A person with 20/100 vision has to be 20 feet away in order to see what someone with normal vision sees at 100 feet. Even though you have 20/20 eyesight, you may not have perfect vision.
How would you describe a patient's 20/200 vision to them?A person without 20/200 vision can see at a distance of 20 feet what someone with normal visual can see from a distance of 200 feet, which is the level known is legally blind.
Can glasses be used to correct 20/100 vision?You can see from 20 feet whatever a person who has normal eye sees at 100 feet if your eyesight is 20/100. When vision is this impaired, corrective lenses are often needed to see clearly. Based on the intensity, additional therapies like surgery and eye drops can be required.
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an adolescent is admitted with partial- and full-thickness burns of the arms and upper torso. which are the primary purposes of administering pain medication via the intravenous route, rather than the intramuscular route? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The primary purposes of administering pain medication via the intravenous route, rather than the intramuscular route helps in decreasing the damage done to burned tissues and the irritation caused to them.
Intravenous and intramuscular drug routes are essential in the treatment of clinical seizure where oral drugs cannot be used. Using intramuscular rather than intravenous can damage already damaged tissues.
intravenous have more advantage over intramuscular like, Bioavailability is 100%, drug reaches the stream of blood immediately, drugs can be delivered at a uniform rate, very large volumes can be infused and etc.
This also help reduce severe pains.
This intravenous route can go into blood streams works in minutes.
Intramuscular can cause inadequate amounts of medications absorbed.
hence, decreasing the risk of tissues irritation, decreases the infection rate and hence intravenous is much preferred.
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those medical apps related to treatment or clinical decision support will require fda approval. true or false? true false
those medical apps related to treatment or clinical decision support will require FDA approval. The statement is true.
What is FDA ?
FDA is involve in Protection of the public health by assuring that foods are safe, sanitary and properly labeled it ensures that human and veterinary drugs, and vaccines and other biological products and medical devices are safe and effective for human use.
It Protect the public from electronic product radiation, Assure cosmetics and dietary supplements are safe and properly labeled, Regulate tobacco products, Advance the public health by helping to speed product innovations
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the goal of hospice care is to provide group of answer choices medical options for the treatment of terminal illnesses so that death can be avoided. death with dignity and pain management in a humane and comfortable setting. liaisons to experimental treatments that might not be readily available for some patients. legal options for family members making medical decisions on the part of another.
The goal of hospice care is to provide death with dignity and pain management in a humane and comfortable setting and is denoted as option B.
What is Hospice?This is referred to as a type of home which provides care for the sick or terminally ill. This is available to people who are nearing the end of life and have some month or weeks before dying.
This type of home provides care and comfort which ensures that death comes with dignity and the appropriate pain management which is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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the older adult client tells the health care provider about experiencing incontinence ever since starting diuretic therapy 2 weeks ago. what term should the provider document in the medical record related to the type of incontinence?
The older adult client tells the healthcare provider about experiencing incontinence ever since starting diuretic therapy 2 weeks ago. The type of incontinence the provider should document in the medical record is "transient".
What is transient incontinence?
Incontinence on its own is a health condition that affects urine flow when it is urinary incontinence or how stool is being passed from the rectum, in the form of fecal incontinence. Generally, this condition is not easily cured.
However, transient incontinence is when this condition becomes treatable due to the cure of the underlying issue that caused it.
Stroke, certain medications, stress, and depression are some known underlying causes of incontinence.
In summary, the diuretic therapy was the underlying cause of incontinence. If the diuretic therapy is removed, the client might not experience incontinence again. Hence, incontinence becomes transient.
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the nurse is caring for a 2-month-old with a cleft palate. the child will undergo corrective surgery at age 3 months. the mother would like to continue breastfeeding the baby after surgery and wonders if it is possible. how should the nurse respond?
If the mother would like to continue breastfeed the baby after surgery the nurse should respond by saying "Breastfeeding is likely to be possible, but check with the surgeon."
Most women can breastfeed normally after anesthesia and surgery, without having to pump and discard breast milk. If a medication could otherwise be prescribed to the infant for a medical condition, it is generally thought to be safe for the mother to take while breastfeeding.
