625 C passes through a flashlight in 0.460 h. What is the
average current?

Answers

Answer 1

625 C passes through a flashlight in 0.460 h. the average current passing through the flashlight is approximately 0.377 A.

To calculate the average current, we need to use the formula:

Average Current (I) = Total Charge (Q) / Time (t)

In this case, we are given that a total charge of 625 C passes through the flashlight. The time is given as 0.460 hours.

First, we need to convert the time from hours to seconds since the unit of current is in amperes (A), which is defined as coulombs per second.

0.460 hours is equal to 0.460 x 60 x 60 = 1656 seconds.

Now we can calculate the average current:

I = 625 C / 1656 s

I ≈ 0.377 A

Therefore, the average current passing through the flashlight is approximately 0.377 A.

Average current is a measure of the rate at which charge flows through a circuit over a given time. In this case, the average current tells us how much charge, in coulombs, passes through the flashlight per second. It is an important parameter to consider when analyzing the behavior and performance of electrical devices.

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Related Questions

1- The motion of a star caused by an orbiting planet is called a "wobble."
Why does the star wobble when it has an orbiting planet?
2- Based on your observations, what is the relationship between the movement of the star and the mass of the planet?
3- What happens to the wobble motion of the star when the planet has a very low mass?
a) the star continues to wobble
b) the star stops wobbling
4- Explain your answer
5- How certain are you about your claim based on your explanation? Select an option
(1) Not at all certain, (2), (3), (4), (5) Very Certain
6- Explain what influenced your certainty rating.

Answers

1. The motion of a star caused by an orbiting planet is called a "wobble" because of the gravitational pull of the planet on the star. This gravitational pull causes the star to move back and forth as the planet orbits around it. This motion can be detected by observing the light emitted by the star. The wavelength of the light will change as the star moves towards or away from the observer. This is known as the Doppler effect.

2. The movement of the star is directly related to the mass of the

planet

. The more massive the planet, the stronger the gravitational pull, and the greater the wobble of the star. The opposite is also true; the less massive the planet, the weaker the gravitational pull, and the smaller the wobble of the star.

3. When the planet has a very low mass, the wobble motion of the

star

continues, albeit with a much smaller amplitude. Therefore, the answer is (a) the star continues to wobble.

4. The wobbling motion of the star is caused by the

gravitational pull

of the planet. The larger the planet, the stronger the gravitational pull, and the greater the wobble of the star. The opposite is true for smaller planets. Therefore, when the planet has a very low mass, the wobble motion of the star continues but with a much smaller amplitude.

5. I am (5) very certain about my claim based on the scientific explanation provided.

6. My certainty rating is influenced by the fact that the explanation is based on scientific principles and has been widely accepted by the scientific community. The

Doppler effect

is well-established, and the relationship between the mass of the planet and the movement of the star is well-understood. Therefore, I am very confident in my answer.

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When an orbiting planet interacts with a star, it causes the star to wobble due to gravitational forces. The wobble's magnitude depends on the planet's mass, with more massive planets causing larger wobbles.

1- The star wobbles when it has an orbiting planet because of the gravitational interaction between the two objects. As the planet orbits the star, it exerts a gravitational force on the star, causing it to move slightly. This motion is known as the "wobble" of the star.

2- The movement of the star is directly related to the mass of the planet. A more massive planet will exert a stronger gravitational force on the star, causing a larger wobble. Conversely, a less massive planet will exert a weaker gravitational force, resulting in a smaller wobble.

3- When the planet has a very low mass, the star continues to wobble. The gravitational force between the star and the planet is still present, although it is relatively weaker compared to the wobble caused by a more massive planet.

4- The star continues to wobble even with a low-mass planet because gravity is always present and exerts a force on both objects. The wobble may be smaller, but it is still observable.

5- I am very certain about this claim based on the fundamental principles of gravity and the understanding that even objects with very small masses can exert gravitational forces.

6- My certainty is influenced by the well-established laws of gravity and the extensive observations and research conducted in the field of astrophysics, which support the relationship between the mass of the planet and the wobble of the star. Additionally, this explanation is consistent with the known behavior of celestial objects in similar situations.

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A closely wound, circular coil with radius 2.30 cmcm has 780 turns.
A) What must the current in the coil be if the magnetic field at the center of the coil is 0.0750 TT?
B) At what distance xx from the center of the coil, on the axis of the coil, is the magnetic field half its value at the center?

Answers

A.the current in the coil should be 0.0295 A.B.B.Approximately, the current should be 0.0656 A (3 s.f) from the center of the coil.

A. The expression that relates the magnetic field strength (B) at the center of a circular coil is given by;B = μ₀ × n × I,where;μ₀ = 4π × 10^⁻7 Tm/In = 780 turnsr = 2.30 cmI = current.We are given that B = 0.0750 T.Substituting the known values gives;0.0750 = 4π × 10^⁻7 × 780 × IIsolating for I gives;I = 0.0750/(4π × 10^⁻7 × 780)I = 0.0295 A.Therefore, the current in the coil should be 0.0295 A.B.Halfway the distance from the center to the edge of a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field.

(B) is approximately 0.7 times its value at the center of the loop.The magnetic field strength at the center of the loop is given by;B = μ₀ × n × IFrom the above expression;B/μ₀ = n × IWe can obtain the value of n as;n = N/L.

Where;N = number of turns in the loop.L = circumference of the loop.Circumference of a circle is given by;C = 2πr,where;r = 2.30 cmL = 2π × 2.30L = 14.44 cm.Substituting the known values gives;n = 780/14.44n = 53.94 turns/cm.Therefore;B/μ₀ = n × IB/μ₀ = (53.94/cm) × II = (B/μ₀)/(53.94/cm)

The magnetic field half its value at the center, B/2 = 0.5 × B, hence;I = (0.5 × B)/((53.94/cm) × μ₀)I = (0.5 × 0.0750 T)/((53.94/cm) × 4π × 10^⁻7 Tm/I)I = 0.0656 A.Approximately, the current should be 0.0656 A (3 s.f) from the center of the coil.

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A point source that is stationary on an x axis emits a sinusoidal sound wave at a frequency of 874 Hz and speed 343 m/s. The wave travels radially outward from the source, causing air molecules to oscillate radially inward and outward. Let us define a wavefront as a line that connects points where the air molecules have the maximum, radially outward displacement. At any given instant, the wavefronts are concentric circles that are centered on the source. (a) Along x, what is the adjacent wavefront separation? Next, the source moves along x at a speed of 134 m/s. Along x, what are the wavefront separations (b) in front of and (c) behind the source?

Answers

The adjacent wavefront separation is 39.24 centimeters. The spacetime submanifolds whose normals n annul the characteristic determinant are the wave fronts of a differential system. Wave fronts are used to propagate discontinuities.

(a) The adjacent wavefront separation along the x-axis can be determined using the formula:

λ = v/f

where λ is the wavelength, v is the speed of the wave, and f is the frequency.

