1. D
100
2. M
1
3. C
500
4. I
10
5. V
50
6. L
5
7. X
1,000

Answer:

x=6, y=3

Step-by-step explanation:

6x +2y=42------(1)

8x-4y=36-------(2)

We can actually simplify it, this makes it easier to do and can avoid alot of careless mistakes

3x+y=21---(1)

2x-y=9----(2)

next, we can see that y can be eliminated

(1)+(2),

5x=21 +9

x = 30/5

x=6

substitute x=6 into (2),

2(6)-y=9

y=3

Lastly ,make a conclusion

Thus, x=6, y= 3

[tex] 6x + 2y = 42 \\ 8x - 4y = 36[/tex]

Simplify the first equation

[tex]y = 18 \\ 8x - 4y = 36[/tex]

Multiply both sides of second equation by 1/4

[tex]y = 18 \\ 2x - y = 9[/tex]

Sum the equations vertically to eliminate at least one variable

[tex]x = \frac{27}{2} [/tex]

The possible solution of the system is the ordered pair (x,y)

[tex] (x,y) = ( \frac{27}{8} , 18)[/tex]

Answer:

$9.05

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find 20% of 45.26

20% = 20/100 = 1/5 = 0.2

Of is related to multiplication

So, 20% OF 45.25 is 0.2 times 45.26

0.2 * 45.26 = 9.052

9.052 needs to be rounded to 9.05

The answer is $9.05

Hope this helps :)

Have a great day!

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

3 times 3 is 9

Answer:

9in.²

Step-by-step explanation:

just multiply the length n height = 3 × 3

= answer

Answer:

Game 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Each hit the points would double (point(x2))

Example:

1x2=2, 2x2=4, 4x2=8, 8x2= 16, 16x2=32, and so on.

Answer:

It Depends

Step-by-step explanation:

Sample Answer: For up to 11 hits, Game 1 gives the player higher scores. But for 12 or more hits, Game 2 does. That's because exponential growth eventually exceeds linear growth.

Add the two angles and then subtract from 180* to find the missing angle

So,

145* + 15* = 160*

180* - 160* = 20*

Answer: x = 20*

Answer:

y=-2/5x+5

Step-by-step explanation:

-2/5x because the slope is -2/5

5; solve for B by plugging in x=-5, y=7 into y=-2/5x+B

Answer:

441 (I think)

Step-by-step explanation:

I saw the answer in a quora post

Answer:

x = 1

y = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

for the first one it is that because 4 * 1 = 4 and then 2 * 2 equals 4 so 4 + 4 = 8

For the second one it is that because 8 * 1 = 8 and then 4 * 2 = 8 so 8 + 8 = 16!

If this helped you please mark brainliest!

Answer:

x = 1

y = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

cuz that is the answer i found

Answer:

The photo

Step-by-step explanation:

All is wreaten in the photo

Answer:

A midsegment is the line segment connecting the midpoints of two sides of a triangle. Since a triangle has three sides, each triangle has three midsegments. A triangle midsegment is parallel to the third side of the triangle and is half of the length of the third side.

Step-by-step explanation:

w = 55

y = 55

X = 125

z = 125

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles with in a cube add up to 360 degrees

Answer:

w = 55 (vertical to 55)

y = 55 (corresponding to 55)

x = 125

z = 125

Step-by-step explanation:

55+55=110

a parallelogram = 360

360-110=250

x+z=250

x=z

250/2=125

Answer:

10.8

Step-by-step explanation:

sin(37) =AB/AC

Since AC=18

AB= 18sin(37)

Therefore AB=10.8

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Exponential functions are written in the form  [tex]f(x)=ab^x[/tex]

[tex]a[/tex] is the initial value of an exponential function and is found by substituting [tex]x=0[/tex] into the function as [tex]b^0=1[/tex]

Therefore, as y = 4 when x = 0, the initial value is 4

Answer:

s= -5

Step-by-step explanation:

-7s + 3s - 6 = 14

-4s = 20

s = -5

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

-7s+3s-6=14

combine like terms

-4s-6=14

add 6 to both side

-4s=20

divide by 4

-1=5

x-1

1=-5

(-7x-5)+(3x-5)-6

(-4x-5)-6=14

20-6=14

Formula:

[tex] \frac{5000}{2000} [/tex]

[tex] = > \frac{5}{2} [/tex]

[tex] = > 2.5[/tex]

Hence, 5000 Pound is equal to 2.5 Ton.

Step-by-step explanation:

The unit of weight in the avoirdupois system equal to 2,000 pounds in the United States and 2,240 pounds in Britain. The metric ton used in most other countries is 1,000 kg, equivalent to 2,204.6 pounds.

Answer: 2 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

The first one is 1:4 and the second is 4:1.

All there is to do is simple division (or simplifying). In the first set of two numbers side length is 6 and perimeter is 24. So if it's side length to perimeter then 6 to 24 which can be simplified to 1 to 4 and just switch the numbers with perimeter to side length.

Answer:

1. Side length to perimeter = 1:4

2. Perimeter to side length = 4:1

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok, so ratios are basically a way to compare two things.

For example, if someone askes the ratio of boys to girls in Mrs. White's class. Say there are 12 boys and 9 girls.

boys to girls = 12 to 9

That's a ratio!

Ratios are typically written like "12 to 9" (with the word "to") or "12:9" (with a colon) but there are also other ways.

In THIS question, you have to find the ratio of side length to perimeter and then vice versa. So, we see that the first number listed for side length is 6, and the first number for perimeter is 24. As we look down the chart, we should notice a pattern- the perimeter is 4 times as much as the side length! Therefore, the ratio of side length to perimeter is 1:4. To find the ratio of perimeter to side length, we just switch the order of the numbers. Now it's 4:1.