Breastfeeding should not be affected by general anesthesia. Once you are awake and alert enough to hold your baby, you can safely nurse. By that point, the amount of medication in your bloodstream is so low that the amounts in your milk are negligible.
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the nurse is caring for a preterm infant with necrotizing enterocolitis (nec). which nursing interventio is most important for this infant
The nursing intervention that is most important for preterm infants with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is to measure the abdominal girth.
What is the necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition?The necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition is a health problem that occurs during the development of infants in which tissue in the bowel is inflamed. This inflammation occurs in small and or large intestines.
The diagnosis of the necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition may be made through different medical procedures which include, for example, the observation of fecal samples under a microscope, also by the observation of the substances in the blood, or through X rays tests.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) condition is a health problem that occurs in infants and may affect the abdominal girth, thereby the measurement of this region may be indicative of this disease.
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What do histone deacetylase do?
Histone deacetylases (HDACs) are enzymes that catalyze the removal of acetyl functional groups from the lysine residues of both histone and nonhistone proteins.
A class of enzymes known as histone deacetylases helps histones wrap DNA more firmly by removing acetyl groups (O=C-CH3) from -N-acetyl lysine amino acids. This is significant because DNA is wrapped around histones and that acetylation and de-acetylation control how DNA is expressed. In contrast to histone acetyltransferase, it acts differently. Since non-histone proteins are also among their targets, HDAC proteins are now also referred to as lysine deacetylases (KDAC) in order to better reflect their mode of action.
Histone deacetylases (HDACs) are enzymes that take away acetyl groups from lysine residues in the NH2 terminal tails of core histones. This causes a more closed chromatin structure and suppresses the expression of genes.
What is histone protein?
A chromosome's structural support is provided by a protein called a histone. Long DNA molecules found on each chromosome must fit into the cell nucleus. This is accomplished by the DNA wrapping around histone protein complexes, giving the chromosome a more compact form.
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identify what nutrition therapy would be used to treat constipation. check all that apply. [mark all correct answers] a. plenty of water b. mechanically ground foods c. thickened liquids d. high fiber diet e. exercise f. low residue
d. High fiber diet.
The nutrition therapy would use high fiber diet to treat constipation
What is constipation?Constipation is defined as having less than three bowel motions each week. The frequency of "going" varies greatly from person to person. While some people go to the bathroom multiple times each day, others only do it once or twice per week. As long as you don't deviate too much from your pattern, whatever your bowel movement pattern is, it's particular to you and normal.Whatever your bowel habits, one thing is certain: the longer you wait to "go," the harder it is for faeces or waste to pass.Typical characteristics of constipation also include the following:
Your faeces are firm and dry.Your bowel movement hurts, and passing stools is challenging.Following are some suggestions for treating constipation:
Extra water should be consumed two to four times day. Avoid alcohol and caffeine-containing beverages because they can dehydrate you.Increase your intake of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and other high-fiber foods. Reduce your intake of high-fat foods like cheese, pork, and eggs.ingest some prunes or bran porridge.Keep a diet journal and mark the items that make you constipated.Get active and work out.Examine your toilet-sitting technique. Having a bowel movement may be made simpler by squatting, raising your feet, or leaning back.Higher dietary fiber intake (fruits, legumes, and vegetables) is associated with a lower incidence of constipation in some studies. In terms of treatment, water-insoluble fiber with wheat bran and rye bread improves bowel movement frequency and defecation difficulty significantlyTo learn more about constipation, refer to
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while the affordable care act aimed at providing solutions to the problems of lack of health insurance coverage among millions of americans and the seemingly unstoppable rise in health care costs, obamacare was intended to fix minor problems in health care. true false
Obamacare was intended to fix minor problems in health care. Ture.
Why is the above statement true?The three main goals of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) are to: (1) reform the private insurance market, particularly for individuals and small-group buyers; (2) expand Medicaid to the working poor with incomes up to 133% of the federal poverty level; and (3) alter the way that medical decisions are made.
All three goals are founded on the premise that rational decision-making will be influenced by incentives but unrestricted by other factors and will primarily depend on individual decisions as opposed to government regulation. It is implicitly assumed that people and organisations will act within the confines of these changes to create a valued good (access to healthcare) at a fair price (what it would cost an effective provider to supply it) supported by equitable risk sharing.