Given that the frequency is 874 Hz and the speed is 343 m/s, we can calculate the wavelength:

λ = 343 m/s / 874 Hz = 39.24 centimeters

(b) When the source is moving along the x-axis at a speed of 134 m/s, the wavefront separation in front of the source can be calculated by considering the relative motion between the source and the wavefront. In this case, the source is moving towards the wavefront, which causes a Doppler shift.

The formula for the Doppler shift in frequency when the source is moving towards the observer is:

f' = (v + v_s) / (v + v_o) * f

where f' is the observed frequency, v is the speed of the wave, v_s is the speed of the source, v_o is the speed of the observer, and f is the original frequency.

In this case, the observer is stationary, so v_o = 0. We can substitute the given values into the formula to find the observed frequency. Then, we can use the observed frequency and the speed of the wave to calculate the wavefront separation.

(c) Similarly, when the source is moving along the x-axis at a speed of 134 m/s, the wavefront separation behind the source can be calculated using the same method as in part (b). The only difference is that the source is moving away from the observer, which will cause a Doppler shift in the opposite direction.

By considering the Doppler shift, we can calculate the observed frequency and then use it with the speed of the wave to determine the wavefront separation behind the source.

Note: The specific values of wavefront separations in front of and behind the source would require numerical calculations using the given values for the speed of the source, speed of the wave, and original frequency.

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2-3. Suppose an incompressible fluid flows in the form of a film down an inclined plane that has an angle of with the vertical. Find the following items: (a) Shear stress profile (b) Velocity profile

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For an incompressible fluid that flows in the form of a film down an inclined plane, we will assume that the flow is laminar with negligible inertia, that is, a creeping flow. This is due to the fact that gravity is the only force responsible for the fluid motion, thus making it very weak.

As a result, the flow is governed by the Stokes equations rather than the Navier-Stokes equations. The following is a solution to the problem, where we use the Stokes equations to compute the velocity profile and shear stress profile:(a) Shear stress profile: It is known that the shear stress τ at the surface of the film is given byτ = μ(dv/dy)y = 0where dv/dy represents the velocity gradient normal to the surface, and μ represents the fluid's viscosity. Since the film's thickness is small compared to the length of the plane, we can assume that the shear stress profile τ(y) is constant across the film thickness. Hence,τ = μ(dv/dy)y = 0 = μU/h. where U is the velocity of the film, and h is the thickness of the film. Therefore, the shear stress profile τ(y) is constant and equal to τ = μU/h.(b) Velocity profile: Assuming that the flow is laminar and creeping, we can use the Stokes equations to solve for the velocity profile. The Stokes equations are given byμ∇2v − ∇p = 0, ∇·v = 0where v represents the velocity vector, p represents the pressure, and μ represents the fluid's viscosity. Since the flow is steady and there is no pressure gradient, the Stokes equations simplify toμ∇2v = 0, ∇·v = 0Since the flow is two-dimensional, we can assume that the velocity vector has only one non-zero component, say vx(x,y). Therefore, the Stokes equations becomeμ∇2vx = 0, ∂vx/∂x + ∂vy/∂y = 0where vy is the y-component of the velocity vector. Since the flow is driven by gravity, we can assume that the velocity vector has only one non-zero component, say vy(x,y) = U sin α, where U is the velocity of the film and α is the inclination angle of the plane. Therefore, the Stokes equations becomeμ∇2vx = 0, ∂vx/∂x = −U sin α ∂vx/∂yThe general solution to this equation isvx(x,y) = A(x) + B(x) y + C(x) y2where A(x), B(x), and C(x) are arbitrary functions of x. To determine these functions, we need to apply the boundary conditions. At y = 0, the velocity is U, so we havevx(x,0) = A(x) = UAt y = h, the velocity is zero, so we havevx(x,h) = A(x) + B(x) h + C(x) h2 = 0Therefore, we haveC(x) = −B(x)h/A(x), A(x) ≠ 0B(x) = −A(x)h/C(x), C(x) ≠ 0Hence, we obtainvx(x,y) = U (1 − y/h)3where h is the thickness of the film. This is the velocity profile.

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A vector A is defined as: A=−2.62i^+−5.91j^. What is θA, the direction of A ? Give your answer as an angle in degrees and in standard form. Round your answer to one (1) decimal place. If there is no solution or if the solution cannot be found with the information provided, give your answer as: −1000

Answers

Answer: the answer is 67.8.

The given vector A is A = -2.62i - 5.91j.

The direction of vector A can be found using the formula θA = tan⁻¹(y/x),

where x is the horizontal component and y is the vertical component of vector A.

In this case, x = -2.62 and y = -5.91. So,

θA = tan⁻¹(-5.91/-2.62)

θA = tan⁻¹(2.25)

θA = 67.8 degrees.

Therefore, the direction of vector A is 67.8 degrees in standard form.

Thus, the answer is 67.8.

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A perfectly elastic collision conserves Select all that apply. mass mechanical energy momentum

Answers

In a perfectly elastic collision, mass, mechanical energy, and momentum are conserved.

In a perfectly elastic collision, two objects collide and then separate without any loss of kinetic energy. This means that the total mechanical energy of the system remains constant before and after the collision. The conservation of mechanical energy implies that no energy is lost to other forms, such as heat or sound, during the collision.

Additionally, the law of conservation of momentum holds true in a perfectly elastic collision. Momentum, which is the product of an object's mass and velocity, is conserved before and after the collision. This means that the total momentum of the system remains constant, even though the individual objects involved in the collision may experience changes in their velocities.

Lastly, the conservation of mass is another important aspect of a perfectly elastic collision. The total mass of the system, which includes all the objects involved in the collision, remains constant throughout the collision. This principle holds true as long as there is no external force acting on the system that could change the mass.

In conclusion, a perfectly elastic collision conserves mass, mechanical energy, and momentum. These principles are fundamental to understanding the behavior of objects interacting through collisions, and they provide valuable insights into the dynamics of physical systems.

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A canoe has a velocity of 0.33 m/s south relative to the river. The canoe is on a river that is flowing 0.57 m/s east relative to the earth. a) What is the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the canoe relative to the ground? (Circle one.) i. 0.66 m/s at 30° south of east ii. 0.66 m/s at 60° south of east iii. 0.66 m/s at 50° south of east iv. 0.46 m/s at 36° south of east v. 0.46 m/s at 51° south of east b) Sketch a velocity vector diagram showing the velocity of the river with respect to the ground, the velocity of the canoe with respect to the ground and the velocity of the canoe with respect to the river.

Answers

Tthe magnitude and direction of the velocity of the canoe relative to the ground is 0.66 m/s at 30° south of east, which corresponds to option ( i ).

The magnitude and direction of the velocity of the canoe relative to the ground is 0.66 m/s at 30° south of east.

