The nurse should point out that these episodes are most likely related to normal response to the pregnancy.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a disorder of the way the body regulates and uses sugar (glucose) for fuel. This long-term (chronic) condition causes excess circulating sugar in the bloodstream. Finally, high blood sugar levels can lead to disorders of the circulatory, nervous and the immune systems.
There are two main related issues at work in type 2 diabetes. The pancreas does not produce enough insulin (the hormone that regulates the movement of sugar into the cells), and the cells respond poorly to insulin and absorb less sugar. Type 2 diabetes was formerly known as adult-onset diabetes, but both type 1 and type 2 diabetes can develop in childhood and adulthood. Type 2 diabetes is more common in older people, but the rise in obese children is increasing her type 2 diabetes among the younger generation.
There is no cure for type 2 diabetes, but the disease can be managed with weight loss, a healthy diet, and exercise. Diabetes drugs and insulin therapy may be needed if diet and exercise alone cannot control blood sugar levels.
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Cognitive psychologists posit that individuals who are depressed adopt a negative schema about the world that affects their attention, memory, and information processing. Which of these MOST represents a negative bias associated with attention?a. a tendency to give less importance to positive eventsb. trouble disengaging from negative informationc. a tendency to interpret neutral information negativelyd. better recall of negative information
The trouble disengaging from negative information for Cognitive psychologists posit that individuals who are depressed adopt a negative schema about the world that affects their attention, memory, and information processing.
In tight connections when people have known each other for a long time, the bias may cause people to assume the worst about others. For instance, you can have unfavourable expectations of how your spouse would respond to something and enter the interaction with your guard already up.
This method focuses on the internal factors that affect a person's behaviour. The cognitive method places a strong emphasis on the value of language, decision-making, perception, and attention.
Hence, negative information is trouble for Cognitive psychologists.
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maria, age 68, has difficulty managing simple everyday tasks because of the painful swelling of the joints in her hands. what condition is maria likely to be diagnosed with?
Maria must be diagnosed with Arthritis.
What do you mean by disease called arthritis and what are its types?
"Arthritis" literally means joint inflammation. Joints are places where two bones meet, such as your elbow or knee.
There are many different types of arthritis with different causes and treatments. In some types, other organs, such as your eyes, heart, or skin, can also be affected.
Common symptoms of arthritis include pain, redness, heat, and swelling in your joints.
If you have arthritis, it is important for your doctor to diagnose the type of arthritis you have so that you can get the proper treatment. Fortunately, current treatments allow most people with arthritis to lead active and productive lives.
Types of Arthritis:
Ankylosing spondylitis.Gout.Juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Osteoarthritis.Psoriatic arthritis.Reactive arthritis.Rheumatoid arthritis.To know more about arthritis from the given link:
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a full term infant is being assessed 12 hours after birth. the infant's respiratory rate is 50 and shallow, with periods of apnea less than 5 seconds. what action by the nurse takes priority?
The nurse's top priority is to keep checking in every 15 minutes.
What is the typical breathing rhythm of a newborn?
Approximately 40 to 60 breaths per minute are typical for a baby. During a baby's nap, this may decrease to 30 to 40 times per minute. Breathing patterns in babies can vary as well. A newborn may take multiple rapid breaths followed by a brief pause of less than 10 seconds before taking another rapid breath.
Healthy newborns should typically breathe shallowly between 30 and 50 times per minute, with brief apneic spells of up to 5 seconds. This baby is showing a typical newborn respiratory condition. The nurse should keep an eye on the baby in every 15 minutes.
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the nurse is assessing an 80-year-old client who has scald burns on both hands and forearms (first- and second-degree burns on 10% of the body surface area). what should the nurse do first
The first thing nurse do is refer the client to a burn center.
What is a burn center?
A burn center, burn unit, or burns unit is a hospital specializing in the treatment of burns. Burn centers are often used for the treatment and recovery of patients with more severe burns.
The first thing nurse do is refer the client to a burn center.
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a client with cirrhosis has been referred to hospice care. assessment data reveal a need to discuss nutrition with the client. what is the nurse's priority intervention?
A client with cirrhosis has been referred to hospice care. assessment data reveal a need to discuss nutrition with the client's phytonadione.