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a nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. what procedure would the nurse educate the patient about for termination of the dysrhythmia?
The procedure that would the nurse educate the patient about for termination of the dysrhythmia is elective cardioversion.
What is elective cardioversion?A controlled electrical current is delivered to your heart muscle by special electrodes attached to the skin on your chest and back during elective (nonemergent) cardioversion. Cardioversion attempts to restore normal rhythm (sinus rhythm).
If the ventricular rate is not too slow, atrial fibrillation can also be treated with elective cardioversion or digitalis.
A ventricular problem is treated with defibrillation. A Mace procedure is merely a diversion from this question. Pacemakers are used to treat bradycardia.
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you have been called for a geriatric patient with advanced demential. the staff at the skilled nursing facility believe her to be suffering from a urinary tract infection. at bedside, you find her to be confused and aggressive. she is on constant oxygen at 3 lpm for copd. during transport, she repeatedly spits and tries to strike you. you should respond by:
Move aside from the patient in response so she cannot attack you.
The term "geriatrics" relates to the medical treatment of elderly people, a difficult-to-define age category. Gerontology is the study of aging, which includes changes in biology, society, and psychology. Although "older" is preferable over "elderly," both phrases lack precision.
Any infection in the urinary system is referred to as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra are components of the urinary system. Most infections affect the bladder and urethra, which are parts of the lower urinary system.
Compared to males, women are more likely to get a urinary tract infection (UTI). An infection that just affects the bladder can be uncomfortable and unpleasant. A urinary tract infection (UTI), however, can spread to the kidneys and cause major health issues.
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a client is scheduled for a renal arteriogram. no allergies are recorded in the client's medical record, and the client is unable to provide allergy information. during the arteriogram, the nurse should be alert for which assessment finding that may indicate an allergic reaction to the dye used?
Pruritus may indicate allergic reaction to the dye used.
A moderate allergic reaction to the arteriogram dye may manifest as itching and urticaria, therefore the nurse should be on the lookout for these symptoms. Both dyspnea and decreased (not increased) attentiveness could happen (not hypoventilation). Skin that is remarkably smooth is not an indication of anaphylaxis.
An impulse to scratch that is painful and irritating and can occur anywhere on the body.
The painful, irritable feeling of having itchy skin makes you want to scratch. Itchy skin, also referred to as pruritus, is frequently brought on by dry skin. Given that aging skin tends to get drier, older persons frequently experience it.
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when providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate (ritalin) to the mother of a child diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactive disorder (adhd), what instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Administer the drug 45 minutes before meals. Methylphenidate's rate of absorption is influenced by food. It should therefore be consumed 30 to 45 minutes before meals.
What is methylphenidate used for?The most frequently prescribed central nervous system stimulant drug used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and, to a lesser extent, narcolepsy is methylphenidate, which is marketed under the brand names Ritalin and Concerta, among others.
In order to treat children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, methylphenidate is employed (ADHD). They can focus better and it helps with hyperactivity and impulsive behaviour. Additionally, people with ADHD or narcolepsy are treated with it (a sleep disorder). Only prescriptions are accepted for methylphenidate.
Methylphenidate increases the levels of dopamine and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft by blocking the dopamine transporter (DAT) and the noradrenaline transporter, which prevents dopamine and noradrenaline from being reabsorbed into the terminal.
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when teaching a patient with a family history of hypertension about health promotion, the nurse describes blood pressure screening as which type of prevention?
Because screening exams are given to persons who have not yet shown symptoms of diseases with a long latency period, they are an example of a secondary preventative measure.
What do basic, tertiary, and secondary prevention entail?The primary prevention strategy aims to stop disease before it starts; secondary prevention makes an early detection and intervention effort; and tertiary prevention focuses on managing an individual's existing disease and preventing subsequent consequences.
What does "primary prevention" mean?Primary Prevention refers to efforts such as immunizations, changing risky behaviours (bad eating habits, tobacco use), and outlawing drugs that are known to be linked to a disease or health condition in order to intervene before adverse health impacts arise.
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the nurse is assessing a pregnant client with type 1 diabetes mellitus about her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. the nurse determines that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?
"I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy."