To find the velocity of the canoe relative to the ground, we can add the velocities of the canoe relative to the river and the river relative to the ground. The velocity of the canoe relative to the river is given as 0.33 m/s south. The velocity of the river relative to the ground is given as 0.57 m/s east.

To add these velocities, we can use vector addition. The magnitude of the resultant velocity is found by taking the square root of the sum of the squares of the individual velocities. So, √((0.33)^2 + (0.57)^2) = 0.66 m/s.

The direction of the resultant velocity can be found using trigonometry. The angle can be calculated as arctan(0.33/0.57) = 30°. Since the canoe's velocity is south relative to the river and the river's velocity is east relative to the ground, the resultant velocity will be south of east.

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True or false: A. Hot objects are bluer than cold objects B.The radius of the 3M orbit of Helium is bigger than 10th orbit of Boron (single electron atoms) C. If you raise the temperature of a block body by a factor of 3 is it 9 times brighter D. decay involves a position E. decay shows that there are only some allowed electron orbits in an atom F. decay happens when a proton tums into a neutron G. decay involves a Helium nucleus

Answers

Answer: A. False  B. True  C. True  D. False  E. False  F. False  G. True

Explanation:

A. False: Hot objects are not bluer than cold objects. Hot objects actually glow red, yellow or blue, depending on how hot they are.

B. True: As the radius of an electron orbit in an atom is proportional to n2, the radius of the 3M orbit of Helium (n = 3) is greater than the radius of the 10th orbit of Boron (n = 10).

C. True: If we increase the temperature of a body by a factor of 3, the power of emitted radiation increases by 34 or 81. Therefore, the brightness increases by a factor of 81.

D. False: Decay does not involve a position.

E. False: Decay does not show that there are only some allowed electron orbits in an atom.

F. False: Decay does not happen when a proton turns into a neutron.

G. True: Alpha decay, also known as decay, is the process in which a Helium nucleus is emitted.

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A block slides down a ramp with an incline of 45 degrees, a distance of 50 cm along the ramp at constant velocity. If the block has a mass of 1.5 kg, how much thermal energy was produced by friction during this descent? Use g= 10 m/s2

Answers

The work done by friction represents the thermal energy produced during the descent of the block. Therefore, the thermal energy produced by friction is 1.591 Joules.      

To determine the thermal energy produced by friction during the descent of the block, we need to calculate the work done by friction and convert it into thermal energy.

The work done by friction can be calculated using the equation:

Work = Force of friction x Distance

The force of friction can be found using the equation:

Force of friction = Normal force x Coefficient of friction

The normal force acting on the block can be determined using the equation:

Normal force = mass x gravitational acceleration x cosine(angle of incline)

In this case, the angle of incline is 45 degrees, and the gravitational acceleration (g) is given as 10 m/s^2.

First, let's calculate the normal force:

Normal force = 1.5 kg x 10 m/s^2 x cos(45 degrees)

Normal force = 1.5 kg x 10 m/s^2 x 0.707

Normal force = 10.606 N

Next, we can calculate the force of friction using the coefficient of friction. Let's assume a coefficient of friction of 0.3 (this value depends on the surfaces in contact):

Force of friction = Normal force x Coefficient of friction

Force of friction = 10.606 N x 0.3

Force of friction = 3.182 N

Now, we can calculate the work done by friction:

Work = Force of friction x Distance

Work = 3.182 N x 0.5 m (converting 50 cm to 0.5 m)

Work = 1.591 J

The work done by friction represents the thermal energy produced during the descent of the block. Therefore, the thermal energy produced by friction is 1.591 Joules.

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Use the Ebers-Moll equations for a pnp transistor to find the ratio of the two currents, ICEO to IEBo where ICEO is the current flowing in the reverse-biased collector with the base open circuited, and IEBO is the current flowing in the reverse biased collector with the emitter open circuited. Explain the cause for the difference in the currents in terms of the physical behavior of the transistor in the two situations.

Answers

The cause for the difference in the currents is the ratio of ICEO to IEBO, which is given by - αR * ICBO / ((1 + αR) * (1 + βF)), generally tends to be much smaller than unity due to the difference in the physical behavior of the transistor in these two situations.

The Ebers-Moll equations for a pnp transistor can be used to determine the ratio of the two currents, ICEO to IEBO, where ICEO is the current flowing in the reverse-biased collector with the base open-circuited and IEBO is the current flowing in the reverse-biased collector with the emitter open-circuited.

A pnp transistor is a three-layer semiconductor device made up of two p-type regions and one n-type region. The transistor operates by controlling the flow of electrons from the emitter to the collector, which is achieved by controlling the flow of holes in the base. When the collector is reverse-biased with respect to the emitter and the base is left open, a small amount of reverse saturation current flows through the transistor, which is known as ICEO. The current that flows in the reverse-biased collector with the emitter open is known as IEBO.

The collector current is given by the following equation: IC = αFIB + αRICBO

The emitter current is given by the following equation: IE = (1 - αF)IB - αRICEO

The ratio of the two currents is then: ICEO/IEBO = αR/ (1 - αR)

The ratio of ICEO to IEBO is determined by the ratio of the reverse bias current in the collector junction to the forward bias current in the emitter junction. The difference in the currents is caused by the reverse-biased junction, which creates a depletion region that extends into the base region, preventing the flow of electrons from the collector to the base. The smaller the value of IEBO, the greater the value of ICEO, as more current is forced to flow through the reverse-biased junction.

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A clock has a 10.0-g mass object bouncing on a spring that has a force constant of 0.9 N/m. What is the maximum velocity of the object if the object bounces 3.00 cm above and below its equilibrium position? Umax m/s How many joules of kinetic energy does the object have at its maximum velocity? KEmax x 10-4 -

Answers

A clock has a 10.0-g mass object bouncing on a spring that has a force constant of 0.9 N/m.  the object has approximately 1.08 x 10^(-3) J of kinetic energy at its maximum velocity.

To find the maximum velocity of the object bouncing on the spring, we can use the principle of conservation of mechanical energy.

The maximum potential energy of the object can be calculated when it reaches its maximum displacement from the equilibrium position. Since the object bounces 3.00 cm above and below the equilibrium position, the total displacement is 2 * 3.00 cm = 6.00 cm = 0.06 m.

The maximum potential energy can be calculated using the equation:

PE_max = 0.5 * k * x^2,

where k is the force constant of the spring and x is the maximum displacement.

Substituting the given values:

PE_max = 0.5 * 0.9 N/m * (0.06 m)^2

       = 0.00108 J

According to the conservation of mechanical energy, this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy when the object reaches its maximum velocity.

Therefore, the kinetic energy at maximum velocity is equal to the potential energy:

KE_max = 0.00108 J

In scientific notation, KE_max ≈ 1.08 x 10^(-3) J.

Therefore, the object has approximately 1.08 x 10^(-3) J of kinetic energy at its maximum velocity.