Cirrhosis is scarring (fibrosis) of the liver caused by long-term liver damage. Scar tissue prevents the liver from working properly. Cirrhosis is sometimes called an end-stage liver disease because it occurs after other stages of damage from diseases that affect the liver, such as B. Hepatitis.
Cirrhosis can be fatal when the liver fails. However, it usually takes years for the condition to reach this stage, and treatment can slow the progression. Cirrhosis kills about 4,000 people in the UK each year, and 700 patients require a liver transplant for survival.
Do all alcoholics develop alcoholic hepatitis and eventually cirrhosis? No. Some alcoholics suffer severely from the many physical and psychological symptoms of alcoholism However, serious liver damage has been spared. Alcoholic cirrhosis occurs in about 10-25% of alcoholics.
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the nurse-manager works at a unionized health care facility and is preparing for a disciplinary conference for an employee with a history of unexcused absences. what activity should the manager prioritize in this conference?
The manager should prioritize presenting objective evidence that demonstrates the employee's deficient performance in this conference.
What are some common performance issues?Unable to Set Priorities:
Due to the fact that workplace hyperconnectivity is still relatively new, the majority of businesses do not yet have policies or procedures in place to help employees prioritize their job over communication. For the majority of us, the main responsibility of our jobs is to solve a certain set of challenges.
Illusion of Urgency:
The incorrect definition of "urgent" and improper project prioritization are related to the aforementioned issues. Although it's a common misunderstanding that stress increases productivity, project tasks are typically completed out of order.
Effective Postponement:
We frequently take on small chores that make us feel accomplished in order to keep ourselves busy. Sadly, this doesn't stop the major projects from happening. Being busy provides people the sensation of having a purpose, which they seek.
Low-Quality Output:
Low-quality output is the root cause of all performance issues and the pinnacle of performance failure. The improper tasks being prioritized or emails taking precedence over other, more crucial duties may keep you busy and give you a sense of success, but they don't advance the organization.
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the nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute kidney injury. which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute kidney injury? acute kidney injury tends to turn to end-stage failure. kidney function will improve with transplant. once on dialysis, the need will be permanent. the kidneys can improve over a period of months.
Once on dialysis, the need will be permanent, the kidneys can improve over a period of months.
What is dialysis?
Dialysis is a procedure that removes waste products and excess water from the blood when the kidneys are not working properly. Blood often needs to be run through a machine for cleaning.
Normally, the kidneys filter the blood, removing harmful waste products and excess water, and turning it into urine, which is excreted from the body.
If your kidneys are not working properly (eg, in advanced chronic kidney disease (renal failure)), your kidneys may not be able to properly cleanse your blood.
Waste products and fluids can accumulate in the body in dangerous amounts. If left untreated, it can cause a variety of unpleasant symptoms and can ultimately be fatal.
Dialysis filters unwanted substances and fluids from the blood before this happens.
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when caring for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, the nurse recognizes the importance of minimizing the client's risk for developing which condition?
When caring for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, the nurse recognizes the importance of minimizing the client's risk for developing Posttraumatic stress disorder.
What is post-traumatic disorder?Post-traumatic stress disorder, PSTD is a condition in which an individual who survives a traumatic event continues to suffer the emotional and physical effects of their experience such that the individual is unable to function properly.
Post-traumatic stress disorder has symptoms that include the following:
nightmares or flashbacks,extreme fear of situations that bring back the trauma,heightened reactivity to stimuli,anxiety or depressed mood.Therefore, for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, it is important to minimize the client's risk of developing posttraumatic stress disorder as a result of the potential of acute stress disorder to lead to post-traumatic stress disorder.
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in general, which lifestyle change would result in a longer extension of life? group of answer choices eating no more than 10% of calories from saturated fat quitting drinking alcohol beginning an exercise program quitting smoking at the age of 35 years
In general, changing one’s lifestyle by quitting smoking at the age of 35 will result in a longer extension of life.
Why is smoking harmful?
Smoking tobacco causes immense harm to the body. There are more than 70 known cancer-causing substances that are present in tobacco smoke. These include tar which contains carcinogens and damages the lungs, carbon monoxide which puts stress on the heart and lungs, arsenic which is a carcinogen linked to many types of cancer, and more.