Do insulin needs decrease in the first trimester?Due to higher pancreatic and peripheral insulin sensitivity during the first trimester of pregnancy, there is a reduction in the need for insulin. The client knows how to manage her diabetes while pregnant, as evidenced by the truthfulness of alternatives 2, 3, and 4.
Insulin needs may decrease until the end of the first trimester as a result of these early pregnancy changes to your blood glucose levels. To lower your chance of hypos, particularly severe ones, you probably need to adjust your insulin dosages or pump delivery now.
Mostly based on clinical experience, it has been claimed that the first trimester will see a more mild, temporary drop in insulin demand. A few days of normal or almost normal fasting and postprandial glucose levels may precede the decline, which might happen suddenly, even overnight.
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suppose you try loosening a hex nut with a wrench, and the hex nut doesn't give at all. you increase your chance of success if you .
Suppose you try to loosen a hex nut with a wrench and it does not give at all. To increase the chance of success, you should: extend the lever arm.
How does extending the lever arm affect the force?The hexagonal nut is a type with six sides since it is the easiest shape to grasp. But, if we fail to loosen the hex nut, we can extend the lever arm since it increases force capability. When we increase the length of the lever arm, the torque will also increase. Hence, less force is required to loosen the nut.
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the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is being sent home on oral tetracycline. what instructions should the nurse include?
Answer:
When taking the medicine, a full glass of water (8oz) should be drank to prevent irritation of the esophagus or stomach. It is also best to take the medicine either 1 hour prior to eating a meal or 2 hours after eating a meal. Tetracycline is most effective on an empty stomach.
You respond to the scene of a 16-year-old pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you begin your assessment, the patient tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should:______.
A. contact the patient's parents to obtain consent.
B. explain the consequences of refusal of care.
C. have the patient sign a Refusal for Care form.
D. advise the patient that she cannot refuse care.
If the person who is in medical care does not want to go to hospital, then as a responsible person, one should explain the consequences of refusal of care, which means that option B should be the right answer.
Refusal of care is a voluntary condition or action taken by the patient or their family on the behalf of the concerned which states that every person has the right to take well informed decisions about their healthcare and their medical experts must not impose their own beliefs or decisions upon their patients to influence them forcefully. It can be detrimental on the profession if something goes wrong from what was thought of and can be blamed upon. It is important for the doctors to get legal consent form signed by the family member before any big treatment or surgery in which the life of the patient is at stake.
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the general consensus is that disorders of the autism spectrum
The general consensus is that disorders of the autism spectrum are neurobiological in nature and have high family concordance rates.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) could be a biological process incapacity caused by variations within the brain. folks with ASD typically have issues with social communication and interaction, and restricted or repetitive behaviors or interests. folks with ASD may additionally have alternative ways of learning, moving, or listening.
Concordance Rate is a term that's employed in statistics and by geneticists to explain the speed of likelihood that 2 folks with shared genes can develop a similar organic sickness. Or even the likelihood of 1 twin having the disorder if the opposite already has it expressed as a share.
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client gives the home health nurse a bottle of clomipramine. the nurse notes that the medication has not been taken by the client in 2 months. which behavior observed in the client would validate noncompliance with this medication?
Frequent handwashing with hot, soapy water is the behavior observed in the client which validate noncompliance with this medication.
What does it mean to be non-compliant with medication?Patients frequently refuse to take prescription medications or adhere to recommended treatment plans. They might not pay attention to your directions, and they might even show signs of hostility or instability in their resistance to doing so. The culture of safety that behavioral health professionals work to establish and uphold can be actively threatened in these situations, which can swiftly escalate from basic noncompliance.These are a few of the common reasons for noncompliance and non-adherence:
Cost and affordabilityLack of understanding/comprehension of advice, whether due to language barriers, cognitive abilities, being afraid to ask for clarification or other reasonsMistrust or a lack of strong patient-provider relationshipDrug or alcohol dependence Medication side effectsDifficulty managing treatment regimenTo learn more about noncompliance, refer to
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The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the.
The diencephalon is the part of the brain that surrounds the third ventricle and consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and subthalamus.
What one of the three areas of the brainstem is most rostral?One of the three divisions of the brainstem is the midbrain, which is the division closest to the top of the brainstem and the most rostral of the three. A region known as the midbrain-diencephalon junction is where the midbrain joins the brainstem to the diencephalon.
