These are the teachings the nurse will mention that are particular to this population while discussing precautions following bariatric surgery with the client: "You should prevent pregnancy for at least 18 months after your surgery."
A female patient of reproductive age should be advised by the nurse to refrain from becoming pregnant for at least 18 months following bariatric surgery. Following weight loss surgery, it's more likely to become better than get worse when it comes to fertility. Following surgery, contraceptives are just as effective as before.
As a result, we can state that the nurse will specifically instruct this population while discussing post-bariatric surgery precautions with the client: "You should prevent pregnancy for at least 18 months following surgery."
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Complete Question
A nurse cares for a female client of childbearing age who will undergo bariatric surgery. When teaching the client about precautions after surgery, which teaching will the nurse include that is specific to this population?
A. "After surgery, your ability to conceive is decreased considerably."
B. "After surgery, contraceptives have much less efficacy."
C. "You should avoid pregnancy for at least 18 months after surgery."
D. "You should avoid pregnancy for at least 9 months after surgery"
which of the following conditions would be considered to be the most dangerous for the patient? select one: a. atrial fibrillation b. bradycardia c. ventricular fibrillation d. angina pectoris
The condition that would be deemed to be the most hazardous for the patient is ventricular fibrillation.
What usually causes ventricular fibrillation?The most frequent time for V-fib to develop is after or shortly after an acute heart attack. Lack of blood supply to the heart muscle can lead to electrical instability and potentially harmful cardiac rhythms. V-fib can develop in a heart that has suffered a cardiac event or other type of heart muscle damage.
What is the first line treatment for ventricular fibrillation?Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia/Ventricular Fibrillation Passerby Resuscitation (Box 1) without minimal breaks between compressions is crucial during the initial minutes of VF or defibrillation VT, as is defibrillation as as soon as it is possible to do so (Class I).
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The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the.
The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the diencephalon.
Thalamus is an oval structure within the middle of your brain. It's called a relay station of all incoming motor (movement) and sensory data — hearing, taste, sight and bit (but not smell) — from your body to your brain.
The epithalamus is a posterior (dorsal) phase of the betweenbrain. The epithalamus includes the habenular nuclei and their interconnecting fibers, the habenular commissure, the stria medullaris and therefore the epiphysis cerebri. Epithalamus. medial facet of a brain divided within the median mesial plane.
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oliver sacks pioneered treatment of patients with movement disorders, similar to parkinson's, by using a drug that closely resembles which neurotransmitter?
Oliver sacks pioneered treatment of patients with movement disorders, similar to Parkinson's, by using a drug that closely resembles the neurotransmitter dopamine.
Parkinson's is a progressive disease of the central nervous system. The symptoms may begin with light tremors that can lead to serious stiffness and disability to move. The cause of the disease is the loss of nerve cells. The disease can only be controlled with medication but not permanently treated.
Dopamine is a transmitter and a hormone that plays important role in functions like movement, memory and pleasurable reward and motivation. It is chemically of the catecholamine and phenethylamine families.
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the nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. why would it be important to assess this client for fractures?
It would be important to assess this client for fractures as Osteoclasts break down bone cells so pathologic fractures occur.
