(a) find the power of the lens necessary to correct an eye with a far point of 26.1 cm

The distance between the probes is given as  117.86 A

We are given that the fluorescence intensity of probe A decreases from 160 units in the absence of probe B to 156 units in the presence of probe B. This decrease in intensity is due to the energy transfer from probe A to probe B. The efficiency of energy transfer can be calculated using the following equation:

E = 1 - (I_AB / I_A)

where I_AB is the fluorescence intensity of probe A in the presence of probe B and I_A is the fluorescence intensity of probe A in the absence of probe B.

Substituting the given values, we get:

E = 1 - (156 / 160) = 0.025

Now we can calculate the distance between the probes:

R = 64 A * [(1/0.025) - 1]^(1/6) = 117.86 A

Therefore, the distance between the probes is approximately 117.86 A.

Read more on distance here:https://brainly.com/question/26046491

#SPJ1

The number of hours it would take to empty the tank if a pump removes 2.7 gallons of water from the tank every minute is approximately 4.8 hours.

First, we need to convert the weight of water in the tank (6,480 lbs) to volume (gallons) and then determine the time it takes for the pump to empty the tank.

1 gallon of water weighs approximately 8.34 lbs. So, to convert the weight of water to gallons, we can use the following formula:

Volume (gallons) = Weight (lbs) / 8.34 lbs/gallon

Volume = 6,480 lbs / 8.34 lbs/gallon = 776.74 gallons (approximately)

Now that we know the volume of water in the tank, we can determine the time it takes for the pump to empty it. The pump removes water at a rate of 2.7 gallons of water per minute. To find the time, we can use the following formula:

Time (minutes) = Volume (gallons) / Pump rate (gallons/minute)

Time = 776.74 gallons / 2.7 gallons/minute ≈ 287.68 minutes

To convert the time to hours, we can divide the minutes by 60:

Time (hours) = Time (minutes) / 60

Time ≈ 287.68 minutes / 60 ≈ 4.8 hours

So, it would take approximately 4.8 hours for the pump to empty the 6,480 lbs water tank at a rate of 2.7 gallons per minute.

Learn more about rate here: https://brainly.com/question/19493296

#SPJ11

the linear acceleration of a car, the 0.310-m radius tires of which have an angular acceleration of 15.5 rad/s2 is 4.805 m/s².

To calculate the linear acceleration of a car with 0.310-meter radius tires and an angular acceleration of 15.5 rad/s², you can use the following formula:

Linear acceleration (a) = Radius of tires (r) × Angular acceleration (α)

Step 1: Identify the given values
- Radius of tires (r) = 0.310 meters
- Angular acceleration (α) = 15.5 rad/s²

Step 2: Use the formula to calculate the linear acceleration
a = 0.310 m × 15.5 rad/s²

Step 3: Calculate the result
a = 4.805 m/s²

The linear acceleration of the car is 4.805 m/s².

Learn more about linear acceleration  at  brainly.com/question/13723307

#SPJ11

The correct expression for the entropy change of the environment and the gas during an isobaric compression is:

b. ΔS_env + ΔS_gas > 0

During an isobaric compression, the gas is compressed at constant pressure. The reasoning behind this choice is as follows: In an isobaric process, the pressure remains constant throughout the compression. When an ideal gas undergoes compression, its volume decreases, and consequently, its entropy (ΔS_gas) also decreases, resulting in a negative value for ΔS_gas. However, the second law of thermodynamics states that the total entropy of a closed system, including the environment (ΔS_env), must always increase or remain constant. During the compression process, heat is transferred from the gas to the environment, which in turn increases the entropy of the environment (ΔS_env). Therefore, the sum of the entropy changes for both the gas and the environment (ΔS_env + ΔS_gas) must be greater than 0 to satisfy the second law of thermodynamics.

To learn more about  isobaric compression click here

https://brainly.com/question/13369842

#SPJ11

a). Impedance of the circuit Incorrect:  Z = 85.9 ohms

(b) Rms current in the circuit: 0.69 A

c) Average power delivered to the circuit: 35.88 W

Due to the fact that DC current is a sort of continuous current, its frequency is 0 hertz. Therefore, AC current is not limited to zero Hz as its rest frequency.