On average, smokers live roughly 10 years less than non-smokers. Smoking increases a person's risk of developing cancer, cardiovascular disease, heart attack, stroke, diabetes, and COPD, which includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. A person's risk of dying from a smoking-related cause is reduced by around 90% if they quit smoking before turning 40.
Hence, changing one’s lifestyle by quitting smoking at the age of 35 will result in a longer extension of life.
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the nurse is caring for an 88-year-old client who is recovering from an iliac-femoral bypass graft. the client is day 2 postoperative and has been mentally intact, as per baseline. when the nurse assesses the client, it is clear that the client is confused and has been experiencing disturbed sleep patterns and impaired psychomotor skills. which complication should the nurse suspect?
Postoperative delirium is the complication that has to be suspected by the nurse.
What is postoperative delirium?
The most typical post-operative complication in older persons is post-operative delirium, which is delirium that develops after an older adult has had an operation (surgery). There are numerous factors that might lead to delirium, including medications, infections, electrolyte imbalances, and the inability to move around (immobilization).
Postoperative delirium, a serious issue for older persons, is characterised by disorientation, perceptual and cognitive abnormalities, changed attention levels, disturbed sleep patterns, and decreased psychomotor skills.
Hence, the answer is postoperative delirium.
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a 70-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. his wife tells you that he collapsed about 5 minutes before your arrival. as you and your partner begin resuscitation, the man's wife tells you that she wants you to let him die in peace. you should:
You should: continue performing CPR and ask her if he has a living will.
In the event that a family member asks you not to try to revive a loved one, you should find out if there is a living will or a "out-of-hospital do not attempt resuscitation" (OOH-DNAR) order. It is usually permitted to stop resuscitative measures if a valid living will or OOH-DNAR order is presented; when needed, consult medical control. The best course of action would be to continue CPR and get in touch with medical control in the absence of a valid living will or OOH-DNAR order. Even in the absence of this documentation, medical supervision may advise you to stop performing CPR based on the patient's medical history, the family's desires, and other factors.
When in doubt, take the patient's side and try to revive them. Few would contest that defending why resuscitation was attempted as opposed to why it was not is better.
What is Cardiac arrest?
The electrical system of a sick heart frequently fails, resulting in cardiac arrests. This problem results in an abnormal cardiac rhythm such ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Extreme heartbeat slowing can potentially lead to cardiac arrest in some cases (bradycardia).
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the nurse is admitting a patient with severe diarrhea related to clostridium difficile colitis. which type of shock is the patient at the greatest risk for? obstructive shock distributive shock cardiogenic shock hypovolemic shock
Hypovolemic shock is the most dangerous type of shock for the patient.
Hypovolemic shock is an emergency condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to the body due to substantial blood or other fluid loss. Many organs may stop working as a result of this type of trauma.
Hypovolemia symptoms include:
Standing causes dizziness.
Dry skin, as well as a dry mouth.
Tiredness (fatigue) or weakness
Cramping of the muscles
Inability to pee (urinate) or urine that is darker than usual.
Once you're in an ambulance or a hospital, your provider will administer fluids (such as saline) before administering blood via an IV. They will also give you medications to help you return to normal blood pressure levels.
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when considering controlled substances, what actions are considered nursing responsibilities? (select all that apply.)
Controlled substance is the control of psychotropic substances and those with medical purposes, which is essential to prevent abuse or misuse and dependence.
Controlling Substances are drugs and other substances that have been determined by federal and state to have potential for creating an addition or dependent. Nurses responsibility for medication administration includes that the right medication is properly and correct dose administered at the right time through the right route to the right patient.All controlled substances that locate within pharmacy will be done every two years. Nurses are responsible for the recognizing patients symptoms taking measure within their scope of practice administer medications and adapted.To know more about controlling substances visit:
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seizure usually have a blank stare on their face, as if they’re daydreaming, and are completely unaware of their surroundings.
the nurse notices that the hem of a skirt on a pre-adolescent girl is uneven when she comes to the clinic. what procedure should the nurse follow to examine the girl for scoliosis? (arrange the examination process from first on top to last on the bottom.)
The nurse should follow the below steps to examine the girl for scoliosis:
1. Request that she take her shirt off but keep her bra or one-piece swimsuit on.
2. Check the hip region for asymmetry.
3. Tell the girl to do a waist-bending motion so her back is parallel to the ground.
4. Inspect the scapula for prominence.
Define scoliosis.