Does the third ventricle have a diencephalon enclosure?The thalamus, which encircles the third ventricle, is a distinguishing feature of the diencephalon at this level. The internal capsule's posterior limb divides the thalamus from the surrounding telencephalic tissues (i.e., the globus pallidus and putamen).
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alcohol, which is toxic to the liver, is a common cause of hepatic disorders. as part of health teaching, the nurse advises a group of women that the amount of daily alcohol use should generally be limited to the equivalent of:
The nurse tells a group of ladies that they should normally restrict their daily alcohol consumption to two 6 oz glasses of wine.
30 g for women & 60 g for men should be consumed daily. One ounce of whiskey, 12 ounces of beer, or four ounces of red wine each contain 10 g of alcohol, the amount necessary to cause liver damage.
Dietary Standards of Americans 2020-2025 recommends that individuals completely avoid alcohol or only consume it in moderation, no more than two glasses per day for men & one drink per day for women. As a consequence, drinking has few hazards attached to it.
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after many years of advanced practice nursing, a nurse has recently enrolled in a nurse practitioner (np) program. this nurse has been attracted to the program by the potential after graduation to provide primary care for clients, an opportunity that is most likely to exist in which setting?
An opportunity that is most likely to exist in A rural health center.
NPs are quickly replacing MDs as the preferred healthcare partners for millions of Americans. NPs bring a holistic viewpoint and a human touch to healthcare as clinicians who combine clinical competence in diagnosing and treating health disorders with an extra emphasis on disease prevention and health management.
A mid-level practitioner, a nurse practitioner is a licensed nurse with advanced practice training. Nurse practitioners (NPs) are prepared to evaluate patients' needs, order and interpret diagnostic and laboratory tests, identify diseases, and create and provide medication and treatment plans.
The level of care provided by a nurse practitioner is equivalent to that of a general physician. The majority of nurse practitioners have extensive experience as registered nurses. They care for patients as nurses, carrying out duties like medicine administration and patient monitoring.
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a patient has been slated for cardiac conduction surgery. what would be the criteria for a patient to have this surgery?
Before the cardiac conduction surgery patient should eat a balanced diet prior to the surgery and some tests being done.
Cardiac conduction surgery involve two operations directly on the heart conduction system are analyzed and operations for dividing the walls of the right atrium and internal septum. Cardiac conduction is the network of muscle cells found in the walls of the heart. This sends signals to the rest of the heart muscles causing a contraction. This group of cells called cardiac conduction system. some of the common tests are done before the surgery that are chest X-rays, Electrocardiogram(ECG), urine analysis and white blood count. X-rays can help diagnose causes of shortness of breatheing, chest pains coughs and fever. Steps of cardiac conduction are impulse generation, Node impulse conduction, bundle impulse conduction, fiber impulse conduction.
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the incidence of cardiovascular disease during the past 50 years in the united states has: a. fluctuated according to medical technology. b. increased in some years and decreased in others. c. increased. d. remained constant. e. decreased.
Area of Concentration Heart disease deaths in the United States have decreased dramatically over the last 50 years, from over 589 age-adjusted deaths per 100,000 people in 1950 to less than half that number in 2000.
What is heart disease ?Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States for people of most racial and ethnic groups, including African Americans, American Indians, Alaska Natives, Hispanics, and white men. Heart disease is the second leading cause of death in Pacific Islander women, as well as Asian American, American Indian, Alaska Native, and Hispanic women.
Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States for men, women, and people of most racial and ethnic groups. In the United States, one person dies from cardiovascular disease every 34 seconds. In 2020, approximately 697,000 people in the United States died from heart disease, accounting for one out of every five deaths.
From 2017 to 2018, the United States spent approximately $229 billion on heart disease. This includes the cost of health-care services, medications, and lost productivity as a result of death.
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At what age can an infant start to eat rice cereal mixed with breast milk or formula?.
An infant can start to eat rice cereal mixed with breastmilk or formula at around six months old.
Generally, babies are not ready for solid foods until they are around six months old. Rice cereal is considered a solid food. By the time babies are around eight months old, they can start to eat a variety of foods from different food groups, such as meat, fruits, vegetables, dairy, and more.