Given : 85 sin(260t)

C = 28mF = 28x 10⁻³ F

Inductance = L = 0.250 H

a) Inductive reactance = X(L) = ω L = (350)(0.2) = 70 ohms

Capacitive reactance = X(C) = 1 / ωC = 0.114 ohms

Reactance = Z = [tex]\sqrt{R^{2} + (X_{L} - X_{C} ) }[/tex]

                  =  [tex]\sqrt{52^{2} +(70 -0.114)^{2} }[/tex]

                  =85.9

B )  current = I = 85 / 85.9 = 0.98 A

Irms = 0.98 / [tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex] = 0.69 A

c) P =  R = (0.69)(52) = 35.88 W

To know more about AC voltage visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/3792887

#SPJ1

To solve this problem, we can use the formula for the relationship between pressure and volume for an ideal gas. So, the final pressure of the ideal gas is approximately 26.4 atm, which corresponds to option C.

P1V1 = P2V2
where P1 is the initial pressure, V1 is the initial volume, P2 is the final pressure, and V2 is the final volume.
We are given that the initial volume V1 is 4.20 L and the final volume V2 is 18.9 L. We are also given the initial pressure P1, which is 119 atm. We want to find the final pressure P2.
Plugging in the values we know into the formula, we get:
(119 atm)(4.20 L) = P2(18.9 L)
Solving for P2, we get:
P2 = (119 atm)(4.20 L) / 18.9 L
P2 = 26.4 atm
Therefore, the final pressure is 26.4 atm, which is answer choice C.

To find the final pressure of an ideal gas that expands from 4.20 L to 18.9 L at constant temperature with an initial pressure of 119 atm, we can use Boyle's Law. Boyle's Law states that for an ideal gas at constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume remains constant. Mathematically, it can be represented as:
P1 * V1 = P2 * V2
where P1 and V1 are the initial pressure and volume, and P2 and V2 are the final pressure and volume.
We are given:
P1 = 119 atm
V1 = 4.20 L
V2 = 18.9 L
We need to find P2 (final pressure).
Using Boyle's Law, we have:
119 atm * 4.20 L = P2 * 18.9 L
Now, we can solve for P2:
P2 = (119 atm * 4.20 L) / 18.9 L
P2 ≈ 26.4 atm
So, the final pressure of the ideal gas is approximately 26.4 atm, which corresponds to option C.

Visit here to learn more about Pressure:

brainly.com/question/12977546

#SPJ11

The magnitude of the magnetic flux through the ring is approximately 4.9×10[tex]−4[/tex] Wb (we rounded the answer to two significant figures).

The magnetic flux through a circular loop is given by:

Φ = BAcosθ

Where Φ is the magnetic flux, B is the magnetic field, A is the area of the loop, and θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the loop.

In this case, the magnetic field is 5.8×10[tex]-2[/tex] T, the radius of the loop is 5.3 cm (or 0.053 m), and the angle between the magnetic field and the normal is 16∘.

The area of a circle is given by:

A = πr^2

So the area of the loop is:

A = π(0.053 m)[tex]^2[/tex] ≈ 8.83×10₃

Substituting the values into the equation for magnetic flux, we get:

Φ =[tex](5.8×10−2 T)(8.83×10−3 m^2)cos(16∘) ≈ 4.9×10−4 Wb[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic flux through the ring is approximately 4.9×1[tex]0−4 Wb[/tex] (we rounded the answer to two significant figures).

learn more about magnetic flux here:

https://brainly.com/question/14411049

#SPJ4

Option a. The work done by the force that provides this torque is 16 J.

To calculate the work done by the force that provides a torque of 10 N•m and causes a wheel to rotate 90º, we can use the formula:
Work done = Torque × Angular displacement × cosθ
In this case, the torque is 10 N•m, the angular displacement is 90º, and the angle between the force and displacement vectors (θ) is 0º because they are in the same direction. To use the formula, we first need to convert the angular displacement from degrees to radians:
90º × (π/180) = π/2 radians
Now, we can calculate the work done:
Work done = 10 N•m × (π/2) × cos(0º) = 10 N•m × (π/2) × 1 = 5π N•m
To find the closest answer choice, let's approximate the value of 5π:
5π ≈ 5 × 3.14 ≈ 15.7 J
The closest answer choice to 15.7 J is option a. 16 J

learn more about "Torque " at: https://brainly.com/question/29024338

#SPJ11

Answer:

F = M a = M v^2 / R

F = .3 * 12^2 / .8 = 54 N

The distance between the two slits that produces the first minimum for 420-nm violet light at an angle of 13.5° is approximately 899.60 nm.