Most frequently diagnosed in adolescents, scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine. Scoliosis can occur in people who have diseases like cerebral palsy and muscular dystrophy, but the majority of childhood scoliosis cases have no known cause.
Scoliosis is typically mild, but some curves can get worse as kids get older. Disabling effects of severe scoliosis.
Uneven shoulders, a shoulder blade that is more prominent on one side than the other, and other signs and symptoms of scoliosis may be present. unsteady waist; a hip that is higher than the other; rib cage protruding forward on one side; a bulge when bending forward on one side of the back.
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when collecting data on a child diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the child has had weight loss and other symptoms of the disease. the nurse would anticipate which finding in the child's fasting glucose levels?
The nurse would anticipate 240 mg/dL as the child's fasting glucose levels. Diabetes is a disease caused when the pancreas do not produce sufficient insulin.
What is insulin?
Insulin is a peptide hormone. It is produced by beta cells of pancreatic islets that are encoded in humans by a gene called INS gene. It is said to be the body’s main anabolic hormone.
The main purpose of insulin is to regulate the blood sugar levels.
Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy. Then glucose enters the bloodstream. The pancreas then produces insulin, which promotes glucose to enter the body's cells, thereby providing energy.
Insulin is an essential hormone as it is required to create energy.
So, therefore, the nurse would anticipate 240 mg/dL as the child's fasting glucose levels.
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a client with obesity is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. in order to promote weight loss in the client and aid in glucose management, which medication will the nurse anticipate the health care provider ordering?
The nurse would anticipate the health care provider ordering an anti-diabetic medication such as metformin, which helps to reduce insulin resistance and promote weight loss.
the nurse recognizes the clinical assessment of a client with acute myeloid leukemia (aml) includes observing for signs of infection early. what nursing action will most likely help prevent infection?
Administering prophylactic antibiotics, as prescribed by the physician, to help prevent infection.
What is Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?
Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is a type of leukemia that develops from abnormal changes in the cells that would normally develop into white blood cells. Symptoms of AML include fatigue, fever, anemia, bleeding, and frequent infections. Treatment typically includes chemotherapy or a stem cell transplant.
Additionally, the nurse should monitor the client's temperature, white blood cell count, and other vital signs regularly to detect signs of infection. Encouraging the client to practice good hand hygiene and to report any signs of infection promptly.
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the nurse is assisting in caring for a client with abruptio placentae and is monitoring the client for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (dic). which finding is least likely associated with dic?
Swelling of the calf in one leg is least likely associated with
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
What is Abruptio placentae?
Abruptio placentae is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely separates from the uterine wall before delivery of the baby. This is a serious condition that can cause severe bleeding, premature birth, or even fetal death. It is most common during the third trimester of pregnancy and is often caused by hypertension, trauma, or other medical conditions. Women who have experienced abruptio placentae have an increased risk of developing it again in subsequent pregnancies.
What is Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a disorder in which the body's clotting system is activated and can't turn off, leading to widespread clotting throughout the body. DIC is caused by an underlying disorder, such as infection, cancer, or trauma, and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. Symptoms of DIC include a decrease in the number of blood cells called platelets, small clots forming in the blood vessels, and excessive bleeding from minor injuries.
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a client who is receiving antineoplastic medication by the intravenous (iv) route complains of pain at the insertion site of the iv. the nurse inspects the site and finds the area is swollen and reddened. the nurse further observes that the solution is no longer infusing. the nurse immediately takes which priority nursing action?
An individual who is undergoing intravenous chemotherapy. The nurse immediately informs the registered nurse (RN).
Antineoplastic cancer is what kind of cancer?Examples of antineoplastic medications that are known to massively raise immediate hepatic damage when administered in medium to high dosages include busulfan, melphalan, capecitabine, phenothiazines, cytarabine, fluorouracil, and carboplatin. This is especially true when used had have to hematopoietic cell transplantation.
Can antineoplastics lead to cancer?Many antineoplastic drugs are carcinogenic or teratogenic, suggesting that exposure may cause cancer. Antineoplastic medicines are toxic to good cells and tissues by nature, which stunts embryonic growth. This is so because the goal of these treatments is to halt cell growth and division.
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the nurse teaches the client prescribed a first-generation antihistamine to avoid alcohol and other cns depressants. what is the rationale for this particular teaching topic?