You must note that it's important to offer a variety of fortified cereals if your infant wants to eat cereals. By fortified, it means cereals that have a good amount of vitamins, minerals, and other nutrients, so they can still get enough nutrition.
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the nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the t wave of the preceding beat. the client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no p waves, no definable qrs complexes, and coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. how should the nurse interpret this rhythm?
Ventricular fibrillation is what the nurse can interpret from the rhythm .
What is ventricular fibrillation?
Ventricular fibrillation is a type of irregular heart rhythm (arrhythmia). During ventricular fibrillation, the lower heart chambers contract in a very rapid and uncoordinated manner. As a result, the heart doesn't pump blood to the rest of the body.
Does ventricular fibrillation have P waves?
Ventricular fibrillation is the totally disorganized depolarization and contraction of the ventricular myocardium so that no effective ventricular or cardiac output occurs. The ECG shows a fine to coarse zigzag pattern with no detectable P waves or QRS complexes.
Does ventricular fibrillation have QRS?
VF is a WCT caused by irregular electrical activity and characterized by a ventricular rate of usually greater than 300 with discrete QRS complexes on the electrocardiogram (ECG).
What is the rhythm of ventricular fibrillation?
During ventricular fibrillation, the lower heart chambers contract in a very rapid and uncoordinated manner. As a result, the heart doesn't pump blood to the rest of the body.
Thus, the result interpreted from the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation.
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the nurse is planning a presentation to a community group on the topic of anxiety disorders. which statement would the nurse include when describing panic disorder?
Anxiety disorders that are brought on by medical issues include intense anxiety or panic attacks that can be directly linked to a physical health problem. Anxiety that is excessive and persistent are signs of generalised anxiety disorder.
What triggers very bad anxiety?intense dread or worry that is completely out of proportion to the threat. excessive fear or dread in response to various situations or objects. Avoiding the cause of your anxiety or just managing it through intense worry. avoiding social situations or severing ties to friends and family.
Is anxiety a mental illness?The most common of all mental diseases, anxiety disorders are experienced by over 30% of adults at some point in their lives. But there are a lot of effective anxiety therapies.
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shane, a 25-year-old man, is diagnosed with asthma. he began an albuterol mdi 2 weeks ago. he reports that his symptoms persist in spite of using albuterol mdi as prescribed. what advice should the nurse give the client?
Shane has been identified as having asthma. 2 weeks ago, he started using an albuterol MDI. He laments the fact that his symptoms still exist despite utilising his albuterol MDI as directed. The recommendation must be to speak with the doctor to get further drugs.
An example of a short-acting bronchodilator is albuterol. By allowing the smooth muscles in your airways to relax, it can help you recover from an asthma attack. A metered dose inhaler is typically used to administer it. Albuterol is used to treat severe asthma attacks. If you go to the emergency room while having an asthma attack, you'll need medication right away to control your asthma. These may consist of: beta-agonists with a brief action, like albuterol.
Thus, we may conclude that the recommendation must be made to him to contact a healthcare professional in order to receive supplementary medications.
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Complete Question
Shane, a 25-year-old man, is diagnosed with asthma. He began an albuterol MDI 2 weeks ago. He complains that his symptoms persist in spite of using his albuterol MDI as prescribed. What advice must he be given?
A. Contact the health care provider to obtain an increased dosage of albuterol.
B. Contact the health care provider to obtain adjunctive medications.
C. Use the MDI more often.
D. Clean the MDI thoroughly on a regular basis.
E. Contact the health care provider to obtain adjunctive medications.
what diet was first popularized in japan; it is predominantly vegetarian with avoidance of processed or refined foods.
Macrobiotic diet was first popularized in japan; it is vegetarian with avoidance of processed or refined foods.
What is Macrobiotic diet?The macrobiotic diet is a fad based on food types from Zen Buddhism. The purpose of the diet is to balance the supposed yin and yang elements of foods and dishes.
The macrobiotic diet is meant to be a strict diet that is said to reduce toxins. This includes eating whole grains and vegetables and avoiding foods high in fat, salt, sugar and artificial ingredients.
The basic principles of a macrobiotic diet are
to reduce animal products eat locally produced seasonal foods eat moderate meals.To learn more about Macrobiotic diet, refer;
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