To find the distance between two slits that produces the first minimum for 420-nm violet light at an angle of 13.5°, we can use the formula for the angular position of the minima in a double-slit interference pattern:

mλ = d * sinθ

Here, m is the order of the minimum (m = 1 for the first minimum), λ is the wavelength of light, d is the distance between the slits, and θ is the angle.

We are given λ = 420 nm and θ = 13.5°, and we need to find d.

1. Convert the angle to radians: θ = 13.5° * (π/180) = 0.2354 radians

2. Rearrange the formula to solve for d: d = mλ / sinθ

3. Plug in the given values and solve for d: d = (1 * 420 nm) / sin(0.2354 radians)

d ≈ 899.60 nm

Therefore, the distance between the two slits that produces the first minimum for 420-nm violet light at an angle of 13.5° is approximately 899.60 nm.

For more information on angular  position and distance between slits  refer to https://brainly.com/question/15715225

#SPJ11

Air enters a nozzle steadily at 2.21 kg/m³ and 40 m/s and leaves at 0.762 kg/m³and 180 m/s. If the inlet area of the nozzle is 90 cm²,

(a) the mass flow rate through the nozzle is 0.7986 kg/s

(b) the exit area of the nozzle is 0.00582 m².

(a) To determine the mass flow rate through the nozzle,

we need to multiply the density of the air at the inlet (2.21 kg/m³) by the velocity of the air at the inlet (40 m/s) and the inlet area (90 cm²).

First, let's convert the inlet area from cm² to m²:

90 cm² = 90 * 0.0001 m²

            = 0.009 m²

Now we can calculate the mass flow rate:

          [tex]Mass flow rate = density * velocity * area[/tex]
           Mass flow rate = 2.21 kg/m^3 × 40 m/s × 0.009 m^2
           Mass flow rate = 0.7986 kg/s

So, the mass flow rate through the nozzle is 0.7986 kg/s.

(b) To find the exit area of the nozzle, we can use the mass flow rate and the exit conditions (density and velocity) provided.

First, we can rearrange the mass flow rate equation to solve for the exit area:

        [tex]Exit area = mass flow rate / (exit density * exit velocity)[/tex]

Now, plug in the given values:

Exit area = 0.7986 kg/s / (0.762 kg/m^3 × 180 m/s)
Exit area = 0.7986 kg/s / 137.16 kg/(m^2 s)
Exit area ≈ 0.00582 m^2

The exit area of the nozzle is approximately 0.00582 m^2.

Learn more about mass flow rate here:

https://brainly.com/question/15088427

#SPJ11

The answer is c. It will rotate clockwise. A current loop is placed in magnetic field as shown. If It is released from rest, it will rotate clockwise.

With a magnetic field that is homogenous, there is no net force acting on a current loop. With a magnetic field that weakens to the right, a current loop with a magnetic moment pointing left is present.

Every location along a circular loop carrying electricity has magnetic field lines that are concentric circles. The right-hand thumb rule may be used to determine the magnetic field direction of each segment of the circular loop.

To know more about current loop visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/15204409

#SPJ1

The answer is c. It will rotate clockwise. A current loop is placed in magnetic field as shown. If It is released from rest, it will rotate clockwise.

With a magnetic field that is homogenous, there is no net force acting on a current loop. With a magnetic field that weakens to the right, a current loop with a magnetic moment pointing left is present.

Every location along a circular loop carrying electricity has magnetic field lines that are concentric circles. The right-hand thumb rule may be used to determine the magnetic field direction of each segment of the circular loop.

To know more about current loop visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/15204409

#SPJ1

The work done on the particle by the force F is 20 J. Answer A is correct.

The work done on the particle by the force F can be calculated using the formula:

[tex]W = F \int ds[/tex]

where F is the force vector and ds is the displacement vector. Since the force is constant, we can simplify this to:

[tex]W = F . \int ds[/tex]

where [tex]\int ds[/tex] is the displacement vector. In this case, the particle moves 5m in the positive x direction, so we have:

[tex]\int ds = 5 \hat{i}[/tex]

Substituting this into the equation for work, we get:

W = F · 5 [tex]\hat{i}[/tex]

where F is the force vector given as:

F = (4 N) [tex]\hat{i}[/tex] + (2 N) [tex]\hat{j}[/tex] − (4 N) [tex]\hat{k}[/tex]

Taking the dot product of F and 5[tex]\hat{i}[/tex], we get:

[tex]F . 5 \hat{i} = (4 N) (5) + (2 N) (0) - (4 N) (0)\\\\ = 20 J[/tex]

Choice A is correct.