There! It's pretty simple! You just are finding the unit ratio!

If you need any more help, let me know! :)

Step-by-step explanation:

i) Since,

Diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other so,

RM = 2 × RP

=> RM = 2 × 12

=> RM = 24 (Ans)(i)

ii) Since,

Opposite sides of a parallelogram are equal so,

GM = AR = 15

=> GM = 15 (Ans)(ii)

iii) Since,

Opposite sides of a parallelogram are equal so,

AM = RG = 19

=> AM = 19 (Ans)(iii)

Given :

GRAM is a parallelogram where

Solution :

We know that,

So,

RG = 19

⇢ RG = AM [Opposite sides]

⇢ AM = 19 .

Since,

⠀⠀RP = 12

⇢ RM = 2(RP) [Diagonals bisect each other]

⇢ RM = 2(12)

⇢ RM = 24

Since,

⠀⠀AR = 19

⇢ AR = GM [Opposite sides]

⇢ GM = 15 .

[tex]ax^2+bx+c=a(x-x_1)(x-x_2)=>\\\text{Ans:} (x-3)(x+2)[/tex]

Answer:

the amount of decrease is 30%

Answer:  30

Step-by-step explanation:

$19.50 discount

discount percentage 30%

Answer:

15.65 foot

Step-by-step explanation:

Pythagoras theorem can be used

a² + b² = c²

a being 14
b being unknown ( x )
c being 21

hence,

14² + x² = 21²
196 + x² = 441

x = √245  

  = 15.65 foot (answer)

Answer:

0.00355514147

Step-by-step explanation:

Do Long Division

Answer:

g(0) = 0

g(1) = 1  

g(-1) = 1  

Step-by-step explanation:

g(1) = -1 means that when 1 is inputted into the function, the output is -1.

Therefore, y = -1 when x = 1.  From inspection of the graph, when x = 1, y = 1, therefore this is untrue.

g(0) = 0 ⇒ y = 0 when x = 0. From inspection of the graph, when x = 0, y = 0. Therefore this is true.

g(4) = -2  ⇒ y = -2 when x = 4. From inspection of the graph, we cannot read when x = 4, but y > 0 when x = 4.  Therefore this is untrue.

g(1) = 1  ⇒ y = 1 when x = 1. From inspection of the graph, when x = 1, y = 1. Therefore this is true.

g(-1) = 1  ⇒ y = 1 when x = -1. From inspection of the graph, when x = -1, y = 1. Therefore this is true.

Answer:

6600?

Step-by-step explanation:

110 x 12 = 1320

1320 x 5 = 6600

(I suck at math)

Answer:

150

Step-by-step explanation:

50pg=1.5h multiply both by 3 to get 4.5 hours 50x3=150

Answer: 150

hope this helped :)

Scale drawing takes scaled versions of original lengths. The actual length of the swing set area of the park is 25 ft long and 100 ft wide

For a particular scale drawing, it is already specified that all the measurements' some constant scaled version will be taken. For example, let the scale be K feet to s inches.

Then it means

[tex]\rm 1\: ft : \dfrac{s}{k}\: in.[/tex]

All feet measurements will then be multiplied by s/k to get the drawing's corresponding lengths.

For the given case, it is given that

Real dimension of a rectangular park : 600 ft by 1000 ft

In drawing, it was of 12 inches by 20 inches.

Let the scale that the drawing is using be k feet to s inches, then

[tex]\rm 1\: ft : \dfrac{s}{k}\: in.[/tex]

Since it is given that 600 ft : 12 inches and 1000 ft : 20 inches, thus, we get:

[tex]\rm 1\: ft : \dfrac{s}{k}\: in.\\\\600 \: ft = \dfrac{600\times s}{k} \: in. = 12 \: in.\\\\\dfrac{600 \times s}{k} = 12\\\\\dfrac{s}{k} = \dfrac{12}{600} = 0.02[/tex]

Thus, every feet is reduced 0.02 times in drawing.

Now,

it is given that in drawing, the rectangular area for swing sets is 0.5 inch to 2 inch.

Let its real length was L and real width was W. Then we have:
[tex]\rm L \times 0.02 = 0.5 \\\\L = \dfrac{0.5}{0.02} = 25 \:\\\\W \times 0.02 = 2 \\W = \dfrac{2}{0.02} = 100[/tex]

Since these are only magnitudes, and unit was converted from feet to inches, so we have L = 25 feet and W = 100 feet

Thus,

The actual length of the swing set area of the park is 25 ft long and 100 ft wide

Learn more about scaling here:
https://brainly.com/question/8765466

Answer:

the answer is 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{10}*\frac{3}{4} =\frac{3}{40}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 10 numbers 0,1,…9

Probability that 3 is selected is  [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex]

Again, there are 4 letters A,B,C & D of which 3 are consonants and 1 is vowel. So, probability of selecting a consonant is [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex] . Hence, the required probability is [tex]\frac{1}{10} *\frac{3}{4} = \frac{3}{40}[/tex]

Brainliest?!

Answer:

what is the rest?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

48.2° (1 d.p.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Start by labelling the given sides on the triangle.

The side in which the angle of interest and the right angle sits on is the adjacent side, while the side facing the right angle is the hypotenuse side (denoted by hyp).

[tex]\boxed{ \cosθ = \frac{adj}{hyp} }[/tex]

[tex]\cosθ = \frac{6}{9} [/tex]

[tex]θ = \cos^{ - 1} ( \frac{6}{9} )[/tex]

θ= 48.2° (1 d.p.)