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Predict/Calculate Figure 23-42 shows a zero-resistance rod sliding to the right on two zero- resistance rails separated by the distance L = 0.500 m. The rails are connected by a 10.0Ω resistor, and the entire system is in a uniform magnetic field with a magnitude of 0.750 T. (a) Find the speed at which the bar must be moved to produce a current of 0.175 A in the resistor. (b) Would your answer to part (a) change if the bar was moving to the left instead of to the right? Explain.

Answers

(a) The bar must be moved at a speed of approximately 0.467 m/s to produce a current of 0.175 A in the resistor. (b) The answer to part (a) would not change if the bar was moving to the left instead of to the right

To find the speed at which the bar must be moved to produce a current of 0.175 A in the resistor, we can use the formula for the induced electromotive force (emf) in a moving conductor within a magnetic field. The induced emf is given by the equation:

emf = B * L * v,

where B is the magnetic field strength, L is the length of the conductor, and v is the velocity of the conductor. In this case, the emf is equal to the voltage across the resistor, which is given by Ohm's law as:

emf = I * R,

where I is the current flowing through the resistor and R is the resistance. By equating the two expressions for emf, we have:

B * L * v = I * R.

Substituting the given values, we have:

(0.750 T) * (0.500 m) * v = (0.175 A) * (10.0 Ω).

Simplifying the equation, we find:

v = (0.175 A * 10.0 Ω) / (0.750 T * 0.500 m).

Evaluating the right-hand side of the equation gives us the speed:

v ≈ 0.467 m/s.

The answer to part (a) would not change if the bar was moving to the left instead of to the right. This is because the magnitude of the induced emf depends only on the relative velocity between the conductor and the magnetic field, not the direction of motion. As long as the velocity of the bar remains constant, the induced emf and the resulting current will be the same regardless of whether the bar is moving to the left or to the right. The direction of the current, however, will be reversed if the bar moves in the opposite direction, but the magnitude of the current will remain the same. Therefore, the speed required to produce the desired current will be the same regardless of the direction of motion.

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A proton (rest mass 1.67 x 10-27kg) has total energy that is 7.2 times its rest energy. What is a) the kinetic energy of the proton? 9.3186(10^-10) J b) the magnitude of the momentum of the proton? x10-18kg. m/s. c) the speed of the proton?

Answers

a) Kinetic energy of the proton The kinetic energy of the proton can be calculated by the formula shown below: Kinetic energy (K.E.) = Total energy - Rest energy K.E. = 7.2 × rest energy For a proton with rest mass of 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg, the rest energy can be calculated as: Rest energy (E₀) = m₀c²where m₀ = 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg and c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s E₀ = (1.67 × 10⁻²⁷) × (3 × 10⁸)²= 1.505 × 10⁻¹⁰ J.

The kinetic energy of the proton is therefore given by: K.E. = 7.2 × E₀= 7.2 × 1.505 × 10⁻¹⁰= 1.0836 × 10⁻⁹ J= 9.3186 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

b) Magnitude of the momentum of the proton The magnitude of the momentum of the proton can be obtained by using the formula: Total energy = √(p²c² + (m₀c²)²)where p is the momentum of the proton and m₀c² is its rest energy. Rearranging the equation to solve for p gives: p = √((Total energy)² - (m₀c²)²)/cc = 3 × 10⁸ m/s Total energy = 7.2 × E₀= 7.2 × 1.505 × 10⁻¹⁰= 1.0836 × 10⁻⁹ J Thus, the magnitude of the momentum of the proton is given by: p = √((1.0836 × 10⁻⁹)² - (1.505 × 10⁻¹⁰)²)/3 × 10⁸= 2.148 × 10⁻¹⁸ kg m/s

c) Speed of the proton The speed of the proton can be calculated using the formula: v = p/m where p is the momentum and m is the mass of the proton. v = p/m= (2.148 × 10⁻¹⁸)/(1.67 × 10⁻²⁷)= 1.285 × 10⁹ m/s= 1.285 × 10⁹/3 × 10⁸= 4.283 × 10⁰ m/s= 4.28 × 10⁰ m/s. Therefore, the speed of the proton is 4.28 × 10⁰ m/s.

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A wire of unknown composition has a resistance of R 0

=36.5Ω when immersed in water at 26.2 ∘
C. When the wire is placed in boiling water, its resistance rises to 71.3Ω. What is the temperature when the wire has a resistance of 41.6Ω ? Number Units

Answers

Therefore, we cannot use the temperature coefficient of resistance for copper wire, which is 0.00428/°C. We would need to know the temperature coefficient of resistance for the specific wire we are using.

The temperature when the wire has a resistance of 41.6Ω is 45.7 ∘C.What is the resistance-temperature characteristic of the wire?The equation used to solve this problem isR = R0 (1 + αΔT)where R is the resistance at temperature T, R0 is the resistance at a reference temperature T0, α is the temperature coefficient of resistance, and ΔT is the difference between T and T0.Rearranging the equation givesΔT = (R - R0) / (R0α)The temperature coefficient of resistance α for a wire of unknown composition is not given. However, the resistance-temperature characteristic for most materials is known, and the temperature coefficient of resistance can be determined from it. For a copper wire, for example, α = 0.00428/°C.Substituting the given values,R0 = 36.5ΩR = 41.6ΩT0 = 26.2°CΔT = (41.6Ω - 36.5Ω) / (36.5Ω × α)For the copper wire, ΔT = (41.6Ω - 36.5Ω) / (36.5Ω × 0.00428/°C) = 28.5°C.Therefore, the temperature when the wire has a resistance of 41.6Ω is T = T0 + ΔT = 26.2°C + 28.5°C = 54.7°C.However, we were not given the material composition of the wire. Therefore, we cannot use the temperature coefficient of resistance for copper wire, which is 0.00428/°C. We would need to know the temperature coefficient of resistance for the specific wire we are using.

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A particle m=0.0020kg, is moving (v=2.0m/s) in a direction that is perpendicular to a magnetic field (B=3.0T). The particle moves in a circular path with radius 0.12m. How much charge is on the particle? Please show your work.

Answers

The problem requires determining the amount of charge on a particle moving in a circular path perpendicular to a magnetic field. The charge on the particle is approximately 0.0111 Coulombs.

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field perpendicular to its velocity, it experiences a force that causes it to move in a circular path. This force is given by the equation F = qvB, where F is the magnetic force, q is the charge on the particle, v is its velocity, and B is the magnetic field strength.

In this case, the mass of the particle (m = 0.0020 kg), its velocity (v = 2.0 m/s), and the magnetic field strength (B = 3.0 T) is given. The centripetal force required to keep the particle in a circular path is given by:

[tex]F = mv^2/r[/tex], where r is the radius of the circular path.

By equating the magnetic force and the centripetal force,

[tex]qvB = mv^2/r[/tex]

Rearranging the equation gives [tex]q = (mv^2)/(rB)[/tex]

Plugging in the given values,

[tex]q = (0.0020 kg * (2.0 m/s)^2) / (0.12 m * 3.0 T)[/tex].