To know more about force, here

https://brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ1

When a 45 V potential difference is applied across a 1.8 kΩ resistor, a current flows through the resistor, following Ohm's law (I = V/R). Therefore, the current can be calculated by dividing the voltage by the resistance: I = 45 V / 1.8 kΩ = 0.025 A. This means that a current of 0.025 A, or 25 milliamperes (mA), flows through the resistor.

The flow of current through the resistor can cause various effects, depending on the circuit design and the properties of the resistor itself. For example, the resistor may generate heat as a result of the current flow, which can be a concern in some applications.

Additionally, the resistor can serve to limit the amount of current that flows through the circuit, which can help protect other components from damage due to overloading or short circuits.

Overall, understanding how current flows through resistors and other components is essential for designing and troubleshooting electrical circuits. By applying the principles of Ohm's law and other fundamental concepts, engineers, and technicians can ensure that circuits operate safely and effectively.

To know more about Ohm's law refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/1247379#

#SPJ11

After 6,451 years, there would be approximately 124.05 grams of carbon 14 left,  the time elapsed since the start of the half-life (in this case, 736 years), T is the half-life (5,715 years), and q0 is the initial mass (492 grams.

calculated as follows:

First, we need to determine how many half-lives have passed during the 6,451 years. To do this, we divide the time elapsed by the half-life:

6,451 years / 5,715 years per half-life = 1.13 half-lives

This means that 1 half-life has fully elapsed, and we're partway through the second half-life.

To calculate how much carbon 14 is left after 1 half-life, we use the formula:

q = q0 / 2

where q is the amount of carbon 14 remaining and q0 is the initial mass. In this case, q0 = 492 grams, so after 1 half-life (5,715 years), we have:

q = 492 / 2 = 246 grams

Now we need to calculate how much further decay occurs during the remaining 1/13th of a half-life. To do this, we use the formula:

q = q0 * (1/2)^(t/T)

where t is the time elapsed since the start of the half-life (in this case, 736 years), T is the half-life (5,715 years), and q0 is the initial mass (492 grams). Plugging in these values, we get:

q = 492 * (1/2)^(736/5,715) = 124.05 grams

Therefore, after 6,451 years, approximately 124.05 grams of carbon 14 would remain, assuming an initial mass of 492 grams.

Learn more about carbon here:

https://brainly.com/question/22530423

#SPJ11

The average width of the slit is approximately 23,247 nm.

To calculate the average width of the slit using both the first and second-order data, we will first use the formula for single-slit diffraction:

sinθ = mλ / a

where θ is the angle of diffraction, m is the order of the minima (1 for the first order and 2 for the second order), λ is the wavelength of light (700 nm), and a is the width of the slit.

First, we need to calculate the angle of diffraction for both the first and second-order minima. Since the distance between the screen and the slit is 100 cm, we can use the small-angle approximation:

tanθ ≈ sinθ ≈ y / L

where y is the distance between the central maximum and the minima, and L is the distance from the slit to the screen.

For the first order (m = 1), y1 = 5.9 cm / 2 = 2.95 cm:
sinθ1 ≈ 2.95 cm / 100 cm = 0.0295

For the second order (m = 2), y2 = 12.3 cm / 2 = 6.15 cm:
sinθ2 ≈ 6.15 cm / 100 cm = 0.0615

Now, we can use the single-slit diffraction formula to calculate the width of the slit for both orders:

For the first order (m = 1):
a1 = 1(700 nm) / sinθ1 = 700 nm / 0.0295 = 23729 nm

For the second order (m = 2):
a2 = 2(700 nm) / sinθ2 = 1400 nm / 0.0615 = 22764 nm

Finally, we can calculate the average width of the slit using both the first and second-order data:

a_avg = (a1 + a2) / 2 = (23729 nm + 22764 nm) / 2 = 23246.5 nm

You can learn more about average width at: brainly.com/question/29655412

#SPJ11

The current through the coil is 13.91mA.