The rationale for this particular teaching topic is that the nurse instructs patients to abstain from alcohol and other CNS depressants because "the sedating effects will be increased". The correct answer is B.
When using antihistamines, caution should be taken to avoid alcohol as well as other CNS depressants since their sedative effects may be additive. Increased sedation may result from this combination.
What are antihistamines?Antihistamines are drugs that are frequently used to treat allergy symptoms, including hives, conjunctivitis, hay fever, and reactions to insect bites or stings. In addition to treating insomnia temporarily, they are occasionally used to alleviate motion sickness.
This question should be equipped with answer choices, which are:
A. The antihistamine will not work if combined with alcohol or a CNS depressant.B. The sedating effects will increase.C. The combination will cause insomnia.D. Anaphylaxis is more likely when antihistamines are taken with alcohol.The correct answer is B.
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the nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume? a. sitting up in bed b. lying on their side c. sitting in a recliner chair d. sitting up and leaning over a bedside table
Sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on an overbed table is the best position.
What are the causes of emphysema?
Exposure to various inhalation irritants can contribute to emphysema. These include secondhand smoke, air pollution, and chemical fumes or dust from the environment or employment. Rarely, a genetic disorder known as alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can contribute to the development of emphysema. Emphysema mainly results from smoking.
Hence, the answer is, sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on an overbed table.
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the nurse is caring for a client who had a small bowel resection the previous day and has continuous gastric suction attached to the nasogastric tube. which intravenous solution would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client?
To replenish lost fluid from the GI tract, electrolyte solutions such lactated Ringer's are utilised. Albumin is used to treat shock and replace lost protein; 5% dextrose in water only has glucose and no electrolytes to replenish electrolyte losses from the gastrointestinal tract. Because glucose is required for calories when a client eats nothing by mouth, normal saline is devoid of this substance (NPO).
What is nasogastric tube?
The medical procedure known as nasogastric intubation involves inserting a plastic tube via the nose, into the oesophagus, and then into the stomach. Similar procedures include orogastric intubation, which involves inserting a plastic tube via the mouth.
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Imagine you somehow developed a chronic disease. How would you gather information that would help you cure your illness? how could you tell if the information you had gathered was accurate and credible? << read less.
I would make an appointment with the doctor and discuss all of my concerns and questions regarding the illness there.
What to do if I have a Chronic illness?If I had a chronic illness, I would look for knowledge that could aid in treating it. The quickest method to do this is by researching the disease on the internet, I could even do it, but it could wind up collecting erroneous and false information that could make my problem worse. I could discover correct information, however this is hard to judge.
To make sure the material was correct and genuine, I would seek medical attention and acquire information straight from the professional, the doctor, who knows all the conditions relating to my sickness.
What is chronic disease?Chronic diseases are defined generically as ailments that last 1 year or longer and require continuing medical attention or restrict activities of daily living or both. Chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, and diabetes are the primary causes of death and disability.
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a nurse asks a student nurse how intraocular pressure (iop) is maintained. what statement indicates that the student nurse has an appropriate understanding of this process?
The statement indicates that the student nurse has an appropriate understanding of this process It is a balance between the production and drainage of aqueous humor.
Long-term use of ophthalmic corticosteroids including intravitreal agents can lead to ocular hypertension and or glaucoma vision and visual field defects posterior subcapsular cataract formation, and secondary eye infections.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma presents as a sudden onset of severe unilateral eye pain or headache associated with blurred vision iridescent rings around bright lights nausea and vomiting. A physical examination reveals a fixed central pupil and a cloudy or opaque cornea with marked conjunctival hyperemia. Trabecular meshwork cells have glucocorticoid receptors and can be acted upon by steroids to alter cell migration and phagocytosis.
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the nurse reviews the prenatal record in anticipation of a birth. which finding would alert the nurse to the possibility of an intestinal obstruction in the infant? select all that apply.
Polyhydramnios and a sibling with cystic fibrosis would alert the nurse to the risk of the newborn having an intestinal obstruction.
An intestinal obstruction is a blockage that prevents food or liquid from flowing through the small or large intestines (colon).