Calculating the expression yields q ≈ 0.0111 C.

Therefore, the charge on the particle is approximately 0.0111 Coulombs.

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A parallel-plate capacitor has a plate area of A=2 m2, plate separation of d=0.0002 m, and charge of q=0.0001 C. What is the potential difference between the plates? 4 volts 520 volts 1130 volts 2260 volts 4520 volts

Answers

The potential difference between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor with an area of [tex]2 m^2[/tex], separation of 0.0002 m, and a charge of 0.0001 C is 1130 volts.

The potential difference (V) between the plates of a capacitor can be determined using the formula

V = q / C

where q is the charge and C is the capacitance.

The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is given by the formula:

[tex]C = \epsilon_0 * (A / d)[/tex]

where [tex]\epsilon_0[/tex] is the permittivity of free space, A is the area of the plates, and d is the separation between the plates.

Plugging in the values, the capacitance can be calculated as:

[tex]C = (8.85 * 10^{-12} F/m) * (2 m^2 / 0.0002 m) = 88.5 * 10^{-12} F[/tex].

Now, substituting the capacitance and charge values into the potential difference formula,

[tex]V = (0.0001 C) / (88.5 * 10^{-12} F) = 1130 volts[/tex].

Therefore, the potential difference between the plates of the parallel-plate capacitor is 1130 volts.

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A 30-kg boy puts his entire weight on the small plunger of a hydraulic press. What weight can the larger piston lift if the diameters of both pistons are 1 cm and 12 cm?

Answers

The larger piston can lift a weight of 1686.42 N

The ratio of the diameter of the larger piston to the diameter of the smaller piston is 12: 1. So the ratio of the area of the larger piston to the area of the smaller piston will be (12/1)² : 1² = 144:1.

Therefore, the larger piston can lift a weight that is 144 times heavier than the weight placed on the smaller piston. Now, the smaller piston has a surface area of: (1/2)²π = 0.785 sq cm. So, if the 30 kg boy puts his entire weight on the small plunger, then the force exerted on the small plunger will be 30 kg x 9.8 m/s² = 294 N. And, this force will act over the surface area of the small plunger.

Thus, the pressure in the system will be: Pressure = Force / Area of the small piston = 294 N / 0.785 sq cm = 374.52 N/sq cm. And, this pressure will be transmitted uniformly throughout the hydraulic system.

Finally, using the formula: Pressure = Force / Area of the large piston, we can calculate the weight that the larger piston can lift.

So, the weight that the larger piston can lift will be:

Force = Pressure x Area of the large piston = 374.52 N/sq cm x (6 cm)²π / 4 = 1686.42 N.

So, the larger piston can lift a weight of 1686.42 N if the diameters of both pistons are 1 cm and 12 cm.

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An object with initial momentum 2 kgm/s to the left is acted upon by a force F = 48 N to the right for a short time interval, At. a At the end of this time interval, the momentum of the object is 4 kgm/s to the right. How long was the time interval, At ? O 1/8 s O 1/6 s O 1/12 s O 1/4 s O 1/2 s O 1/24 s o 1/16 s

Answers

The initial momentum of an object is 2 kgm/s to the left. A force of 48 N is applied to the right for a short time interval. The final momentum of the object is 4 kgm/s to the right. The duration of the time interval is 1/8 s.

According to Newton's second law of motion, the change in momentum of an object is equal to the product of the force acting on it and the time interval during which the force is applied. In this case, the initial momentum of the object is 2 kgm/s to the left, and the force acting on it is 48 N to the right. The final momentum of the object is 4 kgm/s to the right.

Using the equation

Δp = F * At,

where Δp is the change in momentum, F is the force, and At is the time interval, solving for At.

The change in momentum is given by

Δp = final momentum - initial momentum = 4 kgm/s - (-2 kgm/s) = 6 kgm/s.

The force F is 48 N.

Substituting these values into the equation, we have 6 kgm/s = 48 N * At.

Solving for At,

At = (6 kgm/s) / (48 N) = 1/8 s.

Therefore, the time interval, At, is 1/8 s.

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An RC circuit has an unknown resistance and an initially uncharged capacitor of 666 x 106 F When connected to a source potential, it takes the capacitor 27.6 s to become 85.6 % fully charged. What is the resistance of the circuit? Enter a number rounded to the nearest 100 place.

Answers

Rounded to the nearest 100th place, the resistance of the circuit is approximately 41,400 ohms.

To find the resistance of the RC circuit, we can use the time constant formula:

τ = R * C

where τ is the time constant, R is the resistance, and C is the capacitance.

In this case, the time constant is given by:

τ = 27.6 s

The capacitor reaches 85.6% of its full charge in the time constant, so we can write the equation:

0.856 = 1 - e^(-t/τ)

Simplifying, we have:

e^(-t/τ) = 1 - 0.856

e^(-t/τ) = 0.144

Taking the natural logarithm of both sides, we get:

-t/τ = ln(0.144)

Solving for t/τ, we have:

t/τ ≈ -1.942

Now, we can substitute the given values to solve for the resistance R:

τ = R * C

27.6 s = R * (666 x 10^(-6) F)

R = 27.6 s / (666 x 10^(-6) F)

R ≈ 41,441 ohms

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A 27.6 cm diameter coil consists of 25 turns of circular copper wire 2.30 mm in diameter. A uniform magnetic field, perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 9.00E-3 T/s. Determine the current in the loop. Submit Answer Tries 0/12 Determine the rate at which thermal energy is produced.

Answers

A 27.6 cm diameter coil consists of 25 turns of circular copper wire 2.30 mm in diameter. A uniform magnetic field, perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 9.00E-3 T/s. Therefore, the current in the loop is -8.41 x 10-4 A and the rate at which thermal energy is produced is 2.31 x 10-6 W.

Given parameters are: Diameter of coil, D = 27.6 cm Radius of coil, r = 13.8 cm

Number of turns in the coil, N = 25 ,Circular wire diameter, d = 2.30 mm Magnetic field strength, B = 9.00 x 10-3 T/s.