What is osteoclast?The cells known as osteoclasts mediate bone loss in pathologic situations by increasing their resorptive activity and degrading bone to start normal bone rebuilding. They originate from myeloid/monocyte lineage progenitors that circulate in the circulation after developing in the bone marrow. Under the control of osteoblastic cells in the bone marrow, these osteoclast precursors (OCPs) are drawn to areas on bone surfaces that are intended for resorption and merge with one another to create the multinucleated cells that resorb calcified matrixes. In addition to bone resorption, OCPs and osteoclasts have been found to serve different purposes in and around bone in recent investigations.For instance, they control immune responses, secrete cytokines that can affect their own functions and those of other cells in inflammatory and malignant processes that affect bone, and control the differentiation of osteoblast precursors and the movement of hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow to the bloodstream. we examine these results that identify new functions for osteoclasts and OCPs in the developing field of osteoimmunology and in typical pathologic circumstances where bone resorption is elevated.The abnormal plasma cells proliferate in the bone marrow, where they release osteoclast-activating factor. This in turn causes osteoclasts to break down bone cells, resulting in increased blood calcium and pathologic fractures. The plasma cells also form single or multiple osteolytic (bone-destroying) tumors that produce a 'punched-out' or 'honeycombed' appearance in bones such as the spine, ribs, skull, pelvis, femurs, clavicles, and scapulae. Weakened vertebrae lead to compression of the spine accompanied by significant pain.To learn more about osteoclasts, refer to
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According to the npa sections 301. 401 - 301. 410, all of the following are required to report a nurse to the board if the nurse engages in conduct subject to reporting except.
Liability insurers have the authority to report a nurse to the board if the nurse participates in conduct that qualifies for reporting under the Nursing Practice Act's (NPA) sections 301.401 to 301.410.
The Texas Board of Nursing wants to know how I reported a nurse.Texas Board of Nursing, Enforcement, 1801 Congress Avenue, Suite 10-200 Austin, TX 78701 is where you can send an email, fax, or postal letter with your complaint.
Medical Practice Act (NPA).The following behaviours by a nurse fall under the reporting requirements of NPA sections 301.401 to 301.410:
A nurse breaks a board regulation.
A patient's death or significant harm was made worse by a nurse.
A patient thinks the nurse's work is impacted by chemical dependency, such as abuse of alcohol; deception, exploitation, or abuse by a nurse.
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a nurse is taking care of a client who requests acetaminophen to help with a headache. the nurse checks to see if there is an order for acetaminophen and notices that the client is able to have 650 mg every 4 hours as needed for pain. what type of order is this considered?
The scenario where a client who requests acetaminophen to help with a headache has an order for acetaminophen is considered as a p.r.n. order.
What is a prn order?The P.R.N order or prescription stands for 'pro re nata,' which means that the administration of medication is not scheduled. A p.r.n. order is one that is given to a client on an "as needed" basis.
So we can conclude that if a nurse is taking care of a client who requests acetaminophen to help with a headache and the nurse checks to see if there is an order for acetaminophen and notices that the client is able to have 650 mg every 4 hours as needed for pain. The order is considered as a p.r.n. order.
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a client has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting cytology results of a biopsy. during client education, the nurse discusses the possible types of breast malignancies. which is the most common type?
Ductal cancer is the most common type of breast cancer. The milk duct lining inside your breast is where this kind of cancer develops. Breast milk is produced in lobules and transported via ducts to the nipple.
Following a breast cancer diagnosis, your doctor will examine the pathology report and the outcomes of any imaging tests to determine the precise characteristics of your tumor.
Your medical team assesses your breast cancer type using a tissue sample from your breast biopsy or utilizing the tumor if you've already had surgery. Your doctor can choose the best course of treatment for you with the help of this information.
The behavior of your breast cancer and the best therapies depend on the type of tissue from which it develops.
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the nurse is caring for an older adult with streptococcal pneumonia. which precautions will the nurse begin?
The nurse should begin airborne and contact precautions as they are appropriate.
What are airborne and contact precautions?Airborne and contact precautions are described as steps that any healthcare facility visitors and staff need to follow when going into or leaving a patient's room.
These airborne and contact precautions are very important as they help stop germs from spreading so other people don't get sick. Airborne and contact precautions are for patients who have germs that can spread: through the air and contact from any surface.
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What information must be distributed to the patient when picking up a prescription?
A client comes to the clinic asking what erythropoiesis means. the nurse would state that erythropoiesis is the process of making________
A small percentage of early multipotent HSCs commit to the RBCs lineage during erythropoiesis.
What is erythropoiesis?Highly specialized functional differentiation and gene expression occur during erythropoiesis. RBCs' primary function is to transport oxygen in the blood via the hemoglobin molecule.