An intestinal obstruction is a blockage that prevents food or liquid from flowing through the small or large intestines (colon). Fibrous bands of tissue (adhesions) in the abdomen that form after surgery; hernias; colon cancer; certain drugs; or strictures from an inflammatory intestine caused by certain illnesses, such as Crohn's disease or diverticulitis, can all cause intestinal obstruction.
Without treatment, the clogged intestinal portions can die, causing major difficulties. However, with appropriate medical attention, intestinal blockage is frequently treatable.
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the nurse provides medication instructions to a client who has a prescription for sucralfate to be taken 4 times daily. which statement by the client indicates teaching was effective?
The client receives medication instructions from the nurse after being prescribed sucralfate be taken four times a day. The client's response that there aren't many adverse effects and that I only need to take it before meals and at night suggests that the lesson was successful.
Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The drug should be taken an hour before meals and before going to bed. The timing of the drug allows it to reach the base of ulcers and erosions and provide a protective covering before eating triggers chemical and mechanical irritation in the stomach. Stopping medication is not advised. The drug has few side effects, and diarrhea is not one of them.
As a result, choice 3 is the right response.
The complete question is:-
the nurse provides medication instructions to a client who has a prescription for sucralfate to be taken 4 times daily. which statement by the client indicates teaching was effective?
1. "I can stop the medication if my pain is relieved"
2. "I may get terrible diarrhea from the medication, and if I do I need to stop taking it"
3. "Side effects are minimal and I need to take it an hour before meals and at bedtime."
4."I need to take the medication halfway between meals and at bedtime on an empty stomach"
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Which of the following words on an ingredient list would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in the product?
a. liquid corn oil
b. peanut oil
c. chicken fat
d. BHA or BHT
e. hydrogenated vegetable oil
Option e. hydrogenated vegetable oil, on an ingredient list would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in the product.
Trans-fatty acids ar factory-made fats created throughout a method known as chemical action, that is geared toward stabilising unsaturated oils to stop them from turning into rancid and to stay them solid at temperature. they'll be significantly dangerous for heart health and will create a risk surely cancers.
Hydrogenated vegetable oils' trans fats are shown to damage heart health. Studies reveal that trans fats will increase levels of lipoprotein (bad) cholesterin whereas decreasing smart alpha-lipoprotein (good) cholesterin, each of that ar risk factors for heart condition.
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which of the entries on a patient's medical record are evidence of preeclampsia with severe features? (select all that apply.) 1 lb (454 grams) weight gain in 1 week
Epigastric pain, 3 lb (1.4 kg) weight gain in 1 week, scotomata, oliguria, blood pressure 182/116 mmHg are the entries on a patient's medical record are evidence of preeclampsia with severe features.
The presence of one or more of the following symptoms in a preeclamptic woman indicates a diagnosis of "preeclampsia with severe characteristics."Affected organ systems include: CNS; Liver; Kidney; Lungs; as well as Cardiovascular system; Lungs; and Liver (low platelets, and elevated pressures)If the patient is on bed rest, SBP of 160 mm Hg or DBP of 110 mm Hg on two occasions at least four hours apart (unless antihypertensive therapy is initiated before this time, in which case the patient meets the criteria with just one set of BP). Thrombocytopenia (less than 100,000 platelets per microliter)Progressive renal insufficiency (serum creatinine concentration greater than 1.1 mg/dL or a doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other renal disease) Impaired liver function as indicated by abnormally elevated blood concentrations of liver enzymes preeclamptic (to twice normal concentration), severe persistent right upper quadrant or epigastric pain that is unresponsive to medication and not accounted for by alternative diagnoses, or both respiratory edema fresh onset of visual or mental problems.To know more about patient check the below link:
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the nurse is caring for a client with a pneumothorax and chest tube. which assessment finding indicates that the chest tube has been effective? producitive coughing. return of breath sounds. increased pleural drainage. constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
Return of breath sounds is what the nurse finds effective.
What is pneumothorax?
A collapsed lung is known as a pneumothorax. When air seeps into the area between your lung and chest wall, it results in a pneumothorax. Your lung collapses as a result of the air pushing on its outside. Either spontaneous or traumatic pneumothorax occurs. It is referred to as "primary" when it affects a patient with no known underlying ailment; it is referred to as "secondary" when the patient has a condition that is connected to the pneumothorax.
Hence, the answer is return of breath sounds is what the nurse finds effective.
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