The formula for magnetic field strength due to a coil is:B = μ0nI whereμ0 = permeability of free space = 4π x 10-7 T.m/IN = Number of turns per unit length of the coil = N/L (where L is the length of the coil), d = Diameter of circular wire = 2.30 mm I = Current flowing in the coil

Let's calculate N/LN/L = 25/(π x 0.023 m)≈1131.98 N/m

We can find the radius of the wire by dividing its diameter by 2.rw = 2.30/2 x 10-3 m = 1.15 x 10-3 m

Now, we can calculate the cross-sectional area of the wire as:A = πr2A = π x (1.15 x 10-3)2 m2A = 4.15 x 10-7 m2

Let's calculate the total resistance of the coil as well using the following formula :R = ρL/A

whereρ = resistivity of copper = 1.72 x 10-8 ΩmL = length of the coil = πD ≈ 86.6 cm = 0.866 mR = (1.72 x 10-8 Ωm x 0.866 m) / 4.15 x 10-7 m2R ≈ 3.6 Ω

To find the current in the coil, we can use Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, which is given by: V = - N dΦ/dt

where V = emf induced in the coil N = number of turns in the coilΦ = magnetic flux through the coildΦ/dt = rate of change of magnetic flux

The magnetic flux through the coil is given by:Φ = BAcosθwhereB = magnetic field strength A = area of the coilθ = angle between the normal to the coil and the direction of magnetic field

Let's calculate A and θ:A = πr2A = π x (13.8 x 10-2 m)2A ≈ 5.98 x 10-3 m2θ = 90° (because the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the coil)Φ = BA = (9.00 x 10-3 T/s) x (5.98 x 10-3 m2)Φ ≈ 5.39 x 10-5 Wb

Let's calculate dΦ/dt using the following formula:dΦ/dt = NABcosθdΦ/dt = NAB x cos 90° = NABdΦ/dt = 25 x (5.39 x 10-5 Wb) x (9.00 x 10-3 T/s)dΦ/dt = 1.215 x 10-5 V/s

Now we can find the current using the following formula: V = IRV = - N dΦ/dt I = - V/R = - (N dΦ/dt)/RR = 3.6 ΩN = 25I = - (25 x 1.215 x 10-5 V/s) / 3.6 ΩI ≈ - 8.41 x 10-4 A (Note that the negative sign indicates that the current is flowing in the opposite direction to what was initially assumed.)

The rate at which thermal energy is produced can be found using the following formula: P = I2RwhereI = Current flowing in the coil R = Total resistance of the coil P = (- 8.41 x 10-4 A)2 x 3.6 ΩP ≈ 2.31 x 10-6 W

Therefore, the current in the loop is -8.41 x 10-4 A and the rate at which thermal energy is produced is 2.31 x 10-6 W.

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An automobile manufacturer claims that its
product will, starting from rest, travel 267
min 11.0 s. What is the magnitude of the
constant acceleration required to do this?

Answers

The magnitude of the constant acceleration required to do this is `0.0000248 m/s^2`.

Initial velocity u = 0

Distance travelled from rest, s = 267 min 11.0 s=267.1833 m

Time taken t = 267 min 11.0 s=16031 s

The equation for calculating acceleration is given by the relation;`

s = ut + 1/2at^2`

Substituting the given values we get;

267.1833=0+1/2a(16031)^2

=>`a=(267.1833)/(1/2*16031^2)`=`0.0000248 m/s^2

`Therefore, the magnitude of the constant acceleration required to do this is `0.0000248 m/s^2`.

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An electron moves along the z-axis with v. = 5.5 x 107 m/s. As it passes the origin, what are the strength and direction of the magnetic field at the following (x, y, z) positions? (0 cm, 2.0 cm , 1.0 cm) Express your answers in teslas separated by commas.

Answers

At the position (0 cm, 2.0 cm, 1.0 cm), the magnetic field strength is approximately -8.22 × 10^-13 T in the x-direction, and the magnetic field is zero in the y and z-directions.

To calculate the strength and direction of the magnetic field at a given point due to the motion of an electron, we can use the Biot-Savart law. The Biot-Savart law states that the magnetic field at a point due to a moving charged particle is given by:

B = (μ₀ / 4π) * (q * v × r) / r³

Where:

B is the magnetic field

μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10^-7 T·m/A)

q is the charge of the electron (-1.6 × 10^-19 C)

v is the velocity vector of the electron

r is the vector pointing from the electron to the point of interest

Let's calculate the magnetic field at the given point (0 cm, 2.0 cm, 1.0 cm):

Position vector r = (0 cm, 2.0 cm, 1.0 cm)

First, let's convert the position vector from centimeters to meters:

r = (0.00 m, 0.02 m, 0.01 m)

Now we can calculate the magnetic field using the given velocity vector:

v = 5.5 × 10^7 m/s in the z-direction

Plugging the values into the Biot-Savart law equation:

B = (μ₀ / 4π) * (q * v × r) / r³

B = (4π × 10^-7 T·m/A / 4π) * (-1.6 × 10^-19 C * (0, 0, 5.5 × 10^7 m/s) × (0.00, 0.02, 0.01) / (0.00² + 0.02² + 0.01²)^(3/2)

B = (-1.6 × 10^-19 C * (0, 0, 5.5 × 10^7 m/s) × (0.00, 0.02, 0.01) / (0.0005)^(3/2)

B = (-1.6 × 10^-19 C * (0, 0, 5.5 × 10^7 m/s) × (0.00, 0.02, 0.01) / 0.00353553

B = (-1.6 × 10^-19 C * (0, 0, 5.5 × 10^7 m/s) × (0.00, 0.02, 0.01) / 0.00353553

B ≈ (-8.22 × 10^-13 T, 0 T, 0 T)

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Question 32 (1 point) Vibrations at an angle of 90° to the direction of propagation are waves. Question 33 (1 point) The intensity of a sound at 200 m is A times less than the intensity of sound at 100 m. Question 34 (1 point) Sounds above the sonic frequency range of humans are known as A and below the sonic frequency range the sound are called A/ Question 35 (1 point) The number of cycles per second a sound wave delivers to the ear is its A to a physicist but musicians or the general public refer to this as Question 36 (1 point) The Doppler effect is associated with the difference in A heard when a source of sound and the ear are moving relative to each other.

Answers

Answer: Only statement 32 is false.

32: Vibrations at an angle of 90° to the direction of propagation are waves.

This statement is false. The vibrations which are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave is known as a transverse wave. The vibrations which are in the direction of propagation of the wave are known as longitudinal waves.

33: The intensity of a sound at 200 m is A times less than the intensity of sound at 100 m.

This is true. The intensity of sound is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. Therefore, if the distance is doubled, then the intensity decreases by four times, hence A times less than the intensity of the sound at 100 m.

34: Sounds above the sonic frequency range of humans are known as ultrasonic and below the sonic frequency range the sound are called infrasonic.

This statement is true. Infrasonic waves are the waves with frequencies less than 20 Hz whereas the waves with frequencies greater than 20 kHz are known as ultrasonic waves.

35: The number of cycles per second a sound wave delivers to the ear is its frequency to a physicist but musicians or the general public refer to this as pitch.

This statement is true. The number of cycles per second of a sound wave is its frequency which is measured in hertz. Pitch is how high or low a sound is and it is usually associated with the frequency of the sound wave.

36: The Doppler effect is associated with the difference in frequency heard when a source of sound and the ear are moving relative to each other.

This statement is true. The Doppler effect is the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer who is moving relative to the wave source. This effect is used in various applications like medical ultrasound, astronomical measurements, and weather radar systems.