Patients with uncontrolled hypertension should not utilize erythropoiesis-stimulating medications. Hypertensive encephalopathy and seizures have been documented in individuals with chronic renal failure treated with these medications.
Anemia is caused by a variable amount of hemolysis brought on by the presence of insoluble -globin chains in circulating red blood cells.
Therefore, nurse would state that erythropoiesis is the process of making RBCs.
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In cross section, the __________ matter of the spinal cord looks like a butterfly or the letter h.
In the cross-section, the gray matter of the spinal cord looks like a butterfly or the letter H. Those sections are called horns.
What are the horns in the spinal cord?There are 3 horns of the spinal cord. The three of them look like a butterfly or the letter H:
The posterior horn is responsible for sensory processing and receives light, touch, and vibration signals.The anterior horn is responsible for sending out motor signals to the skeletal muscles.The lateral horn contains the neuronal cell bodies of the sympathetic and autonomic motor neurons for our nervous system.Learn more about the spinal cord here https://brainly.com/question/29346840
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the primary health care nurse would recommend screening based on known risk factors, because of which action?
Primary health care, nurse might suggest screening primarily based totally on acknowledged danger factors, because to make sure that a substantial which difference in morbidity and mortality.
Screenings are normally indicated and advocated if the attempt makes a full-size distinction in morbidity and/or mortality of conditions, and they may be safe, price effective, and accurate. Ideally a screening degree will as it should be differentiate people who've a situation from individuals who do now no longer have a situation 100% of the time.
However, there can be a false-poor result, or the affected person might also additionally increase a situation after the screening changed into conducted. A screening does now no longer specify remedy guidelines; the display offers consequences, and the fitness care company identifies the remedy. The aim of screening is to become aware of people in an early kingdom of a sickness in order that activate remedy may be initiated. The screening consequences are used for this purpose.
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a client with psychosis is prescribed quetiapine 400 mg by mouth daily in two divided doses. the pharmacy dispenses 200-mg tablets. how many tablets should the nurse administer with each dose? record your answer using a whole number.
Only one tablet should the nurse administer with each dose.
How does a person act with psychosis?People who experience psychosis start to lose touch with reality. This may entail having hallucinations, which involve seeing or hearing things that others cannot see or hear, and holding beliefs that are not true.Numerous factors, such as physical sickness or damage, may cause psychosis. If you have a high fever, a head injury, or lead or mercury poisoning, you can see or hear things. You might also have hallucinations or delusions if you have Parkinson's disease or Alzheimer's disease.There are two primary signs of psychosis:When a person has hallucinations, they may hear, see, smell, or taste things that may not actually exist but may seem extremely real to the person experiencing them. Hearing voices is a typical hallucination. Delusions are people's strong beliefs that are not held by others. One typical delusion is the idea that they are the target of a conspiracy.Learn more about psychosis refer :
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which hypothesis would a nurse generate for a patient who has acute pain and muscle cramps and a serum sodium level of 140 meq/l, potassium of 2.8 meq/l, calcium of 4.5 meq/l, and magnesium of 2.0 meq/l? hypocalcemia hyponatremia hypomagnesemia hypokalemia
The hypothesis which a nurse would generate for a patient who has acute pain and muscle cramps and a serum sodium level of 140 meq/l, potassium of 2.8 meq/l, calcium of 4.5 meq/l, and magnesium of 2.0 meq/l is hypokalemia and is denoted as option D.
What is Hypokalemia?This is referred to as a medical condition in which there is low blood potassium levels in the body.
The normal potassium range is between 3.5 to 5.2 mEq/L while anything below that value signifies hypokalemia which is why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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a client taking lithium therapy has a serum therapeutic level of 0.8 meq/l. what priority dietary instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
One of the most appropriate nursing action is to record the laboratory results in the client's chart. Thyroid dysfunction results from iodine deficiency. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Thyroid dysfunction?Problems associated with the thyroid gland can be caused by the iodine deficiency. It is an autoimmune diseases, in which the immune system attacks own thyroid gland which leads either to hyperthyroidism which is caused by Graves' disease or hypothyroidism, which is caused by Hashimoto's disease and inflammation which may or may not cause pain.