Current of 12a is carried through a circular coil with 250 turns and an 18 cm diameter. How Strong a Magnetic Moment Is There When the Coil Is Connected? -- Physics. Current carrying capacity is 12A in a circle with 250 turns and an 18 cm diameter.

The magnetic field at a location on the axis of a circular current-carrying coil with a 10 cm radius is 55 times greater than the magnetic field at the coil's centre.

M=I[tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]

0.065=I3.14*9.8*9.8*7

I=13.91mA

To know more about magnetic moment visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/14446899

#SPJ1

The value of k, we can write the general formula:
T^2 = (9/16) * (a^3 / d^2)

To write a general formula describing the variation, we can use the given information:

The square of T varies directly with the cube of a and inversely with the square of d. We can express this relationship as:

T^2 = k * (a^3 / d^2)

Here, k is the constant of variation. Now, we'll use the given values of T, a, and d to find the value of k:

3^2 = k * (4^3 / 2^2)
9 = k * (64 / 4)
9 = k * 16
k = 9 / 16

Now that we've found the value of k, we can write the general formula:

T^2 = (9/16) * (a^3 / d^2)

To learn more about cube, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/30962206

#SPJ11

The width of the central bright fringe on the screen is approximately 5.67 mm.

To calculate the width on the screen of the central bright fringe, we need to use the equation:
w = (λL)/d
Substituting the given values, we get:
w = (630 nm x 1.80 m)/0.400 mm
w = 2.835 x 10^-3 m or 2.84 mm (rounded to two significant figures)
Width = 2 * (λL / a)
- Width is the width of the central bright fringe on the screen
- λ is the wavelength of light (630 nm or 630 x 10^-9 m)
- L is the distance between the slit and the screen (1.80 m)
- a is the width of the slit (0.400 mm or 0.400 x 10^-3 m)
Width = 2 * (630 x 10^-9 m * 1.80 m) / (0.400 x 10^-3 m)
Width ≈ 0.00567 m or 5.67 mm

To know more about width visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/21566137

#SPJ11

a) (i) 0.0781 kg*m², (ii) 0.3906 kg*m², (iii) 0.0521 kg*m²

b) (i) 0.4 kg*m², (ii) 1.2 kg*m²

c) (i) 0.125 kg*m², (ii) 0.25 kg*m²

a) (i) The moment of inertia of a thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis perpendicular to it and passing through one end is given by I = (1/3)*M*L². Substituting the given values, we get I = (1/3)*(2.50 kg)*(0.75 m)² = 0.0781 kg*m².

(ii) The moment of inertia of a thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis perpendicular to it and passing through its center is given by I = (1/12)*M*L². Substituting the given values, we get I = (1/12)*(2.50 kg)*(0.75 m)² = 0.3906 kg*m².

(iii) The moment of inertia of a thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis parallel to the rod and passing through it is given by I = (1/12)*M*L² + (1/4)*M*R², where R is the distance between the axis of rotation and the center of mass of the rod. For a thin rod, R = L/2. Substituting the given values, we get I = (1/12)*(2.50 kg)*(0.75 m)² + (1/4)*(2.50 kg)*(0.75 m/2)² = 0.0521 kg*m².

b) (i) The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about any axis passing through its center is given by I = (2/5)*M*R². Substituting the given values, we get I = (2/5)*(3.00 kg)*(0.5 m)² = 0.4 kg*m².

(ii) The moment of inertia of a thin-walled hollow sphere of mass M and radius R about any axis passing through its center is given by I = (2/3)*M*R². Substituting the given values, we get I = (2/3)*(3.00 kg)*(0.5 m)² = 1.2 kg*m².

c) (i) The moment of inertia of a thin-walled hollow cylinder of mass M, outer radius R and inner radius r about its central axis is given by I = (1/2)*M*(R² + r²). For a thin-walled cylinder, R ≈ r + L/2. Substituting the given values, we get I = (1/2)*(8.00 kg)*[(0.5*0.195 m + 0.5*0.19 m)² + (0.5*0.195 m)²] = 0.125 kg*m².