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A hot wire radiates heat at 100 Watts. If its temperature measured in degrees Kelvin is doubled then the power radiated wit be what? Select one: 1. Draw a free body diagram of a hanging mass before it is submerged in water. Make sure to label your forces.

Answers

If the temperature of a hot wire measured in degrees Kelvin is doubled, the power radiated will increase by a factor of 16.

The power radiated by a hot wire is given by the Stefan-Boltzmann law:

P = σ * A * ε * T^4

where P is the power radiated, σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant, A is the surface area of the wire, ε is the emissivity (a measure of how effectively the wire radiates heat), and T is the temperature in Kelvin.

If the temperature T is doubled, the power radiated P' can be calculated by substituting 2T for T:

P' = σ * A * ε * (2T)^4 = σ * A * ε * 16T^4

Comparing P' to the original power P, we find that P' is 16 times greater than P:

P' = 16P

Therefore, if the temperature of the hot wire is doubled (measured in degrees Kelvin), the power radiated by the wire will increase by a factor of 16.

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A particle with a charge of 5.8nC is moving in a uniform magnetic field of B
=(1.45 T) k
^
. The magnetic force on the particle is measured to be: F
=−(4.02×10 −7
N) i
^
−(9 ×10 −7
N) j
^

(a) Calculate the x component of the velocity (in m/s ) of the particle (b) Calculate the y component of the velocity (in m/s ) of the particle

Answers

(a) The x-component of the velocity of the particle is approximately -0.0696 m/s.

(b) The y-component of the velocity of the particle is approximately -0.122 m/s.

The magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by the equation:

[tex]\[ \mathbf{F} = q \cdot \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B} \][/tex]

where [tex]\( q \)[/tex] is the charge of the particle, [tex]\( \mathbf{v} \)[/tex] is the velocity of the particle, and [tex]\( \mathbf{B} \)[/tex] is the magnetic field. We are given the magnitude and direction of the magnetic force as [tex]\( F = -4.02 \times 10^{-7} \, \mathrm{N} \)[/tex] in the x-direction and [tex]\( F = -9 \times 10^{-7} \, \mathrm{N} \)[/tex] in the y-direction.

By comparing the components of the magnetic force equation, we can determine the x and y components of the velocity:

[tex]\[ F_x = q \cdot v_y \cdot B \][/tex]

[tex]\[ F_y = -q \cdot v_x \cdot B \][/tex]

Solving these equations simultaneously, we can find the x and y components of the velocity. Rearranging the equations, we have:

[tex]\[ v_x = -\frac{F_y}{qB} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ v_y = \frac{F_x}{qB} \][/tex]

Substituting the given values, where [tex]\( q = 5.8 \times 10^{-9} \, \mathrm{C} \) , \( B = 1.45 \, \mathrm{T} \),[/tex] we can calculate the x and y components of the velocity:

[tex]\[ v_x = -\frac{-9 \times 10^{-7}}{5.8 \times 10^{-9} \cdot 1.45} \approx -0.0696 \, \mathrm{m/s} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ v_y = \frac{-4.02 \times 10^{-7}}{5.8 \times 10^{-9} \cdot 1.45} \approx -0.122 \, \mathrm{m/s} \][/tex]

Therefore, the x-component of the velocity of the particle is approximately -0.0696 m/s, and the y-component of the velocity is approximately -0.122 m/s.

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Learning Goal: Photoelectric Effect The work function of calcium metal is W 0

=2.71eV. 1 electron volt (eV)=1.6×10 −19
J. Use h=6.626×10 −34
J⋅s for Planck's constant and c= 3.00×10 8
m/s for the speed of light in a vacuum. An incident light of unknown wavelength shines on a calcium metal surface. The max kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is 9.518×10 −20
J. Part A - What is the energy of each photon in the incident light? Use scientific notations, format 1.234 ∗
10 n,⋅
unit is Joules photon energy = J Part B - What is the wavelength of the incident light? Enter a regular number with 1 digit after the decimal point, in nm.1 nm=10 −9
m

Answers

A.The energy of each photon in the incident light is approximately 1.1854 × 10^-19 J

B.The wavelength of the incident light is approximately 1993 nm.

Work function (W₀) = 2.71 eV

1 electron volt (eV) = 1.6 × 10^−19 J

Max kinetic energy of photoelectrons = 9.518 × 10^−20 J

Planck's constant (h) = 6.626 × 10^−34 J·s

Speed of light in a vacuum (c) = 3.00 × 10^8 m/s

Part A: Calculating the energy of each photon in the incident light.

We know that the maximum kinetic energy (K.E.) of the photoelectrons is given by the equation:

K.E. = Energy of incident photon - Work function

Let's denote the energy of each photon as E and rearrange the equation:

E = K.E. + Work function

Substituting the given values:

E = 9.518 × 10^−20 J + 2.71 eV × 1.6 × 10^−19 J/eV

Converting eV to joules:

E = 9.518 × 10^−20 J + (2.71 eV × 1.6 × 10^−19 J/eV)

E = 9.518 × 10^−20 J + 4.336 × 10^−20 J

E = 1.1854 × 10^−19 J

So, the energy of each photon in the incident light is approximately 1.1854 × 10^−19 J.

Now, let's move on to Part B: Calculating the wavelength of the incident light.

We can use the equation E = hc/λ, where λ represents the wavelength.

Rearranging the equation, we have:

λ = hc/E

Substituting the given values:

λ = (6.626 × 10^−34 J·s × 3.00 × 10^8 m/s) / (1.1854 × 10^−19 J)

Calculating the value:

λ = 1.993 × 10^−6 m

Converting meters to nanometers:

λ = 1.993 × 10^−6 m × 10^9 nm/m

λ ≈ 1993 nm

Rounding to one decimal place, the wavelength of the incident light is approximately 1993 nm.

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An ocean-going research submarine has a 20-cm-diameter window 8.0 cm thick. The manufacturer says the window can withstand forces up to 1.0 X 100 N. What is the submarine's maximum safe depth? The pressure inside the submarine is maintained at 1.0 atm.

Answers

The maximum safe depth of the submarine is approximately 10,317 meters can be determined by calculating the pressure exerted on the window and comparing it to the manufacturer's stated limit.

To calculate the maximum safe depth of the submarine, we need to consider the pressure exerted on the window. The pressure exerted by a fluid is given by the equation P = ρgh, where P is the pressure, ρ is the density of the fluid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the depth. In this case, the fluid is seawater.

First, we need to determine the pressure exerted on the window at the maximum safe depth. The pressure inside the submarine is maintained at 1.0 atm, which is equivalent to 101,325 Pa. We can assume that the density of seawater is approximately [tex]1,030 kg/m^3[/tex] and the acceleration due to gravity is [tex]9.8 m/s^2[/tex].

Using the equation P = ρgh, we can rearrange it to solve for h: h = P / (ρg). Plugging in the values, we have h = [tex]101,325 Pa / (1,030 kg/m^3 * 9.8 m/s^2)[/tex], which gives us the maximum safe depth of the submarine.