Careful monitoring of therapeutic levels is critical to reduce the potential for toxicity and its consequences. The side effects are common that are more annoying than dangerous.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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A client receiving lithium therapy for the treatment of his bipolar disorder has a lithium level of 0.85 mEq/L. The appropriate nursing action is:
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Observe the client for signs of toxicity
C. Record the laboratory result in the client's chart
D. Hold the next dose of lithium
for a person who engages in binge eating, typical binge foods include multiple choice a wide variety of fruits and vegetables. high-protein foods, such as tuna, chicken, and steak. sugar-free items, such as artificially sweetened gelatin, candy, and soft drinks. cakes, cookies, doughnuts, and ice cream.
For a person who engages in binge eating, typical binge foods include cakes, cookies, doughnuts, and ice cream. That is option D.
What is binge eating?Binge eating is a type of eating disorder that involves the aggressive intake of large amount of food at the same time and equally having the feeling of fear that such is over eating.
The risk or predisposing factors that leads an individual to binge eating include the following:
stress, dieting, negative feelings relating to body weight or body shape, the availability of food, or boredom.A typical binge meal or food are those foods that are easily available such as cakes, cookies, doughnuts, and ice cream
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According to our text, high-functioning children with asd who have episodic/relational memory impairment may compensate by.
High functioning children with asd who have episodic or relational memory impairment may compensate by Active experiencing training.
Impaired episodic impairment is the ability to recall experience. It involves series of steps. This include encoding, retrieval and consolidation. Relational memory is used as a proxy for the episodic memory. Both are equally important. Episodic or relational memory can be compensate by getting enough sleep ,by avoiding multitasking, always staying active, maintaining a healthy diet, by giving the brain a workout.it can be fix by keeping a child organized and healthy. Hippocampus controls episodic memory. A active experiencing training can improve episodic memory and relational memory.
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a nurse is caring for an infant born with polycythemia. which intervention is most appropriate when caring for this infant?
metabolic disorder is the most appropriate when caring for this infant.
In the epidemiologic context of maternal obesity and type 2 diabetes (T2D), they incidence of gestational of the diabetes has been significantly increased in the last decades. Infants of the diabetic mothers are prone of the to various neonatal adverse outcomes, total including metabolic and hematologic disorders, and respiratory distress, cardiac disorders and neurological impairment due to perinatal asphyxia and birth traumas, me among others. Macrosomia is the most of the constant consequence of diabetes and its severity is mainly influenced by the maternal blood glucose level. Neonatal of the hypoglycemia is the Maine metabolic disorder that's why should be prevented as soon as possible after birth. The severity of macrosomia and the maternal healthy and the condition have a strong impact on their frequency and the severity of adverse neonatal of the outcomes. Pregestational T2D and maternal obesity significantly increase their risk of perinatal death and birth defects. The high of incidence of maternal hyperglycemia in the developing countries, associated with the scarcity of maternal and neonatal of health care, seriously increase the burden of neonatal complications in these countries.
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replacement of thyroxine is potentially dangerous in the setting of which a. b. c. d. oxytocin? gh deficiency hyperprolactinemia perimenopausal state acth deficiency
It is setting to ACTH deficiency.
Thyroxine is medicine used to treat an underactive thyroid gland, which is hypothyroidism.
It works by replacing thyroid hormones and relieves the symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Same as replacement of thyroxine can cause hypothyroidism, ACTH deficiency causes hypoadrenalism
The ACTH in the blood leads to a reduction in the secretion of adrenal hormones, resulting in adrenal insufficiency.