(ii) The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass M, radius R and length L about its central axis is given by I = (1/12)*M*L² + (1/4)*M*R². For a cylinder, L ≈ R. Substituting the given values, we get I = (1/12)*(8.00 kg)*(0.195 m)² + (1/4)*(8.00 kg)*(0.195 m)² = 0

learn more about moment of inertia here:

https://brainly.com/question/29415485

#SPJ11

The potential difference across all three resistors in a series circuit is the same, as the voltage from the battery is divided across the resistors in proportion to their resistance values. Therefore, option B (potential difference ΔV) is the same for all three resistors.

The resistance of each resistor is different, so option C is not the same for all three resistors.

The current through each resistor is the same, as there is only one path for the current to flow in a series circuit. Therefore, option A (current I) is the same for all three resistors.

So the correct answer is D, "A and B".

learn more abouT Potential difference  here:

https://brainly.com/question/24142403

#SPJ4

The portable DVD player requires 1.746 watts of power.

To calculate the power required by the portable DVD player, you can use the formula P = I x V, where P is power in watts, I is current in amperes, and V is voltage in volts.

Given that the player draws a current of 194 mA at 9.00 V, we need to convert the current to amperes by dividing it by 1000.

So, I = 194 mA / 1000 = 0.194 A

Using the formula P = I x V, we get:

P = 0.194 A x 9.00 V = 1.746 watts

Therefore, the portable DVD player requires 1.746 watts of power.

Learn More about DVD here :-

https://brainly.com/question/23896058

#SPJ11

If the pressure stays constant at atmospheric pressure, the balloon containing methane gas will have a volume of 4.80 L at 114 °C. However, if the pressure changes, the final volume will be different.

To solve this problem, we need to use the combined gas law equation, which relates the pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas,
(P1 * V1) / T1 = (P2 * V2) / T2
where P1 and P2 are the initial and final pressures (which we can assume to be constant), V1 is the initial volume, V2 is the final volume (what we're trying to find), T1 is the initial temperature, and T2 is the final temperature.

We're given that the initial volume (V1) is 2.40 L, the initial temperature (T1) is 57.0 °C, and the final temperature (T2) is 114 °C. We're trying to find the final volume (V2). We're not given the pressure, but we can assume it's constant (since the balloon isn't being compressed or expanding).

Plugging in the values we have, we get,

(P1 * 2.40) / 57.0 = (P2 * V2) / 114

We can simplify this equation by multiplying both sides by 114,

(P1 * 2.40 * 114) / 57.0 = P2 * V2

Now we can solve for V2 by dividing both sides by P2,

V2 = (P1 * 2.40 * 114) / (57.0 * P2)

Since we don't know the pressure, we can't solve for the exact final volume. However, we can make some assumptions. For example, if we assume that the pressure stays constant at atmospheric pressure (which is around 1 atm), we can plug that value in for P1 and P2:

V2 = (1 * 2.40 * 114) / (57.0 * 1) = 4.80 L

Therefore, the balloon carrying methane gas will have a capacity of 4.80 L at 114 °C if the pressure remains constant at atmospheric pressure. However, the ultimate volume will vary if the pressure varies.

Learn more about "volume": https://brainly.com/question/463363

#SPJ11

tThe percent difference in resistance over this temperature range is 2.82% when coefficient of resistivity for carbon is -0.500 × 10⁻³/°C.

To determine the percent difference in resistance over this range, we need to use the given temperature coefficient of resistivity for carbon, which is -0.500 × 10⁻³/°C. First, we need to find the change in resistance:
ΔR = R × α × ΔT
Where ΔR is the change in resistance, R is the initial resistance, α is the temperature coefficient of resistivity, and ΔT is the change in temperature.
In this case, ΔT = 56.4°C, and α = -0.500 × 10⁻³/°C. We can't find the exact change in resistance without the initial resistance value, but we can still find the percent difference in resistance:
Percent difference = (ΔR / R) × 100
Plugging in the given values:
Percent difference = (R × (-0.500 × 10⁻³/°C) × 56.4°C) / R × 100
The R values cancel out, leaving:
Percent difference = (-0.500 × 10⁻³/°C × 56.4°C) × 100 = -2.82%
The negative sign indicates a decrease in resistance, so the percent difference in resistance over this temperature range is 2.82%.

Learn more about resistivity :

https://brainly.com/question/30799966

#SPJ11

Answer:

In other words, science is one of the most important channels of knowledge. It has a specific role, as well as a variety of functions for the benefit of our society: creating new knowledge, improving education, and increasing the quality of our lives. Science must respond to societal needs and global challenges.

The angular momentum given to the engine is 44.2 Nms.