To find out the numerical value, we need to evaluate the expression. The maximum safe depth of the submarine is approximately 10,317 meters.

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A 25-m dianteter wheel accelerates uniformly about its center from 149rpm to 270rpm in 2.35. Determine the angular velocity (rad/s) of the wheel 50 s after it has started accelerating.

Answers

Given data: Diameter of the wheel (D) = 25 mInitial angular velocity (ω₁) = 149 rpmFinal angular velocity (ω₂) = 270 rpmTime taken (t) = 2.35 s.

Formula used:We know that acceleration of an object is given bya = (ω₂ - ω₁) / tThe angular velocity of an object is given byω = 2πn / 60where,n = number of rotations in 1 second.

Therefore, the angular velocity (ω) of the wheel can be calculated as:ω₁ = 2πn₁ / 60 => n₁ = ω₁ * 60 / 2πω₂ = 2πn₂ / 60 => n₂ = ω₂ * 60 / 2πa = (ω₂ - ω₁) / ta = (270 - 149) / 2.35a = 94.468 rad/s²Let the angular velocity of the wheel after 50 s be ω₃Number of rotations in 1 second = 1 / 60Total number of rotations after 50 s = 50 / 60 = 5 / 6s = ω₁t + (1/2)at²s = 149 * 2.35 + (1/2) * 94.468 * (2.35)²s = 451.50 m.

After 5 / 6 rotations, the distance covered by the wheel can be calculated as follows: Distance covered in 1 rotation = πD = 3.14 * 25 mDistance covered in 5 / 6 rotations = (5 / 6) * 3.14 * 25 m = 130.90 mThe time taken to cover this distance can be calculated as:t = s / vt = 130.90 / (25 * ω₃)t = 5.236 / ω₃Now, we can write the equation for angular velocity as:50 / 60 = ω₁ * 50 + (1/2) * 94.468 * (50)² + (1/2) * 94.468 * (5.236 / ω₃)² + ω₃ * (5.236 / ω₃)ω₃² - 10.472ω₃ + 143.245 = 0Using the quadratic formula, we get,ω₃ = [ 10.472 ± sqrt((10.472)² - 4(143.245)(1)) ] / 2ω₃ = [ 10.472 ± 42.348 ] / 2ω₃ = 26.410 rad/s (approx)Therefore, the angular velocity of the wheel 50 s after it has started accelerating is approximately 26.410 rad/s. Answer: 26.410

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Flywheel in Trucks Points:20 Delivery trucks that operate by making use of energy stored in a rotating flywheel have been used in Europe. The trucks are charged by using an electric motor to get the flywheel up to its top speed of 870 rad/s. One such flywheel is a solid homogenous cylinder, rotating about its central axis, with a mass of 810 kg and a radius of 0.65 m. What is the kinetic energy of the flywheel after charging? Submit Answer Tries 0/40 If the truck operates with an average power requirement of 9.3 kW, for how many minutes can it operate between charging?

Answers

The kinetic energy of the flywheel after charging is 252,445 J. The truck can operate between charging for approximately 4.59 minutes.

The kinetic energy of the flywheel can be calculated using the formula K.E. = (1/2) * I * ω^2, where I is the moment of inertia of the flywheel and ω is its angular velocity. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder rotating about its central axis is given by I = (1/2) * m * r^2, where m is the mass of the cylinder and r is its radius. Substituting the given values, we have I = (1/2) * (810 kg) * (0.65 m)^2.

The kinetic energy of the flywheel is then calculated as K.E. = (1/2) * [(1/2) * (810 kg) * (0.65 m)^2] * (870 rad/s)^2.

Next, we need to determine the operating time between charging. The average power requirement of the truck is given as 9.3 kW (kilowatts). Power is defined as the rate at which work is done, so we can use the formula P = ΔE/Δt, where P is power, ΔE is the change in energy, and Δt is the time interval. Rearranging the formula, we have Δt = ΔE/P.

Substituting the values, we get Δt = (252,445 J) / (9.3 kW). Since power is given in kilowatts, we convert it to watts by multiplying by 1000.

Finally, we calculate the time interval in minutes by dividing Δt by 60 seconds.

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A rod (length =2.0 m ) is uniformly charged and has a total charge of 30nC. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a point which lies along the axis of the rod and is 3.0 m from the center of the rod?

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The magnitude of the electric field at the point along the axis of the rod, which is 3.0 m from the center of the rod, is approximately[tex]8.5 x 10^6 N/C[/tex]

To determine the magnitude of the electric field at a point along the axis of the rod, we can use the principle of superposition

First, let's divide the rod into small segments of length Δx. The charge on each segment can be determined by dividing the total charge (30 nC) by the length of the rod (2.0 m), giving us a charge density of 15 nC/m.

Now, let's consider a small segment on the rod located at a distance x from the center of the rod. The electric field contribution from this segment at the point along the axis can be calculated using Coulomb's law:

dE = (k * dq) / r^2

where dE is the electric field contribution from the segment, k is the Coulomb's constant, dq is the charge of the segment, and r is the distance from the segment to the point.

Summing up the electric field contributions from all the segments of the rod using integration, we obtain the total electric field at the point along the axis:

E = ∫ dE

Since the rod is uniformly charged, the electric field will only have a non-zero component along the axis of the rod.

Considering the symmetry of the system, For a point on the axis of a uniformly charged rod, the electric field contribution from a small segment at distance x is given by:

dE = (k * dq * x) / (x^2 + L^2)^(3/2)

where L is the length of the rod.

Substituting the values into the equation, we have:

dE = (k * dq * x) / (x^2 + 2^2)^(3/2)

Integrating this expression from -L/2 to L/2 (since the rod is symmetric), we obtain the total electric field at the point along the axis:

E = ∫ dE = ∫ [(k * dq * x) / (x^2 + 2^2)^(3/2)] from -L/2 to L/2

Simplifying and plugging in the values:

E = (k * dq / 4πε₀) * (1 / 2.0 m) * ∫ [(x) / (x^2 + 2^2)^(3/2)] from -1.0 m to 1.0 m

E =[tex](9 x 10^9 Nm^2/C^2 * 15 x 10^-9[/tex] 4πε₀) * (1 / 2.0 m) * [(1/√5) - (-1/√5)]

Using ε₀ = [tex]8.85 x 10^-12 C^2/Nm^2[/tex], we can simplify further:

E [tex]= (9 x 10^9 Nm^2/C^2 * 15 x 10^-9 C / 4π * 8.85 * 10^-12 C^2/Nm^2) * (1 / 2.0 m) * 2/√5[/tex]

E ≈ [tex]8.5 x 10^6 N/C[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the electric field at the point along the axis of the rod, which is 3.0 m from the center of the rod, is approximately[tex]8.5 x 10^6 N/C[/tex]

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