It can be congenital or acquired
Symptoms of ACTH deficit leads to
1. Weight loss
2. Anorexia
3. Hypotension
4. Nausea and vomiting
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a coal miner has developed a dry cough with difficulty breathing . what is the most likely condition that this individual has?
a woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents to labor and delivery with vaginal bleeding. which finding from the obstetric examination would lead to a diagnosis of placental abruption (abruptio placentae)?
A woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents to labor and delivery with vaginal bleeding and from the obstetric examination, uterine size and fetal heart rate would lead to a diagnosis of placental abruption.
Obstetric examination focuses on female internal reproductive organ size, fundal height (in cm on top of the symphysis pubis), vertebrate pulse and activity, and maternal diet, weight gain, and overall well-being. Speculum and two-handed examination is sometimes not required unless discharge or hurt, discharge of fluid, or pain is present.
Placental abruption happens once the placenta separates from the inner wall of the womb before birth. Placental interruption will deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients and cause significant hurt within the mother. In some cases, early delivery is required.
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a nurse is reviewing the policies of a facility related to bonding and attachment with newborns. which practice would the nurse identify as needing to be changed
The nurse is comparing a nurse is reviewing the policies of a facility related to bonding and attachment with newborns like a frog to the nurse.
What is nurse?Nurse is defined as a person who has received training in caring for the sick and injured. Whether a person is unwell or not, and regardless of where they are, nursing entails providing independent and team-based care to people of all ages, families, groups, and communities.
In the first hour following delivery, skin-to-skin contact is frequently where bonding starts. The delivery room professionals will now lay your newborn child directly on your chest. The first time that you and your baby feel, hear, and smell each other is as you lie together.
Thus, the nurse is comparing a nurse is reviewing the policies of a facility related to bonding and attachment with newborns like a frog to the nurse.
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the nurse need to place a dressing under and around a penrose drain. which dressing would be best for the nurse to obtain?
A pre-cut 4 x 4 sterile drain sponge would be the finest dressing to obtain if the nurse needed to apply a dressing under and around a penrose drain.
To cover the drain and the area around it, the nurse should get the pre-split drain sponge. The sterile 2 x 2 gauze sponge cannot fit beneath and around the drain because it is too small and lacks a precut split. The medicated, non-adherent petrolatum dressing gauze is not recommended.
A Penrose drain is a latex tube that is soft, flat, and flexible. It permits fluids, including blood, to exit the surgical site. This prevents fluid from accumulating beneath your surgical cut or incision and leading to an infection. You will have a portion of your Penrose drain inside of you. The second major sort of drain is "active," and this one is classified as "passive." After American gynaecologist Charles Bingham Penrose, the Penrose drain was created.
A roll of sterile, pre-cut gauze would not fit the drain properly because it is not precut. The nurse should never cut gauze to fit around a drain or stoma site because fibres could enter the wound or stoma as a result.
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a client is supine with the head of the examination table at a 30-degree angle. what should the nurse assess at this time?
in a physical exam in supine, the nurse assesses the client's anterior neck, carotid arteries, heart and lung sounds, and breasts before helping the client sit up to examine the back.
what is dorsal decubitus?Those who are starting studies in Anatomy soon come across this term. This is the most natural position for the patient at rest. This is so because it allows the support of the back and limbs in a comfortable way. In addition to not requiring effort and serving as a basis for other important anatomical positions, such as Trendelenburg.
How is the supine position?The supine position places the patient lying on the back, with the head slightly above the level of the feet, arms and legs extended. the person is lying down. And “dorsal” derives from the study of the four anatomical planes: median, sagittal, transverse and frontal.
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magnesium is related to vitamin d in that multiple choice magnesium is required for the synthesis of vitamin d in the skin. magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin d. magnesium is required for the activation of vitamin d in the liver. all of these choices are correct.
Magnesium is related to vitamin d in that magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin. Thus, option C is correct.
What are the various functions of vitamin D in the body?The various functions of vitamin D in the body are that the Vitamin D increases absorption of calcium in the small intestines and magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin as well as magnesium is required for the activation of vitamin d in the liver.
