with dy/dx once we differentiate the y function.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{- \frac{ 3 }{ {x}^{4} } -\frac{ \frac{d}{dx}( {y}^{3}) }{ ({y}^{3})^{2} } = 0 } \\ \displaystyle \large{ -\frac{ 3 }{ {x}^{4} } - \frac{ 3 {y}^{2} }{ {y}^{6}} = 0 } \\ \displaystyle \large{ - \frac{ 3 }{ {x}^{4} } - \frac{ 3 }{ {y}^{4}} \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 }[/tex]

Solve for dy/dx, add both sides by 3/x^4.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ - \frac{ 3 }{ {x}^{4} } + \frac{3}{ {x}^{4} } - \frac{ 3 }{ {y}^{4}} \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 + \frac{3}{ {x}^{4} } } \\ \displaystyle \large{ - \frac{ 3 }{ {y}^{4}} \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{3}{ {x}^{4} } } \\ [/tex]

Divide both sides by - 3/y^4.

[tex] \displaystyle \large{ \frac{- \frac{3}{ {y}^{4} } \frac{dy}{dx} }{ - \frac{3}{ {y}^{4} } } = \frac{ \frac{3}{ {x}^{4} } }{ - \frac{3}{ {y}^{4} } } } \\ \displaystyle \large{ \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{3}{ {x}^{4} } \times (-\frac{ {y}^{4} }{3} )} \\ \displaystyle \large{ \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{ {x}^{4} } \times (- \frac{ {y}^{4} }{1}) } \\ \displaystyle \large{ \frac{dy}{dx} = - \frac{ {y}^{4} }{ {x}^{4} } } \\ \displaystyle \large{ \frac{dy}{dx} = - ( { \frac{y}{x} })^{4}}[/tex]

Answer:

D 130º

Step-by-step explanation:

3x-70=x+10

so 2x-70=10

x=40

Answer:

- 1/64 (x+4)² (x-3) (x-4) = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = a (x+4)²(x-3)(x-4)   ... curve touch (-4,0) and not cross x axis

x=0   f(x) = -3

a (4)² * (-3) * (-4) = -3

a = - 1/64

- 1/64 (x+4)² (x-3) (x-4) = 0

Answer:

It's the Choice A c² = 36

Answer:

-2.5, 0.75

Step-by-step explanation:

When we need to find a solution to a system of equations using a graphing tool, we graph those two equations and find the point of intersection.

This is an informative article on how to do that:

https://www.dummies.com/education/graphing-calculators/how-to-find-points-of-intersection-on-the-ti-84-plus/

Answer:

vggyyrt5 gf t66t6

Step-by-step explanation:

yy dry t6t ty y yuri u fry uu huf yy875