Angular momentum (L) is given by the equation L = r * F * Δt, where r is the distance from the pivot (0.38 m), F is the force exerted (290 N), and Δt is the time duration for which the force is applied (0.13 s).

To create maximum torque, the force should be applied for the entire time duration. Thus, Δt is equal to 0.13 s. Plugging in these values, we get L = 0.38 * 290 * 0.13 = 44.2 Nms as the angular momentum given to the engine.

For more questions like Momentum click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/30677308

#SPJ11

The moment of inertia of an object does not depend on the kinematics of the object, such as speed or acceleration.

Kinematics is a subfield of physics, developed in classical mechanics, that describes the motion of points, bodies, and systems of bodies without considering the forces that cause them to move.

The moment of inertia is a measure of an object's resistance to rotational motion, and it is affected by the distribution of mass within the object.

The moment of inertia is a property of an object that describes its resistance to rotational motion, and it depends on the mass distribution and the axis of rotation.

It is independent of the kinematic factors like speed or acceleration, which describe the motion of the object.

Learn more about inertia:

https://brainly.com/question/1140505

#SPJ11

(a) The bending stress at corner A is 6.67 kPa.

(b) The bending stress at corner B is 2.22 kPa.

(c) The orientation of the neutral axis is horizontal and passes through the centroid.

(a) To determine the bending stress developed at corner A, we need to calculate the moment of inertia (I) of the cross-section and the distance (c) from the centroid to the corner A. Then, we can use the formula:

σ = Mc/Ic

where σ is the bending stress, M is the bending moment, and Ic is the moment of inertia about the centroidal axis.

Assuming the cross-section is rectangular, we have:

I = [tex]bh^3[/tex]/12, where b is the base and h is the height

c = h/2

Substituting these values and M = 55 kN/m, we get:

σ = (55 kN/m)(h/2)/([tex]bh^3[/tex]/12) = 6.67 kPa

Therefore, the bending stress developed at corner A is 6.67 kPa.

(b) To determine the bending stress developed at corner B, we follow the same procedure as in Part A, but with a different value for the distance c. Assuming the cross-section is rectangular and symmetric, we have:

c = b/2

Substituting this value and M = 55 kN/m, we get:

σ = (55 kN/m)(b/2)/([tex]bh^3[/tex]/12) = 2.22 kPa

Therefore, the bending stress developed at corner B is 2.22 kPa.

(c) The neutral axis is the line on which the stress is zero during bending. For a symmetric cross-section, the neutral axis is at the center of the section, which is also the centroidal axis. Therefore, the orientation of the neutral axis is horizontal, perpendicular to the plane of the cross-section, passing through the centroid.

Learn more about Bending stress

brainly.com/question/24282973

#SPJ11

Answer:

If A'B'C' is the image of ABC in the mirror, then the distance between the object (ABC) and its mirror is equal to the distance between A'B'C' and the mirror.

Let's call the distance between A'B'C' and the mirror "d". According to the problem, we know that:

d = 80 cm

However, we need to find the distance between ABC and its mirror, which we can call "x". We know that:

x + d = 2x

Simplifying this equation, we get:

d = x

Substituting the value of "d" from the first equation, we get:

x = 80 cm

Therefore, the distance between the object (ABC) and its mirror is also 80 cm, which is the same as the distance between A'B'C' and the mirror.

Explanation:

The magnetic field that is required to bend the charged particle into a circular path is 1.42×10⁻³ T.

To calculate the magnetic field strength required to bend alpha particles into a circular path of radius r = 0.14 m, we can use the equation:

[tex]B = \frac{m\times v}{q\times r}[/tex]

where B is the magnetic field strength, m is the mass of the alpha particle, v is its velocity, q is its charge, and r is the radius of the circular path.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

[tex]B = \frac {6.6\times 10^{-27} \ kg \times 1.8\times 10^6 \ m/s} { 2e \times 0.14 \ m}[/tex]

where 2e represents the charge of the alpha particle.

Simplifying this equation, we get:

B = 1.42×10⁻³ T

Therefore, a magnetic field strength of 1.42×10⁻³ T would be required to bend alpha particles with charge q = +2e and mass m = 6.6×10⁻²⁷ kg into a circular path of radius r = 0.14 m.

Learn more about the magnetic field:

https://brainly.com/question/7645789

#SPJ11