1, 2- 5 Dihydroxyvitamin D3 (1,25(OH)2D3), which has the hormonally active form of vitamin D, is responsible for influencing the active absorption of calcium in the intestines and active form involves transcellular pathways.
Therefore, Magnesium is related to vitamin d in that magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin. Thus, option C is correct.
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a severely dehydrated teenager admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia undergoes evaluation for electrolyte disturbances. the client's history includes anorexia nervosa and a 15-pound weight loss in the last month. the client is 5 feet 5 inches tall and weighs 75 pounds. which is the priority nursing intervention?
Initiating total parenteral nutrition as ordered is the priority nursing intervention.
what is total prentral nutrition?
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a method of feeding that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract. A special formula given through a vein provides most of the nutrients the body needs. The method is used when someone can't or shouldn't receive feedings or fluids by mouth.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) patients indicated that they experienced hunger even though they received adequate calories for energy balance
A person may need TPN because of a gastrointestinal (GI) disorder that severly limits the ability of their digestive tract.
A person may not be able to swallow food, move the food through the digestive system, or absorb nutrients from the food.
Severely malnourished clients may require total parenteral nutrition, tube feedings, or hyperalimentation to receive adequate nutritional intake. Medical management focuses on weight restoration, nutritional rehabilitation, rehydration, and correction of electrolyte imbalance
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an adolescent is seen in the emergency department for a suspected sprain of the ankle. x-rays have been obtained, and a fracture has been ruled out. which instruction should the nurse provide to the adolescent regarding home care for treatment of the sprain?
Sprain happens when there is a tear in ligaments. Ligaments which are stretchy band that connect bones.
Symptoms include,
1. Pain
2. Swelling
3. Bruising
4. Not able to move or walk
Home care for treatment of the sprain are -
1. Use Ice, wrap ice in a towel on sprain for 15–20 minutes, 4–8 times a day. Avoid putting ice directly on the skin.
2. Need to keep the sprained area above heart level by resting it on a elevated area
3. Compression can also help, to help stop swelling, compress or bandage the sprained ankle can help soon after the injury.
4. Pain killer like Paracetamol or Ibuprofen can be taken.
5. Last one is, avoiding any physical activity and rest.
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when performing a stock bottle replenishment you see you have a return to stock for the cell?
Answer:
If you see a return to stock for the cell, this means that the cell is empty and needs to be refilled.
the nurse is assessing a client who has been admitted to the acute care facility. the client experiences an acute onset of altered level of consciousness and recent memory loss. what does the nurse anticipate the client will be evaluated for?
The client experiences an acute onset of altered level of consciousness and recent memory loss. This is anticipated for a condition called delirium.
Delirium is a serious change in mental abilities which results in confused thinking and lack of awareness of surroundings.
Symptoms of delirium is different, they often come and go during the day. There is no duration of symptoms.
They are worse at nights and unfamiliar places.
Thera are 3 types of delirium -
1. Hyperactive delirium
2. Hypoactive delirium
3. Mixed delirium
Symptoms include,
1. Reduced awareness of surroundings
2.Poor thinking skills
3. Behavior and emotional changes
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Essential fat comprises ______% of women's body weight. 8-12. True or false: Body mass index (BMI) measures body fat.
Essential fat comprises 8-12% of women's body weight. Body mass index (BMI) measures body fat is false.
For men, essential body fat accounts for about 3% of body mass, while it accounts for between 8 to 12% for women. Due to childbearing and hormonal functions, women are thought to have more essential body fat than men.
One kind of screening tool is BMI. Measuring the person's size is helpful. The body mass index can be used to predict conditions like cancer, diabetes, heart disease, and difficulty breathing. Although BMI has a moderate correlation with more precise measures of body fat 1,2,3, it does not directly measure body fat. Additionally, these more direct measures of body fatness 4,5,6,7,8,9 appear to be as strongly correlated with various metabolic and disease outcomes as BMI.
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